Exam 1 Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Why is the face unique? (4)

  • thin or thick skin?
  • any glands?
  • fascia?
A

1- Skin on face is THIN and MOVEABLE
2- Skin has MANY sebaceous and sweat glands
3- Superficial fascia of face is LOOSE, except at nose (moveable for facial expression)
4- There is NO DEEP fascia over face

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2
Q

Where are the muscles of facial expression found/embedded in?

A

Embedded in SUPERFICIAL FASCIA
(Innervation - facial nerve CN VII)

**superficial fascia of face is loose, except at nose (so it can be moveable for facial expression)

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3
Q

In severe damage to the face, what is required and why?

What can’t you use?

A
  • FACIAL TRANSPLANT required
  • because muscles of facial expression insert onto skin rather then tendons (so you CANNOT use grafts of other body muscles
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4
Q

What are the 3 unique properties of facial muscles

1- embedded/origin
2- what type of control
3- how are muscle contractions detected and why

A

1- Embedded in superficial fascia and take origin form underlying bones (mostly) and INSERT INTO SKIN

2- NEURAL control is BOTH VOLUNTARY and EMOTIONAL/INVOLUNTARY control

3- Muscle contractions are DETECTED BY STRETCHING OF SKIN since facial muscles have FEW or NO muscle SPINDLES

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5
Q

There are 2 main disorders of facial nerve CN VII. Identify this;

  • associated with VIRAL infection HERPES SIMPLEX
  • Symptoms; sudden onset PARALYSIS OF ALL FACIAL MUSCLES on ONE SIDE (drooling, inability to close eye)
  • loss of taste to anterior tongue
  • pain in or behind EAR
  • Hyperacousia
A

BELL’S PALSY - LOWER motor neuron disorder of facial nerve CN VII

**
Drooping EYEBROW AND UPPER LIP
(Muscles of BOTH upper and lower face affected)

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6
Q

There are 2 main disorders of facial nerve CN VII. Identify this;

  • SPARING of UPPER face
  • After critical stokes, often ONLY MUSCLE OF LOWER FACE are PARALYZED on ONE SIDE
  • muscles of upper face are not affected (brow, orbicularis oculi)
  • cortical projections (CONTROL) are bilateral to upper face and unilateral (contralateral) to lower face
A

UPPER MOTOR NEURONS DISORDER OF VII

**Drooping of ONLY upper lip (not eyebrow)

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7
Q

Identify the appropriate control of muscles of facial expression

1- upper motor neuron lesion and control

2-Lower motor neuron lesion and control

A

1- UPPER

  • cortical stroke (vascular occlusion)
  • Affects only muscles of lower face (sparing of upper face)
  • UPPER FACE CONTROL IS BILATERAL
  • lower face control is UNILATERAL/CONTRALATERAL CORTEX

2- LOWER

  • Bell’s palsy
  • Affects all muscles of facial expression
  • Symptoms are UNILATERAL
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8
Q

The circulatory system supplies the heart and then the brain. The brain is supplied with what main artery? Where does it come directly from?

A

COMMON CAROTID ARTERY

1- Left common carotid artery; comes directly from the ARCH OF AORTA

2- Right common carotid artery comes from the BRACHIOCEPHALIC TRUNK

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9
Q

The COMMON CAROTID a. Is the main artery that supplied the head. What does this artery further divide to in order to supply ;

  • the brain?
  • the face and head?
A

1- Common carotid ; EXTERNAL and INTERNAL carotid arteries

2- Internal carotid artery and vertebral artery SUPPLY BRAIN

3- External carotid artery SUPPLIES FACE AND HEAD 
Branches; 
1- Superior thyroid 
2- Ascending pharyngeal 
3-Lingual 
4-FACIAL 
5-Occipital 
6-Posterior auricular 
7-SUPERFICIAL TEMPORAL 
8-Maxillary
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10
Q

What are the 3 sites to take pulse?

A

1- PULSE OF CAROTID ARTERY: Palpate CAROTID BIFURCATION at upper border of thyroid cartilage at vertebral level C4

2- FACIAL PULSE (a branch of external carotid artery); courses first medial to mandible and then anterior

3- SUPERFICIAL TEMPORAL ARTERY (a branch of external carotid a.); arises anterior to external auditory meatus (opening to ear), deep to parotid

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11
Q

The main artery that supplies the face/head/brain is the common carotid artery. It branches off to external carotid (supply face and head) and internal carotid (supply brain).

**What are the 2 main arteries that supply the HEAD?

A

1- FACIAL a.
-extremely winding and tortuous (skin moves) WIGGLE WIGGLE WIGGLE
-arises from anterior side of external carotid a.
-courses first medial to mandible and then anterior
-site of facial pulse
**2 BRANCHES of facial artery:
A-Superior and Inferior LABIAL arteries; upper and lower lips (anastomoses with opposite side, lead to profuse bleeding when you cut lip)
B-ANGULAR artery; nose, angle/corner of eye

2- SUPERFICIAL TEMPORAL a.
-one of terminal branches
-arises anterior to external auditory meatus (Opening to ear), deep to parotid
-many branches to scalp
Branch to face is ;
A- TRANSVERSE facial artery; above parotid duct

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12
Q

What artery supplies the brain and also branches to eye and face?

Further branches

**what is the major route for nerves/blood vessels to get to face and nasal cavity

A

INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY (enters skull WITHOUT branching)

A. Ophthalmic artery; many branches to orbit but also has a number of named branches to face, forehead and nose ;

  • SUPRAORBITAL a. (Above orbit)
  • SUPRATROCHLEAR a. (On medial and superior side of orbit)

**Orbit/eye socket contains the eye and muscles that move the eye; orbit is also a MAJOR ROUTE for nerves/blood vessels to get to other places like face and nasal cavity

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13
Q

NAME THE ARTERY

1- courses through foramina transversaria C1-C6; supplies brain stem and spinal cord and go to skull

2- ascends without branching into skull (via carotid canal)

A

1- VERTEBRAL artery

2- INTERNAL CAROTID artery

**Both supply the brain

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14
Q

What is unique about veins of face?

  • how many valves?
  • drain to?
  • anastomosis?

**what are the 3 veins that supply face

A

VEINS OF FACE have NO VALVES or few and variable

  • drain to neck and into skull
  • extensive anastomoses btw branches of facial and ophthalmic veins
3 veins (Branches follow arteries)
1- Facial vein; STRAIGHT course 

To ophthalmic veins;
1- SUPRAORBITAL vein
2- SUPRATROCHLEAR vein

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15
Q

How does infection spread from face to brain?

Pass through what to what?
What is the clinical sign?

**what is the anastomosis of facial and ophthalmic vein called?

A
  • PROLONGED INFECTIONS spread VIA VEINS (low pressure and no valves)
  • Pass through orbit to CAVERNOUS SINUS (anastomoses of facial and ophthalmic veins - ophthalmic veins drain to cavernous sinus (venous sinus inside skull))

CLINICAL SIGN ; blurred vision/ DIPLOPIA (cranial nerves - III,IV,VI to eye muscles pass through cavernous sinus); infections LATERAL to nose particularly dangerous

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16
Q

Name the 12 cranial nerves and function

A

I. OLFACTORY - sense of smell
II. OPTIC - vision
III. OCULOMOTOR - eye movement
IV. TROCHLEAR - eye movement
V. TRIGEMINAL - touch, general sensation to skin, oral cavity, nasal cavity and more
VI. ABDUCENS - eye movement
VII. FACIAL - muscles of facial expression and lots more
VIII. VESTIBULO-COCHLEAR - hearing and balance
IX. GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL - SENSORY to pharynx and more
X. VAGUS - SENSORY and MOTOR to larynx (voice box), pharynx and rest of body
XI. ACCESSORY - sternocleidomastoid, trapezius
XI. HYPOGLOSSAL - muscles of tongue

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17
Q

The dermatome/sensory innervation of the trigeminal nerve - to skin of head has 3 divisions. What are they?

**What type of sensation and neuron?

A

V1- OPHTHALMIC division

Boundary - lateral edge of EYE

V2- MAXILLARY division

Boundary - lateral edge of MOUTH

V3- MANDIBULAR division

  • *SOMATIC SENSORY
  • *PRECISE SENSATION
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18
Q

The sensory supply of trigeminal nerve to face has 3 branches. What are the further divisions/

A

V1 Ophthalmic - to skin ABOVE ORBIT

  • Lacrimal
  • SUPRAORBITAL
  • SUPRATROCHLEAR
  • Infratrochlear
  • External nasal nerve

V2 Maxillary - to skin of cheek BELOW ORBIT

  • Zygomaticotemporal
  • Zygomaticofacial
  • Infraorbital

V3 MANDIBULAR - to skin of jaw and face BELOW ANGLE OF MOUTH

  • Auriculotemporal
  • Buccal
  • Mental
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19
Q

What muscles ;

Move skin of face, close eyes and mouth, allow to convey emotions by facial gestures like sneering and contempt)

**what is the innervation
How do you test for nerve function

A

MUSCLES OF FACIAL EXPRESSION (all skeletal muscles)

-most attached to bones and insert upon skin

  • *CN VII - facial nerve
  • movements elicited in test for facial nerve function
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20
Q

There are 15 total muscles of the facial expression. What is the 1 muscle in the eye? What is the action ?
Nerve

A

ORBICULARIS OCULI

Action

1) Orbital part (surrounds eyelids) - buries eyelids (as in sandstorm)
2) Palpebral part (within eyelids) - CLOSES EYELID

Nerve
VII

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21
Q

Why is closing the eyelid by the orbicularis oculi important?

A

CLOSING EYELID essential to PREVENT CORNEA DAMAGE

-cover, sew eyelids shut (neonates) in facial paralysis

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22
Q

There are 15 total muscles of the facial expression. 1 in the eye and 3 in the nose. What are the muscles in the nose and the actions

A

NOSE

1- COMPRESSOR NARIS; compress nasal cartilage

2- DILATOR NARIS; dilates nostrils (contempt)

3- PROCERUS; wrinkles skin of nose (sneering)

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23
Q

There are 15 total muscles of the facial expression. 1 in the eye, 3 in the nose and 7 in the mouth. What are the mouth muscles and actions

2 upper lip
3 angle of mouth
2 lower lip/chin

A

MOUTH
1- ORBICULARIS ORIS; closes mouth (surrounds lips)

2- LEVATOR LABII SUPERIORIS; lifts upper lip

3- ZYGOMATICUS MAJOR AND MINOR; raise and pull upper lip laterally

4- LEVATOR ANGULI ORIS; raises corner of mouth

5- RISORIUS (smiling muscle); smiling muscle

6- DEPRESSOR ANGULI ORIS; tragedy muscle

7- DEPRESSOR LABII INFEIORIS; depresses lower lip

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24
Q

Bell’s palsy exhibit various syspoms

  • Drooping of corner of mouth in Bell’s palsy is as a result of what muscle affected?
  • difficulty ‘eating food’, drooling
  • Drooping of eye brow

**what muscles are affected?

A

1- LEVATOR ANGULI ORIS

2- BUCCINATOR

3- Frontalis and occipitalis

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25
Q

There are 15 total muscles of the facial expression. 1 in the eye, 3 in nose, 7 in mouth and 4 others

A

OTHER

1- MENTALIS; wrinkles skin of chin

2- BUCCINATOR; compresses mouth and keeps food btw teeth when chewing

3- FRONTALIS AND OCCIPITALIS ; move scalp (attach to epicranial aponeurosis); frontalis raises eyebrows

4- PLATYSMA; stretches skin of neck

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26
Q

What is the clinical test for FACIAL nerve function

A

1- wrinkle head by raising eyebrows; FRONTALIS

2- purse lips; ORBICULARIS ORIS

3- smile; RISORIUS

4- show teeth; LEVATOR LABII SUPERIORIS, ZYGOMATICUS MAJOR etc.

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27
Q

What is the MOTOR innervation to muscles of facial expression via facial nerve

What are the 5 terminal branches

A
  • nerve leaves skull via STYLOMASTOID FORAMEN
  • enters parotid gland
  • divides into 5 terminal branches;
  1. Temporal
  2. Zygomatic
  3. Buccal
  4. MANDIBULAR
  5. Cervical
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28
Q

How does the face develop to five facial primordial

  • what week do they form
  • 3 processs of face
  • what do they surround
A

-form in FOURTH WEEK in development and surround developing stomodeum (primitive mouth)

  1. Frontonasal process; formed by MESENCHYME below brain; UNPAIRED
  2. Maxillary processes; form first branchial arch; PAIRED
  3. MANDIBULAR processes; form first branchial arch, inferior to maxillary process
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29
Q

What is the sequence of development of face

  • what form on each side of frontonasal process
  • what form at margins of nasal placode
  • what from upper part of nostril
  • what form upper lip
  • how is nasolacrimal duct formed (major function)
A
  1. THICKENINGS (NASAL PLACODES) form on each side of frontonasal process
  2. Medial and lateral nasal processes form at MARGINS of NASAL PLACODES
  3. Upper parts of medial and lateral nasal processes fuse to form UPPER PART OF NOSTRIL
  4. Inferior part of medial nasal processes fuse with maxillary process on each side to form UPPER LIP
  5. Nasolacrimal duct
    - connects anterior eye to nasal cavity; - DRAINS TEARS,
    - forms in development as a solid epithelial cord that extends from medial angle of eye to nasal cavity, cord BECOMES CANALIZED to from duct
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30
Q

What condition results from FAILURE OF FUSION of medial nasal processes with maxillary process on that side

A

CLEFT LIP

  • *can be unilateral or bilateral
  • *occurs in 1 in 1000 births
  • can occur in combination with cleft palate
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31
Q

What condition results from failure of duct to canalize; must be opened for tears to drain to nasal cavity

What is tx?

A

OBSTRUCTED NASOLACRIMAL DUCT

**opened surgically for tears to drain to nasal cavity

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32
Q

Identify the nerves

1- contain inflow/outflow of SPINAL CORD

2

  • contain inflow/outflow of BRAIN
  • often contain types of neurons that are SIMILAR to types of neurons found in spinal nerves like SENSORY AXONS of SKIN
  • contain types of neurons not found in spinal nerves e.g TASTE FIBERS
  • contain more than one type of neuron
A

1- SPINAL NERVES

2- CRANIAL NERVES
**there is a system of classification of types of neurons used to analyze types of neurons in diff cranial nerves

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33
Q

In order to analyze and remember the types of neurons found in different cranial nerves, there is a system of classification of types of neurons. Why is this?

*how many types of neurons

A

Neurons of same type will form columns of nuclei in the brain stem

7 types of neurons

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34
Q

There are 7 types of neurons found in the cranial nerves. 4 of which are same types as spinal nerves. The other 3 are only found in cranial nerves.

Identify the 7

A

A. Same as in spinal nerves

  1. SOMATIC MOTOR (GSE); voluntary SKELETAL muscles (derived from somites)
  2. SOMATIC SENSORY (GSA); Sensation is PRECISE to skin joints, muscle, tendon receptors (in head, also nasal and oral cavities)
  3. VISCERAL MOTOR (GVE-efferents) = AUTONOMICS -SMOOTH muscles (including arrector Pilae muscles of skin), blood vessels; secretomotor to target glands
  4. VISCERAL SENSORY (GVA); Sensation is IMPRECISE from gut, blood vessels, glands, internal organs (in head, pharynx which is rostral end of gut)

B. Only in cranial nerves

  1. SPECIAL SENSES (SSA) - vision, hearing (auditory), balance (vestibular apparatus)
  2. CHEMICAL SENSES (SVA)- taste and smell
  3. BRANCHIOMOTOR (SVE)- voluntary skeletal muscles from branchial arches
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35
Q

Name the cranial nerves and innervation

A

I. OLFACTORY ; smell
II. OPTIC; vision
III. OCCULOMOTOR; eye movement, also parasympathetic to eye smooth muscle
IV. TROCHLEAR ; eye movement
V. TRIGEMINAL ; SENSORY nerve to skin, oral and nasal cavities, outer ear
VI. ABDUCENS ; eye movement
VII. FACIAL; muscles of facial expression, also taste, parasympathetic e.t.c
VIII. Vestibule-cochlear (stato-acoustic); hearing and balance
IX. GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL; SENSORY to pharynx, back of tongue (gag reflex)
X. VAGUS ; MOTOR to pharynx (most), larynx (voice box), soft palate, many others
XI. ACCESSORY (Spinal accessory) ; MOTOR to sternocleidomastoid, trapezius
XII. HYPOGLOSSAL ; MOTOR to muscles of tongue

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36
Q

Identify the neuron type

  • considered VOLUNTARY, CONSCIOUS part of nervous system
  • control skeletal muscle
  • VOLUNTARY activities (e.g limb or eye movements, walking)
  • conscious actions
A

SOMATIC MOTOR (Efferents)

Motor axons to skeletal muscles e.g muscles of hand

**This neuron type found in cranial nerves is similar to those found in spinal cord (INNERVATE VOLUNTARY SKELETAL muscles derived from somites)

  • somatic motor in head is limited to 2 GROUPS
    1. EYE (extraocular muscles that move eye and lift upper eyelid) - derived from pre-otic somites, innervated by
  • Occulomotor III ; to superior, inferior and medial RECTUS, Inferior oblique and LEVATOR palpebrae SUPERIORIS (skeletal part)
  • TROCHLEAR IV ; to Superior oblique muscle
  • ABDUCENS VI; lateral RECTUS muscle
  1. Intrinsic and Extrinsic muscles of TONGUE - derived from OCCIPITAL SOMITES - all innervated by XII (HYPOGLOSSAL)
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37
Q

Identify the neuron type

  • considered VOLUNTARY, CONSCIOUS part of nervous system
  • sensory neurons that innervate skin joints
  • provide PRECISE CONSCIOUS SENSATION of touch, pressure, pain etc. to skin
  • also provide SENSE OF BODY POSITION (prioception)
A

SOMATIC SENSORY (Afferents)

Sensory axons to skin; also joints, body position

  • innervate SKIN OF HEAD, ORAL cavity, NASAL cavity, joints, muscles;
  • sensory cell bodies in sensory ganglia attached to cranial nerves as they enter central nervous system, similar to DRG (dorsal root ganglia)
  1. All of face, forehead, temporal region, ORAL CAVITY, temporo-mandibular joint
    innervated by V (TRIGEMINAL); Note: cell bodies in TRIGEMINAL GANGLION (similar to dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves).
  2. Exception: skin of outer ear, external auditory meatus is innervated by V
    (TRIGEMINAL), plus branches of VII (FACIAL), IX (Glossopharyngeal) and X (VAGUS). (note: sensory cell bodies of VII in sensory ganglion called GENICULATE GANGLION)
    Note: In Bell’s Palsy (paralysis of VII) patients can complain of EAR ACHE due to PRECISE sensory innervation of outer ear by FACIAL NERVE.
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38
Q

Identify the neuron type

  • INVOLUNTARY, unconscious part of nervous system
  • control SMOOTH and cardiac muscle, glands and internal organs
  • largely UNCONSCIOUS ACTIONS (autonomic means self-regulating or automatic)
A

VISCERAL MOTOR (PARASYMPATHETIC and sympathetic efferents)

  1. SYMPATHETIC innervation (THORACOLUMBAR OUTFLOW) - NOT in cranial nerves
    A. FIRST NEURON arises from spinal cord levels T1, T2; axons exits via ventral roots and white communicating rami, ascends in paravertebral sympathetic chain to synapse in superior cervical ganglion

B. SECOND NEURON in SUPERIOR CERVICAL GANGLION; axon joins plexuses associated with branches of internal and external carotid arteries; these give off branches in 2 ways; i) small unnamed branches close to target ; II) small named branches that come off arterial plexuses and join other nerves (e.g deep petrosal nerve)

  1. PARASYMPATHETIC innervation (CRANIOSACRAL OUTFLOW) - in cranial nerves - FIRST NEURON (PREGANGLIONIC) in brainstem; axon goes out with cranial nerve to synapse in named ganglion located close to target; SECOND NEURON (POSTGANGLIONIC) innervates target
  • *Sympathetic - ganglia close to vertebrae
  • *Parasympathetic - ganglia close to target organ
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39
Q

Identify the neuron type

  • INVOLUNTARY, unconscious part of nervous system
  • SENSORY neurons that innervate internal organs, blood vessels
  • only provide IMPRECISE LOCALIZATION OF SENSATION and dull sense of pressure, pain etc
A

VISCERAL SENSORY (afferents)

  • distributed with both parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation; imprecise sensation, poorly localized
    1. Sensory axons with sympathetic - sensory to blood vessels, pharynx and its derivatives; cell bodies in dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord; axons travel with sympathetic efferents
    2. Sensory axons with parasympathetic - more localized, specific
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40
Q

What are the 4 nerves of visceral motor, their respective ganglion and innervation?

A

III (OCULOMOTOR)
- CILIARY ganglion - innervates pupillary sphincter/constrictor muscle, ciliary muscle

VII (Facial)

  • PTERYGOPALATINE ganglion - lacrimal gland, mucous glands of nose palate
  • SUBMANDIBULAR ganglion - submandibular, sublingual salivary glands

IX (GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL)
- OTIC ganglion - parotid gland

X (Vagus) - Many ganglia in thorax, abdomen - provides parasympathetic innervation to many organs in thorax and abdomen

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41
Q

What are the 3 nerves of the visceral sensory nerves and their respective innervation

  • Nasopharynx
  • sensation to laryngopharynx, larynx in head
  • Sensation to posterior third of tongue
A

VII (facial) - innervates NASOPHARYNX

IX (GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL) - sensation (touch, pressure) to posterior third of tongue, OROPHARYNX, tympanic cavity and auditory tube, carotid sinus

X (Vagus) - Sensation to LARYNGOPHARYNX, larynx in head (also innervates many organs in thorax and abdomen)

**Imprecise localization in CHOKING on food; middle ear infections

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42
Q

There are 7 neurons in the cranial nerve. Identify the neuron type

  • INNERVATE; Vision, hearing, balance
  • ASSOCIATED CN;
  • II (Optic nerve)
  • VIII (VESTIBUOCOCHLEAR nerve)
A

SPECIAL SENSES

    • II (Optic nerve)
  • vision (actually a brain tract);
  • primary receptors (rods and cones) in retina;
  • axons of ganglion cells of retina from optic nerve;
  • half of axons cross over to opposite side of optic chiasm

**VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve) - auditory and vestibular sensation; cell bodies in cochlear and vestibular apparatus

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43
Q

There are 7 neurons in the cranial nerve. Identify the neuron type

INNERVATION -Smell and taste
ASSOCIATED CN
- I (Olfactory nerve) for smell
- VII, IX, X for taste (what parts of the tongue?)

A

CHEMICAL SENSES

  1. Smell - I (Olfactory nerve) - cell bodies in olfactory epithelium, axons project through fila olfactoria to olfactory bulb
  2. Taste - more complex - distributed over several cranial nerves

VII (facial) - ANTERIOR 2/3rd of TONGUE
IX (GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL - POSTERIOR 1/3RD of tongue
X (Vagus) - POSTERIOR tongue, immediately anterior to epiglottis
**Damage produces loss of taste in region of innervation

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44
Q

There are 7 neurons in the cranial nerve. Identify the neuron type

-VOLUNTARY MOTOR to SKELETAL MUSCLES of face, ear, pharynx and neck that are derived from BRANCHIAL ARCHES

What are the 5 nerves and what do they innervate 
Tensor palati 
Stapedius
Stylopharyngeus 
Muscles of larynx 
Trapezius
A

BRANCHIOMOTOR

V (Trigeminal) all in V3 - muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, tensor tympani, tensor palati, anterior belly of digastric

VII (Facial) - muscles of facial expression, stylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric, stapedius

IX (GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL) - stylopharyngeus

X (Vagus) - all muscles of pharynx (except stylopharyngeus), muscles of larynx, all muscles of palate (except tensor palati)

XI (Accessory) - sternocleidomastoid, trapezius

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45
Q

What are the neuron components of CN III (OCULOMOTOR)

A
  1. Somatic motor (GSE)

2. Visceral motor (GVE)

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46
Q

What are the cranial nerves that only contain somatic motor neurons (GSE)?

A

IV - TROCHLEAR
VI - ABDUCENS
XII - Hypoglossal

**III is also somatic motor but also visceral motor

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47
Q

What cranial nerve contains both BRANCHIOMOTOR (SVE) and SOMATIC SENSORY (GSA) neurons?

A
CN 
V (trigeminal) 
VII
IX
X

**XI is in BRANCHIOMOTOR but not in somatic sensory

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48
Q

What are the neurons contained in CN VII (facial), IX (GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL), X (vagus)

A
  1. BRANCHIOMOTOR (SVE)
  2. VISCERAL MOTOR (GVE)
  3. SOMATIC SENSORY (GSA)
  4. VISCERAL SENSORY (GVA)
  5. CHEMICAL SENSE (SVA)

**All neurons except special senses (SSA) and somatic motor (GSE)

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49
Q

What is the neuron present in CN I

A

CHEMICAL SENSES (SVA)

**Other neurons in chemical senses
I - smell 
VII - anterior 2/3rd of tongue
IX - posterior 1/3rd of tongue
X- anterior to epiglottis
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50
Q

WHAT NEURON IS PRESENT IN CN II (optic) AND VIII (vestibulococchlear)

A

SPECIAL SENSES (SSA)

*II - vision
VIII- hearing and balance

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51
Q

The 7 types of neurons can be classified in the 3 letter system

  1. G/S
  2. S/V
  3. A/E
A
  1. G - general (types of neurons found BOTH in spinal nerves and cranial nerves)
    S - special (types of neurons ONLY FOUND in CRANIAL NERVES not spinal nerves)
  2. S - Somatic - types of neurons innervation gets structures derived from somites (myotomes)
    V - Visceral - types of neurons innervating gut, structures derived from or associated with GUT and BRANCHIAL ARCHES, also vascular system, smooth muscle, internal organs and glands
  3. A - afferent - sensory neurons
    E - Efferent - motor neurons to skeletal and smooth muscle, also secretomotor neurons to glands
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52
Q

Vision is composed of eye that senses and transmits information about shape, color and movement of objects. What are the other components/structures responsible for vision (4)

3 chambers
3 layers

A
  1. Internal space has 3 chambers
    - anterior (located btw cornea, iris and lens)
    - posterior (small space btw iris, ciliary process, ZONULAR fibers and lens)
    - vitreous (large posterior space behind lens and ZONULAR fibers, surrounded by retina)
  2. Lens
  3. Optic nerve - (visual images are conveyed from eye to brain via optic nerve)
  4. Eye wall structure has 3 layers
    - sclera, cornea
    - uveal tract (densely pigmented posterior portion is CHOROID, anterior portion is CILIARY BODY, third portion is IRIS)
    - retina (innermost lining of posterior chamber in contact with choroid. Posterior three quarters is Photosensitive region consists of rods, cones and various interneurons - cells that are stimulated by and respond to light). Retina terminates anteriorly at ORA SERRATA -nonphotosensitive part of retina
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53
Q

What connects the lens to the ciliary body?

What is the function of the eye? Where is eye located?

Contents of the eye?

A

SUSPENSORY LIGAMENT / ZONULAR FIBERS

**The eye is a highly specialized organ for PERCEPTION of form, LIGHT and COLOR

-The eye is located in protective cavities within the skull called ORBITS

-Each eye contains;
+PROTECTIVE COVER to maintain its shape
+A LENS for focusing
+PHOTOSENSITIVE CELLS that respond to light stimuli
+NUMEROUS CELLS that process visual information
(The visual impulses from the photosensitive cells are then conveyed to the brain via the axons that leave the eye in the OPTIC NERVE)

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54
Q

Each eyeball is surrounded by 3 distinct layers

Identify the structure of the eye wall

-outer white layer
-DENSE connective tissue
+ collagen and elastic fibers
+ point of attachment of extraocular muscles
-ANTERIOR portion is the CORNEA (light rays enter eye through here)
-Inner layer is located adjacent to the CHOROID (contains diff types of CT fibers and cells, including macrophages and melanocytes, have many blood vessels that give nutrient to photoreceptor cells)

A

SCLERA

  • (maintains the RIGIDITY of the eyeball and is the WHITE of the eye)
  • choroid and ciliary body are adjacent to sclera

3 layers of eyeball

  1. Outer fibrous layer; cornea and sclera
  2. Middle layer; vascular layer (UVEA)- CHOROID, ciliary body, iris
  3. Inner layer; sensory retina
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55
Q

Each eyeball is surrounded by 3 distinct layers. The outer fibrous layer, middle layer and inner layer. The outer fibrous layer consist of cornea and sclera.

  • In the layers of the eye, the transition btw sclera and cornea is what?
  • In the posterior region, what does the sclera merge with?
A

LIMBUS

**In the posterior region, the sclera merges with the dura mater where the optic nerve exits the eye
(The posterior five sixths of the sclera is an OPAQUE outer layer of DENSE CT that extends from the cornea to the optic nerve)

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56
Q

Each eyeball is surrounded by 3 distinct layers. The outer fibrous layer, middle layer and inner layer. The outer fibrous layer consist of cornea and sclera.

Identify this

  • Transparent and thick
  • no blood vessels
  • many nerve endings
  • has 5 layers

What are the layers

A

CORNEA (on the ANTERIOR SIXTH of the eyeball, the fibrous sclera is modified into a transparent cornea through which light rays enter the eye)

  1. Corneal epithelium
  2. Bowman’s layer
  3. Stroma
  4. Descemet’s membrane
  5. Corneal endothelium
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57
Q

There are 5 layers of cornea. Identify this layer

  • superficial cells have microvilli (helps to maintain moisture by retaining tears)
  • basal cells connect to Bowman’s membrane by hemidesmosomes
A

CORNEAL EPITHELIUM

**Epithelium is stratified squamous non-keratinizing

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58
Q

There are 5 layers of cornea. Identify this layer

  • transparent, randomly oriented collagen TYPE 1 fibers
  • protects against trauma and bacteria
A

BOWMAN’S LAYER

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59
Q

There are 5 layers of cornea. Identify this layer

  • COLLAGEN I and V
  • fibers in thin layers arranged in parallel bundles that run at various angles
  • FIBROBLASTS btw layers
  • rich in PROTEOGLYCANS
  • nerves pass through stroma to epithelium
A

STROMA

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60
Q

There are 5 layers of cornea. Identify this layer

-THICK basement membrane ( endothelial cells attach here)

A

DESCEMET’S MEMBRANE

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61
Q

There are 5 layers of cornea. Identify this layer

  • SIMPLE SQUAMOUS CELLS facing the anterior chamber
  • IMPERMEABLE to fluid from anterior chamber
A

ENDOTHELIUM

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62
Q

Each eyeball is surrounded by 3 distinct layers. The outer fibrous layer, middle layer and inner layer. The outer fibrous layer consist of cornea and sclera. The middle layer is the uveal tract and inner layer is retina.

Identify the structure of the eye wall

  • found btw sclera and light sensitive retina
  • contains melanocytes and blood vessels (give blood supply to eye)
  • highly pigmented DARK BROWN layer that contains diff types of CT fibers and cells, including macrophages and melanocytes
  • have many blood vessels that give nutrient to photoreceptor cells in the retina and structures of the eyeball
A

POSTERIOR PORTION OF UVEAL TRACT : CHOROID

3 layers

  1. Suprachoroid lamina/layer ; CT fibers and numerous melanocytes
  2. Vascular layer; blood vessels and melanocytes
  3. Choriocapillaris layer; capillaries with large lumina
  • Innermost layer of choroid is glassy membrane and lies adjacent to pigment cells
  • Pigment cells separate choroid from retina and perform important functions ; phagocytosis, store VIT A and form visual pigments for rods and cones
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63
Q

The anterior portion of the eye is made of what 3 parts

  • what part help with accommodation
  • what is continuation of ciliary body in front of lens
A
  1. Ciliary body and processes
    - projection of choroid and retina
    - FUNCTIONS; accommodation and production of aqueous humor
  2. Iris
    - continuation of CILIARY BODY in front of lens
    - partially covers the lens and is the colored part of the eye
    - radial smooth muscle forms an opening in the iris called the PUPIL
  3. Lens
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64
Q

Name the structure of the eye wall

  1. Primarily contains smooth muscle arranged in longitudinal, circular and radial directions
    - contraction changes shape of lens
  2. Ciliary processes
    -attach to lens by SUSPENSORY LIGAMENTS
    -covered with 2 layers of epithelial cells
    +superficial not pigmented
    +deep cells are pigmented
A

ANTERIOR PORTION OF THE UVEAL TRACT ; CILIARY BODY

Ciliary process

  • Pigmented; continuous with retinal pigmented epithelium
  • Non-pigmented; continuous with sensory retina

**Posterior side of Iris has 2 layers of pigmented cells

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65
Q

Identify

  • watery secretion formed by the EPITHELIUM of the CILIARY PROCESS located behind the iris in the posterior CHAMBER.
  • bathes and supplies the non-vascular cornea and lens with nutrients and oxygen
  • flows from posterior to ANTERIOR chamber and out trabecular mesh work into CANAL OF SCHELMM to circulation

**WHAT is the other content of the eye chambers?

A

AQUEOUS HUMOR

**The large vitreous CHAMBER is filled with a transparent gelatinous substance, called the VITREOUS BODY. The contents of the vitreous body are primarily water with some soluble proteins. The fluid component of the vitreous body is called the VITREOUS HUMOR.

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66
Q

Identify the part of eye

  • extension of CILIARY BODY
  • controls amount of light entering eye
  • ANTERIOR SURFACE has no epithelial cells
  • POSTERIOR SURFACE has 2 layers of pigmented cuboidal epithelial cells
  • stroma contains melanocytes, fibroblasts, myoepithelial cells (dilator muscle) and blood vessels
A

IRIS f

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67
Q

Identify the part of eye

  • focuses light on the retina
  • ZONULAR fibers attach lens to ciliary body
  • AVASCULAR
  • Outer capsule (similar to a basement membrane)
  • Simple cuboidal layer of lens epithelial cells ( only on the ANTERIOR SURFACE of lens)
A

LENS

**Len fibers
-derived from lens epithelium
-concentric layers of cells
+Lose nuclei and organelles toward center of lens
-packed with crystallins

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68
Q

Identify the posterior structures of the eye

A
  1. Vitreous chamber (posterior cavity)
  2. Ora serata
  3. Optic disc
  4. Macula lutea
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69
Q

Which posterior structure of the eye is this

  • extends from lens to retina
  • contains GEL-LIKE SUBSTANCE composed of water, hyaluronic acid and collagen fibers
A

VITREOUS CHAMBER

Gel-like substance is vitreous BODY (consists of mainly water);

  • Fluid component of the vitreous body is the vitreous humor
  • BODY contains small amounts of hyaluronic acid, very thin collagen fibers, glycosaminoglycans and some proteins
  • BODY transmits incoming light, is nonrefractive with respect to the lens, contributes to the intraocular pressure and shape of the eyeball
  • holds retina in place against the pigmented layer of the eyeball
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70
Q

Which posterior structure of the eye is this

  • ANTERIOR BOUNDARY of the photosensitive portion of the retina
  • Non-photosensitive portion of retina continues anteriorly to cover the ciliary body
A

ORA SERATA

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71
Q

Which posterior structure of the eye is this

  • entry/exit point for the optic nerve and blood vessels
  • No photoreceptors - BLIND SPOT (NO VISION)
A

OPTIC DISC

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72
Q

Which posterior structure of the eye is this

-Yellow spot on the posterior retina
-Fovea centralis
+ central depression
+ SHARPEST VISION in this region (high conc of cones)
-Immediately adjacent to and surrounding the depression fovea
-small area that appears yellow in retina due to the presence and accumulation of the yellow pigment XANTHOPHYLL in the laterallly located ganglion cells of the fovea

A

MACULA LUTEA

  • *In the center of the macula lutea is FOVEA (shallow depression in the retina where blood vessels do not pass over the photosensitive cells).
  • The FOVEA is devoid of photoreceptive rods and blood vessels. Instead it contains a DENSE conc of photosensitive CONES)
  • The visual axis of the eye directly pass through the fovea, this is why the fovea in the eye produce the GREATEST VISUAL ACUITY and the SHARPEST COLOR DISCRIMINATION)
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73
Q

The retina has 8 layers. Name all

What are the 3 types of neurons found in the retina

A
  • choroid
    1. Pigment epithelium
    2. Photoreceptor layer -rods and cones (Sensitive to light)
    3. Outer nuclear layer
  • outer limiting membrane
    4. Outer plexiform layer
    5. Inner nuclear layer
    6. Inner plexiform layer
    7. Ganglion cell layer
    8. Nerve fiber layer (optic nerve fiber layer)
  • Inner omitting membrane

3 NEURONS (Distributed in diff layers)

  1. Photoreceptive RODS and CONES (essential for vision, synapse with the bipolar cells which then connect the receptor neurons with the ganglion cells)
  2. BIPOLAR CELLS
  3. GANGLION CELLS (The afferent axons that leave the ganglion cells converge POSTERIORLY in the eye at the OPTIC PAPILLA/DISK and leave the eye as the OPTIC NERVE)

**OPTIC PAPILLA also called BLIND SPOT (no rods or cones, just axons)

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74
Q

The retina has 8 layer which has different cells per layer. Identify the layer and cell types

FUNCTION;- maintains viability of sensory retina

  • transport nutrients to outer portion of sensory retina
  • remove waste products
  • phagocytosis and recycling of photoreceptor disks
  • metabolism of retinol
A
  1. PIGMENTED EPITHELIAL CELLS
  • Non-sensory
  • Simple cuboidal cells
  • Extends from optic disc to ora serrata then continues as PIGMENTED LAYER OF ciliary epithelium
  • Melanin granules in apical cytoplasm
  • Apical microvilli surround outer segments of photoreceptors
  • Synthesize BRUCH’S MEMBRANE
    (Basement membrane that attaches the retina to the choroid)
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75
Q

Identify the layers where photoreceptor cells are found

A
  1. RODS - Peripheral and night vision
    * highly sensitive to light and function best in dim or LOW LIGHT (dusk/night)
    * In the dark, a visual pigment (RHODOPSIN) is synthesized and accumulates in the rod cells which nitrates the visual stimulus when it interacts with the light
  2. CONES - Distinguish color and detail
    * Less sensitive to low light, respond best to BRIGHT LIGHT
    * FOR HIGH VISUAL ACUITY and color vision
    * Contain visual pigment (IODOPSIN) that responds maximally to the colors red, green or blue of color spectrums that trigger a visual response

***Absoption and interaction of light rays with these pigments cause transformations in the pigment molecules. This action excites the rods and/or cones and produces a nerve impulse for vision.

  1. PHOTORECEPTOR LAYER
    - Outer segment (Disks of photo pigment)
    - Inner segment (Organelles)
  2. OUTER NUCLEAR LAYER - Nuclei of photoreceptor cells
  3. OUTER PLEXIFORM LAYER - Synapses with bipolar neurons and horizontal cells
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76
Q

What are the secretions/tears of the eyes

A
  • Each eyeball is covered with an EYELID, which contains sebaceous glands and sweat glands (of Moll)
  • Above each eyeball is the LACRIMAL GLAND, which produces lacrimal secretions or tears
  • MYOEPITHELIAL CELLS surround secretory acini in lacrimal gland
  • Tears contain mucus, salts and antibacterial enzyme LYSOZYME
  • Sebaceous (tarsal) gland secretions form an oily layer on the surface of tear film
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77
Q

Identify the cell type found in retina

  • separate types interact with rods and cones in outer plexiform layer
  • nuclei are found in the inner nuclear layer
  • axons contact ganglion cells in inner plexiform layer
A

BIPOLAR CELLS

**Because the rods and cones are situated adjacent to the CHOROD LAYER of the retina, LIGHT RAYS must first pass through the GANGLION and BIPOLAR CELL layers to reach and activate the photosensitive rods and cones

  • *The RETINAL PIGMENTED LAYER of the choroid next to the retina ;
  • ABSORBS LIGHT RAYS and prevents them from reflecting back through the retina and producing glare.
  • These cells also phagocytosis worn-out outer components of both rods and cones, which is continually shed in renewal processes.
  • The retinal pigment layer store VITAMIN A, a rhodopsin precursor that initiates visual stimulation
  • Retinal pigment epithelial cells use the VITAMIN A to form visual pigment molecules for both rods and cones
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78
Q

Identify the cell type found in retina

  • Nuclei in inner nuclear layer
  • Contact rods and cones in outer plexiform layer
A

HORIZONTAL CELLS

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79
Q

Identify the cell type found in retina

  • Nuclei are at inner edge of inner nuclear layer
  • contact bipolar neurons and ganglion cells in inner plexiform layer
A

AMACRINE CELLS

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80
Q

Identify the cell type found in retina

  • Glial cells
  • nuclei are in inner nuclear layer
  • processes extend throughout retina
  • inner limiting membrane is the basal lamina of the muller cells (separates retina from vitreous chamber)
A

MULLER CELLS

*Outer limiting membrane formed by processes from muller cells surrounding outer segments of photoreceptors cells

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81
Q

Identify the cell type found in retina

  • Dendrites in inner plexiform layer have synapses with bipolar cells
  • Axons from the optic nerve fiber layer
  • Fibers converge in optic disc to form the optic nerve
A

GANGLION CELLS

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82
Q

When does eye development begin and continues till?

  • what forms lens placode
  • what form optic vesicle
  • what do both lens placode and optic vesicle form
A
  • Eye development BEGINS abound DAY 22 and continues AFTER BIRTH
  • Grooves in the lateral wall of the forebrain (NEURAL ECTODERM) from OPTIC VESICLE
  • Contact SURFACE ECTODERM which forms LENS PLACODE
  • Lens placode and vesicle invaginate to form OPTIC CUP
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83
Q

During development of the eye, what forms the double walled optic cup?

What is function of choroid fissure

A
  • INVAGINATION OF OPTIC VESICLE forms the double walled optic cup
  • choroid fissure ALLOWS ARTERY to reach INNER CHAMBER of the eye
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84
Q

How does lens placode separates out during eye development?

A
  • Lens placode separates from surface ectoderm
  • Lens sits in the mouth of the optic vesicle
  • Inner layer of optic vesicle forms neural retina
  • Outer layer forms pigmented epithelium
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85
Q

During the eye development, what forms the lip of the optic cup

A
  • IRIS AND CILIARY BODY develop from the lip of the optic cup
  • Pigmented and non-pigmented cells are continuous with the neural and pigmented retina
  • Muscle cells of the iris come from pigmented epithelial cells
  • *Lens is from SURFACE ECTODERM
  • *Retina is from NEURAL ECTODERM
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86
Q

DURING eye development, what forms choroid and sclera ?

What is the entire developing eye surrounded by?

A
  • Entire developing eye is surrounded by MESENCHYME derived from neural crest
  • INNER LAYER forms CHOROID
  • OUTER LAYER forms SCLERA
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87
Q

WHAT happens during the last stages of eye development

  • what form the optic nerve
  • what form the central artery
A
  • choroid fissure of the optic stalk closes
  • INCREASING number of NERVE FIBERS form the OPTIC NERVE
  • DISTAL PORTION of the hyaloid artery degenerates reining portion forms the CENTRAL ARTERY
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88
Q

WHAT are the 2 functions of the ear

A
  1. Receive and transmit sound (COCHLEA)
  2. Balance
    - Utricle, saccule and semicircular canals

Ear is a specialized region that contains structures responsible for hearing, balance and maintenance of equilibrium

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89
Q

The structure of the ear (auditory system) is made of what 3 parts

Which parts have ;

  • pinna
  • eustachain tube
  • cochlea
A
  1. External ear
    - PINNA/auricle (gathers sound waves form the external environment and directs the through the external auditory canal interiorly to the eardrum or TYMPANIC MEMBRANE, from which sound is directed to middle ear)
    - external auditory canal
  2. Middle ear
    - tympanic cavity (small air filled space located and protected by the temporal bone of the skull)
    * TYMPANIC MEMBRANE separates the external auditory canal from the middle ear
    - auditory ossicles (3 little bones- staples, incus and malleus; attached to the tympanic membrane and to the cochlea of the inner ear)
    - Eustachian tube (the sound waves vibrate the tympanic membrane and are then transmitted through the auditory ossicle bones to the inner ear)
    * The cavity of the middle ear communicates with the nasopharynx region of the head via the auditory tube (presence of the tube allows for equalization of air pressure on both sides of tympanic membrane during SWALLOWING or blowing the nose)
  3. Inner ear (deep in the temporal bone of the skull)
    - semicircular canals
    - vestibule
    - cochlea (transmits sound, sensation of balance and movement)
    * *All collectively called OSSEOUS or BONY LABYRINTH (filled with perilymph)
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90
Q

The ear structure has 3 parts; external, middle and inner ear. Identify the part of external ear

1

  • structure composed of ELASTIC CARTILAGE covered with THIN SKIN (sebaceous glands and hair)
  • Caputures sound and directs it down auditory canal to tympanic membrane

How is it diff from other part of external ear?

A

PINNA

Other part is AUDITORY CANAL

  • Outer portion is cartilage
  • Inner portion is bone
  • Both covered by stratified squamous epithelium
  • cereminuos glands produce cerumen (earwax)
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91
Q

Identify the 3 structures in auditory ossicles of the middle ear

A

MALLEUS, INCUS, STAPES

  1. MALLEUS - attaches to tympanic membrane
    - converts sound to mechanical motion
  2. INCUS - connects malleus and stapes
  3. STAPES - attached to oval window (in vestibule, outside the cochlea)
    - amplifies sound by putting pressure on oval window
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92
Q

Identify the structure in middle ear

  • connects to nasopharynx
  • maintains PRESSURE BALANCE btw tympanic cavity and external environment
  • Bony portion changes to cartilage
  • Lined with simple columnar to PSEUDOSTRATIFIED ciliated epithelium with mucous glands (as it gets closer to lasopharynx)
A

EUSTACHIAN TUBE

*partly supported by bone and partly by cartilage

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93
Q

Identify the 2 systems in the inner ear

  1. Cochlea, auditory nerve
  2. Vestibule, 3 semicircular canals
A
  1. AUDITORY SYSTEM
    - Cochlea (receives and transmits sound)
    - Auditory nerve
  2. VESTIBULAR SYSTEM
    - Vestibule (Utricle, saccule)
    - 3 semicircular canals (superior, posterior and horizontal) run in different planes
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94
Q

Identify the following in inner ear structure

1. Space between bone and membranous labyrinth 
contains perilymph (sensory structures)
  1. Contains endolymph
A
  1. OSSEOUS LABYRINTH (all sensory structures sit here)
  2. MEMBRANOUS LABYRINTH
  • *PERILYMPH is a fluid that is rich in sodium and similar in composition to the CSF of the central nervous system
  • *ENDOLYMPH is fluid in series of interconnected, thin-walled compartments Calle membranous labyrinth
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95
Q

Identify the structure

  • spiral structure within temporal bone (resemble SNAIL’S SHELL)
  • MODIOLUS is central portion containing spiral ganglion
  • bipolar neurons in spiral ganglion make contact with hair cells in the basilar membrane

*
-specialized for receiving and transmitting sound found in the inner ear
What are the diff parts of cochlea (4)

A

COCHLEA

3 channel;
1. Vestibular duct aka SCALA VESTIBULI STARTS at the oval window and sits above organ of corgi (filled with PERILYMPH)

  1. Cochlea duct aka SCALA MEDIA contains the organ of corti which are specialized receptor cells on the basilar membrane that help DETECT SOUND (filled with ENDOLYMPH)
  2. Tympanic duct aka SCALLA TYMPANI ENDS at the round window and sits below the organ of corti (filled with PERILYMPH)
    - HELICOTREMA at apex of cochlea connects SCALA vestibuli and SCALA tympani
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96
Q

Identify the structure in the cochlea of inner ear

  • 1 INNER and 3 OUTER hair cells and supporting cells
  • movement of perilymph causes up and down movement of basilar membrane
  • hair cells move against TECTORIAL MEMBRANE which causes them to transmit signals to bipolar nerve terminals (What helps this movement?)
A

ORGAN OF CORTI (auditory sensory structure of inner ear)

**Tectorial membrane sit above hair cells, movement of hair cells by CILIA create signal for bipolar neuron

    • ORGAN of corti consist of numerous hair cells and supporting cells that respond to diff sound frequencies
  • Hair cells contain long, stiff STEREOCILIA and project into the fluid-filled cochlear duct
  • The auditory stimuli/sounds are carried away from the receptor hair cells via afferent axons of the COCHLEAR NERVE to the brain for interpretation
  • A TECTORIAL MEMBRANE overlies the organ of corti
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97
Q

Identify the structure

-ridge in the ampulla of the semicircular canals
- sensory epithelium
+Hair cells (sensory); stereocilial, single kinocilium
+ supporting cells
- covered by cupula of gelatinous material
-movement of cupula deflects stereocilia which transmits information about position and movement

**what does the vestibular apparatus consist of ?

A

CRISTA AMPULLARIS
(One of the 2 vestibular sensory structures of inner ear)
*other is macula in the saccule and utricle

VESTIBULAR APPARATUS

  • Consist of utricle, saccule and semicircular canals
  • these sensitive organs respond to linear or angular accelerations or movements of the head
  • sensory inputs from the vestibular apparatus initiate the complex pathways that activate specific skeletal muscles that correct balance and equilibrium and restore the body to its normal position
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98
Q

IDENTIFY

  • multiple stereocilia with actin core
  • single kinocilium with microtubules
A

VESTIBULAR HAIR CELLS

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99
Q

There are 3 sensory structures in the inner ear. The vestibular structure has crista ampullaris and macula. In the macula of saccule and utricle, Hair cells is covered by what membrane

Supporting cells rest on what membrane

A
  • HAIR CELLS covered by OTOLIITHIC MEMBRANE

+Gelatinous matrix covered with otoliths
+Single kinocilium and numerous stereocilia
+stereocilia move in response to movement of otolithic membrane and endolymph
+Transmits movements of head to nerve endings

-SUPPORTING CELLS rest on the BASEMENT MEMBRANE
+ Hair cells are embedded in the supporting cells

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100
Q

In the inner ear structure, what are the 3 sensory structures?

A
  1. Auditory
    - organ of corti in the cochlea
  2. Vestibular
    - crista ampullaris in the ampullae of the semicircular canals
    - macula in the saccule and utricle

**Sensory cells are hair cells

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101
Q

What are the special senses located in the head (4)

What innervates this structures?

A
  1. Ear - HEARING, equilibrium
    * Ear transmits sound to tympanic cavity, cochlea for hearing
  2. Oral cavity (tongue) - TASTE
    * space below skull surrounded by mandible
  3. Eyes - VISION
  4. Nasal cavity - SMELL

**These structures are innervated by CRANIAL NERVES

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102
Q

What rigidly connects skull bones to protect the brain and also provide attachment to move eyes precisely?

What is used to estimate the age of skull?

A

SUTURES
**Connective tissue joints between bones (look like cracks)

**Sutures progressively FUSE with AGE, EXTENT OF SUTURE FUSION can be used to estimate age of skull (sutures disappear with age)

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103
Q

What is the skull cap called and what does it consist of?

A

CALVARIUM

  • Consists of bones linked by sutures
    1. Frontal
    2. Sphenoid
    3. Occipital
    4. Temporal
    5. Parietal
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104
Q

Identify the named fibrous joints that connects the bones of the calvarium;

  1. Between frontal and parietal bones
  2. Between parietal bones
  3. Between parietal and occipital bones

What are the mid points of the sutures called?

A
  1. CORONAL SUTURE
    * *MIDPOINT of suture is called BREGMA
  2. SAGITTAL SUTURE
  3. LAMBDOIDAL SUTURE
    * *MIDPOINT of suture is called LAMBDA
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105
Q

What is the area of junction of; Sphenoid, Temporal, Parietal and Frontal bones

*Why is this clinically important?

A

PTERION

**SKULL FRACTURES in region of PTERION clinically important (EPIDURAL HEMATOMA)

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106
Q

In infants, bones are further apart and joined by specific membranes.
1. What are the membranes that link bones at birth called?

  1. What do these membranes permit at birth?
  2. What are the membranes
    - at bregma
    - at pterion
    - at lambda
  3. **Which membrane can be used to access SUPERIOR SAGITTAL SINUS in NEONATES
A
  1. FRONTANELLES
  2. FRONTANELLES (soft spots) permit CRANIAL COMPRESSION at birth - and later CRANIAL GROWTH
  3. ANTERIOR FRONTANELLE - at bregma
    POSTERIOR FRONTANELLE - at lambda
    LATERAL FRONTANELLE - at pterion
  4. ANTERIOR FRONTANELLE can be used to access superior SAGITTAL venous sinus in neonates (venous system)
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107
Q

The skull cap is called the CALVARIUM. The internal structure of the CALVARIUM is made of 3 layers.

What are these layers of calvarium and what are they made of

**What courses btw the middle layer and what do they transmit infections

A
  1. Outer tables - hard CORTICAL BONE
  2. Inner tables - hard CORTICAL BONE
  3. Middle layer - SOFT SPONGY BONE called DIPLOE**
  • *The DIPLOIC VEINS course within the diploe and connect both to cranial cavity and surface of skull
  • This veins can TRANSMIT INFECTIONS from scalp to brain via EMISSARY VEINS
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108
Q

The middle layer of the calvarium is called the DIPLOE. The diploe contains DIPLOIC VEINS which can transmit infections from scalp to brain via EMISSARY VEINS.

What is the major difference btw emissary and bridging veins

A

*EMISSARY VEIN
-Scalp to diploe
-scalp to sinus
-diploe to sinus
‘OUTSIDE’ TO SINUS

*BRIDGING VEIN
-surface of brain (cerebral vein) to venous sinus
BRAIN TO SINUS

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109
Q

What is the blood supply to the Calvarium?

  • outer surface
  • inner surface

**What causes bleeding of meningeal arteries?

A
  1. Outer surface - receives branches from ARTERIES to SCALP
  2. Inner surface - MENINGEAL ARTERIES (coursing immediately below bone)

**SKULL FRACTURE can cause bleeding of meningeal arteries (epidural hematoma)

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110
Q

What are the 5 layers of the SCALP?

  • *Infections can readily spread through which layers?
  • *what layer of scalp is the origin of emissary veins
  • *what layer attaches to scalp muscles (frontalis and occipitalis) and temporalis fascia
  • *you remove scalp between which layers?
A

SCALP

  1. SKIN - with associated hair follicles, sweat and sebaceous gland
  2. CONNECTIVE TISSUE - dense fibrous connective tissue SURROUNDing arteries and nerves (origin of emissary veins)
  3. EPICRANIAL APONEUROSIS - thin tendinous sheet, tightly attached to skin and connective tissue above; moveable anteriorly and POSTERIORLY; laterally attached to temporal fascia; attached to frontalis and occipitalis muscles
  4. LOOSE AREOLAR TISSUE - loosely connects epicranial aponeurosis to periosteum of skull; crossed by emissary veins
  5. PERICRANIUM/PERIOSTEUM - CT layer on outer side of calvarium
  • *INFECTIONS can readily spread through loose areolar layer deep to epicranial aponeurosis
  • *Remove scalp btw 3 and 4
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111
Q

What is the innervation of the scalp?

A
  1. Branches of trigeminal nerve (V)

2. Cervical spinal nerves

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112
Q

The scalp is innervated by the branches of trigeminal nerve and cervical spinal nerves.

**What are the branches of the trigeminal nerve respectively

**What parts of scalp is innervated?

A

V1 - SUPRAORBITAL N., SUPRATROCHLEAR N.
(Anterior scalp)

V2 - Zygomaticotemporal N.
(Lateral scalp)

V3 - Auriculotemporal N.
(Lateral scalp)

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113
Q

The scalp is innervated by the branches of trigeminal nerve and cervical spinal nerves.

**What are the types of the cervical spinal nerves

**What part of scalp does the nerves innervate?

A
  1. Lesser Occipital N. - C2 VENTRAL RAMUS
    (Lateral scalp)
  2. Greater Occipital N. - C2 DORSAL RAMUS
    (Posterior scalp)

**Innervated lateral and posterior scalp

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114
Q

The arteries of the scalp have a rich supply from what branches (2)?

**Why would scalp wound bleed profusely from both sides of cut?

A
  1. Branches of OPHTHALMIC ARTERY (from ICA);
    - SUPRATROCHLEAR and - SUPRAORBITAL arteries.
    (Anterior scalp)
  2. Branches of EXTERNAL CAROTID;
    - Superficial temporal artery (to lateral scalp)
    - Posterior auricular artery (scalp above and posterior to external ear)
    - Occipital artery (posterior scalp)

**There are EXTENSIVE ANASTOMOSES btw arteries to scalp; scalp wounds can bleed profusely from both sides of cut

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115
Q

What is the venous drainage of the scalp?

**How do Infections spread?

A
  • Venous drainage is by veins with same names as arteries
  • They also drain VIA EMISSARY VEINS to DIPLOIC VEINS in DIPLOE

**Infections can spread via EMISSARY VEINS from scalp to brain

NOTE

  • DIPLOIC veins are located inside the bones of the calvarium (skull cap)
  • Emissary veins are different; they pass from the scalp (or DIPLOIC veins) into venous sinuses inside the skull
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116
Q

The brain is bilaterally symmetrical;

  • cortex is connected to spinal cord by BRAINSTEM
  • outflow/inflow of brain is via CRANIAL NERVES

**Name the cranial nerves and innervations

A

I. OLFACTORY NERVE - sense of smell
II. OPTIC NERVE - vision
III. OCULOMOTOR NERVE - eye muscles
IV. TROCHLEAR - eye muscles
V. TRIGEMINAL - SENSORY to skin, MOTOR to muscles of mastication (chewing) etc
VI. ABDUCENS - eye muscles
VII. FACIAL - MOTOR to muscles of facial expression etc; taste to anterior 2/3 tongue
VIII. VESTIBULOCOCHLEAR - hearing and balance (vestibular apparatus)
IX. GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL - sensory to pharynx +more (motor to stylopharyngeus)
X. VAGUS - SENSORY and MOTOR to larynx (voice box), pharynx and rest of body
XI. ACCESSORY NERVE - MOTOR to trapezius, sternocleidomastoid
XII. HYPOGLOSSAL - MOTOR to muscles of tongue (no sensory)

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117
Q

What are the 6 bones in the FRONT view of the skull

  • *where is the infraorbital foramen found?
  • *where is the mental foramen found?
A
  1. Frontal bone (1) - forms forehead, upper margin and roof of orbit
  2. Orbit - eye socket
  3. Zygomatic bone (2) - forms cheeks
  4. Maxillary bone (2) - has sockets for upper teeth (alveolar processes); INFRAORBITAL FORAMEN (below orbit)
  5. Nasal apertures (Choanae) - covered superiorly by nasal bones
  6. Mandible (1) - separate bone; alveolar processes for lower teeth; MENTAL FORAMEN (below second pre-molar tooth)
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118
Q

What are the 4 items in the LATERAL view of the skull

  • *what bones do zygomatic arch consist of
  • *what are the parts (4) of temporal bone
A
  1. Zygomatic ARCH -
    + Zygomatic bone
    + Maxillary bone (zygomatic process)
    + Temporal bone (zygomatic process)
  2. Temporomandibular joint - joint btw head of mandible (upper end of RAMUS) and temporal bone
  3. Temporal bone (4 parts)
    + Mastoid process (hard bone inferiorly)
    + Squamous (flat) part laterally
    + Tympanic part - forms anterior side of external auditory meatus (opening of ear)
    + Petrous part - inside skull
  4. Parietal, temporal, frontal and sphenoid bones from lateral side of cranial cavity
    * *Greater wing of sphenoid - lateral side of skull
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119
Q

What bone is in the POSTERIOR view of the skull

**What is found here

A

OCCIPITAL BONE

  • Superior and Inferior NUCHAL LINES
  • External Occipital protuberance (inion) is raised bump in middle of superior nuchal line
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120
Q

What bones are found in the complex BASE of the skull (3)

  • what has styloid process
  • what has foramen magnum and occipital condyles
  • what has palatine bones
A
  1. Temporal bone - has styloid process for muscle attachment
  2. Occipital bone - has;
    - Foramen magnum; for spinal cord and vertebral arteries
    - Occipital condyles; articulate with vertebra C1 (Atlas)
  3. Hard palate - palatine bones and palatine process of maxillary bones
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121
Q

Identify the individual bone of skull

  • CORE of skull
  • forms part of orbit, lateral side of skull, base of skull and parts of all three cranial fossa
  • *What are the 6 parts of the bone
  • what part is for muscle attachment?
  • for ligament attachment?
  • where is pituitary gland located?
  • what landmarks are important in neurology?
A

SPHENOID BONE.

  1. Medial and lateral PTERYGOID PLATES - processes for muscle attachment
  2. Spine of sphenoid - on inferior side of sphenoid for ligament attachment
  3. Lesser wing of sphenoid - in interior of skull, ABOVE superior orbital fissure
  4. Greater wing of sphenoid - extends BELOW superior orbital fissure (also on lateral side of skull)
  5. SELLA TURCICA (Turkish saddle) - depression above body of sphenoid (central part) btw anterior and posterior clinoid processes
    * *LOCATION OF PITUITARY GLAND
  6. Clivus - central part of sphenoid and occipital bones that extends from posterior edge of sella turcica (dorsum sellae) down to posterior cranial fossa

**PARTS OF SPHENOID (Sella turcica, Dorsum sellae) are important landmarks in neurology (ex. MENINGIOMA AT CLIVUS) **many symptoms

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122
Q

What is divided into depressions/fossae that are functionally related to parts of brain and facial skeleton

**What are the 3 fossa (and contents)

A

CRANIAL CAVITY

  1. Anterior cranial fossa (roof of nasal cavity, orbit)
  2. Middle cranial fossa (orbit, nasal cavity, face)
  3. Posterior cranial fossa (face, oral cavity, neck)
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123
Q

The cranial cavity is divided into depressions or fossae that are functionally related to parts of brain and facial skeleton.
There are 3 fossae
Identify this

  • related to roof of nasal cavity (also forms roof of orbit)
  • *Identify the bones, contents and foramina
A

ANTERIOR CRANIAL FOSSA

  1. BONES - Frontal, Ethmoid and Sphenoid bones
  2. CONTENTS - CNI (cribriform plate), Olfactory bulbs and frontal lobes of cortex
  3. FORAMINA - In cribriform plate of ethmoid bone conduct branches (fila olfactoria) of OLFACTORY NERVE CNI
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124
Q

The cranial cavity is divided into depressions or fossae that are functionally related to parts of brain and facial skeleton.
There are 3 fossae
Identify this

-related to orbit, nasal cavity and face
BONES - sphenoid, temporal, parietal
CONTENTS - pituitary gland, temporal lobes of cortex and cranial nerves from rostral brainstem
FORAMINA - for nerves to orbit (Optic nerve and nerves to eye muscles), nasal cavity and face CN II-VI

A

MIDDLE CRANIAL FOSSA

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125
Q

The cranial cavity is divided into depressions or fossae that are functionally related to parts of brain and facial skeleton.
There are 3 fossae

Identify this

-related to face oral cavity, neck
BONES; sphenoid, temporal, parietal and occipital bones

A

POSTERIOR CRANIAL FOSSA

  1. BONES; sphenoid, temporal, parietal and occipital bones
  2. CONTENTS; lower brainstem and cerebellum; petrous part of temporal bone contains cochlea (hearing) and semicircular canals (gravity)
  3. FORAMINA ; for nerves to face, oral cavity (also taste), muscles of tongue and neck CN VII - XII; foramen magnum transmit spinal cord and vertebral arteries
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126
Q

The arterial supply of the brain is derived from 2 sources.

Identify

  1. Common carotid artery arises from
    - brachiocephalic artery on right,
    - arch of aorta on left
    * bifurcates at level of upper border of thyroid cartilage into internal and external carotid arteries
    - Internal carotid ascends to enter skull via carotid canal to middle cranial fossa
  2. Arises from SUBCLAVIAN ARTERY, ascends through FORAMINA TRANSVERSARIA of vertebrae C1-C6; enters skull via foramen magnum
A
  1. INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY
    - enters skull via carotid canal and foramen lacerum
    - Passes through CAVERNOUS SINUS
    * *Carotid siphon; c-shaped turn of internal carotid artery
  2. VERTEBRAL ARTERY
    - enters skull via foramen magnum
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127
Q

The meninges of brain have 3 layers as in spinal cord

*what is the difference?

A
  1. Dura mater (tough mother)
  2. Arachnoid (spider like)
  3. Pia mater (tender mother)

**Dura mater is tightly attached to inner side of cranial cavity and has extensions/reflections into the cranial cavity

**The cranial cavity is enclosed by bone so there is no room for expansion inside the skull

**HEMATOMA - abnormal mass of blood outside blood vessel

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128
Q

There are 3 layers of the meninges of the brain.

Identify this

  • tough connective tissue layer
  • composed of 2 layers

**Why is there no epidural space in the skull?

**what support and stabilize the brain and contain venous sinus

A

DURA MATER

2 layers

  1. Inner membrane layer (true dura)
  2. Outer endosteum layer - periosteum on inner side of calvarium
  • *The 2 layers are fused in most places and tightly attached to inner surface of calvarium and cranial cavity (No epidural space)
  • *Layers of dura separate to form inward folds called DURAL REFLECTIONS
  • *Dural reflections support and stabilize the brain and contain VENOUS SINUSES

**There is NO EPIDURAL SPACE in skull as DURA IS FUSED TO BONE

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129
Q

The layers of the dura separate to form inward folds called DURAL REFLECTIONS. These dural reflections support and stabilize the brain and contain venous sinuses. There are 4 total dural reflections

Identify this

  • sickle shaped fold btw cerebral hemispheres
  • attached anteriorly to crista galli of ethmoid bone
  • POSTERIORLY blends into tentorium cerebelli
A

FALX CEREBRI

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130
Q

The layers of the dura separate to form inward folds called DURAL REFLECTIONS. These dural reflections support and stabilize the brain and contain venous sinuses. There are 4 total dural reflections

-small sickle-shaped fold that projects anteriorly from posterior wall of posterior cranial fossa btw cerebellar hemispheres

A

FALX CEREBELLI

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131
Q

The layers of the dura separate to form inward folds called DURAL REFLECTIONS. These dural reflections support and stabilize the brain and contain venous sinuses. There are 4 total dural reflections

  • CRESCENT shaped fold
  • forms roof over posterior cranial fossa
  • anteriorly has gap called tentorial notch for passage of brainstem
A

TENTORIUM CEREBELLI

**tentorial notch for passage of brainstem

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132
Q

The layers of the dura separate to form inward folds called DURAL REFLECTIONS. These dural reflections support and stabilize the brain and contain venous sinuses. There are 4 total dural reflections

-Small circular fold of dura mater over sella turcica (has opening for stalk of pituitary)

A

DIAPHRAGMA SELLA

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133
Q

Identify the layers of meninges

  1. Layer attached to INNER SURFACE of DURA (separated form dura by potential space, sub dural space)
    - separated from pia mater by subarachnoid space which contains CSF fluid
  2. Thin layer closely adherent to BRAIN
    - surrounds arteries and veins that course on surface of brain
A
  1. ARACHNOID (spider like)

2. PIA MATER (tender mother)

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134
Q

The venous sinuses of the brain course btw 2 layers of the dura.

Where do they receive blood from? (3)

A

BRAIN
ORBIT
EMISSARY VEINS

  1. Veins from brain (inside)
    A. Bridging veins - inside cranial cavity - drain blood from surface of brain
    B. Named veins - Great cerebral vein of Galen
  2. Veins from outside (e.g scalp)
    A. Emissary veins - drain blood from scalp, to venous sinuses
    B. Named veins - OPHTHALMIC veins from eye/orbit
135
Q

The venous sinuses of the brain course between 2 layers of dura. There are 8 named sinuses that receive blood from brain, orbit or emissary veins

Identify

  • in UPPER FIXED BORDER OF FALX CEREBRI
  • begins anteriorly at foramen cecum
  • ends POSTERIORLY by becoming continuous with transverse sinus
  • communicates laterally with outpocketings called venous lacunae

**Where does it receive venous blood from?

A
  1. SUPERIOR SAGITTAL SINUS
  • receives blood from superior cerebral veins via BRIDGING VEINS
  • blood also from emissary veins
136
Q

Identify the vein types respectively

  1. Scalp to sinus, scalp to diploe, diploe to sinus
  2. Cerebral vein (brain) to sinus
A
  1. EMISSARY VEIN

2. BRIDGING VEIN

137
Q

The venous sinuses of the brain course between 2 layers of dura. There are 8 named sinuses that receive blood from brain, orbit or emissary veins

IDENTIFY

  • courses in LOWER FREE BORDER OF FALX CEREBRI
  • joins great cerebral vein to form straight sinus

**WHAT makes up the straight sinus?

A
  1. INFERIOR SAGITTAL SINUS

**INFERIOR SAGITTAL SINUS joins GREAT CEREBRAL VEIN of Galen to form STRAIGHT SINUS

138
Q

The venous sinuses of the brain course between 2 layers of dura. There are 8 named sinuses that receive blood from brain, orbit or emissary veins

IDENTIFY
-Courses btw dural layers at JUNCTION OF FALX CEREBRI and TENTORIUM CEREBELLI

**What is the direction of this sinus

A
  1. STRAIGHT SINUS
    - POSTERIORLY can join with superior SAGITTAL sinus at confluence of sinuses or just turn left and be continuous with transverse sinus
139
Q

The venous sinuses of the brain course between 2 layers of dura. There are 8 named sinuses that receive blood from brain, orbit or emissary veins

Identify

  • course POSTERIORLY in lateral fixed part of TENTORIUM CEREBELLI
  • arise either at confluens of sinuses or as continuations of Superior SAGITTAL and straight sinuses

Where does it receive blood from?

A
  1. TRANSVERSE SINUS

**receive blood from superior SAGITTAL or confluens

140
Q

The venous sinuses of the brain course between 2 layers of dura. There are 8 named sinuses that receive blood from brain, orbit or emissary veins

  • S shaped continuations of transverse sinuses
  • end at jugular foramen to drain into jugular veins
A
  1. SIGMOID SINUSES
141
Q

The venous sinuses of the brain course between 2 layers of dura. There are 8 named sinuses that receive blood from brain, orbit or emissary veins

IDENTIFY

  • courses in attached part of FALX CEREBELLI
  • drains into confluens of sinuses
A
  1. OCCIPITAL SINUS
142
Q

The venous sinuses of the brain course between 2 layers of dura. There are 8 named sinuses that receive blood from brain, orbit or emissary veins

IDENTIFY

  • IN middle cranial fossa on each side of the body of the sphenoid bone surrounding pituitary gland
  • connected by intercavernous sinus
  • *Where do they receive blood from?
  • *Why can infections spread from face to this sinus?
A
  1. CAVERNOUS SINUSES

**Receive venous blood from Superior and Inferior Ophthalmic veins , cerebral veins; drains to superior and inferior petrosal sinuses

**Cavernous sinus also has ANASTOMOSES with PTERYGOID VENOUS PLEXUS (Ophthalmic veins and Facial veins); this provides a pathway by which INFECTION can be spread from face to brain

143
Q

The venous sinuses of the brain course between 2 layers of dura. There are 8 named sinuses that receive blood from brain, orbit or emissary veins

IDENTIFY

  • on superior and inferior parts of the petrous part of temporal bone
  • receive blood from cavernous sinus anteriorly

**Where does this sinus drain to?

A
  1. SUPERIOR and INFERIOR Petrosal sinuses
  • *Superior petrosal sinuses drains to TRANSVERSE sinus
  • *Inferior petrosal sinuses drains to INTERNAL JUGULAR vein
144
Q

What passes trough the wall of the cavernous sinus

The disease process in this sinus can lead to what?

What is the clinical sign of infection in sinus

A
  1. Internal carotid artery
  2. CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI

**Disease process in sinus can produce neurological symptoms; (carotid siphon - U shaped turn of internal carotid as it passes through cavernous sinus)

**Clinical sign of infection in sinus - BLURRED VISION (DIPLOPIA)

145
Q

Identify the fluid

  • made inside the brain in CHOROID PLEXUS
  • flows out of brain into subarachnoid space
  • is re-absorbed into venous sinuses at inpockets of subarachnoid space called?
  • shock absorber of brain
  • *what is common in elderly?
  • *Reduced reabsorption of CSF result in what?
A

CSF (Cerebrospinal fluid)

**The brain floats in CSF - Shock Absorber

**CSF reabsorbs into venous sinuses at ARACHNOID VILLI

  • *In elderly, arachnoid villi can become calcified - ARACHNOID GRANULATIONS
  • Arachnoid granulations containing arachnoid villi are prominent in walls of superior SAGITTAL sinus

**Reduced Re-absorption can produce COMMUNICATING HYDROCEPHALUS (can damage brain by increased pressure)

146
Q

Identify the disorder and the the types

  • INTERNAL BLEEDS
  • in cranium can occur at a number of places
  • can damage brain by increasing intracranial pressure and by physically pressing the brain
A

HEMATOMAS

3 types

  1. Epidural hematoma
  2. Subdural hematoma
  3. Subarachnoid hematoma
147
Q

A hematoma is when there is an internal bleed that can damage the brain by increased ICP and compressing the brain

Identify the type (anatomy and cause)

  • Patient brought into the ER from car accident. Pt. Conscious after accident but loses consciousness within hours; coma, death
  • CT shows lens shaped/ biconvex mass
  • *Herniation identified
    1. TEMPORAL LOBE (incus) pushed through TENTORIAL NOTCH
    2. CEREBELLUM (tonsil) pushed through FORAMEN MAGNUM
A

EPIDURAL HEMATOMA

Anatomy (bleed btw dura mater and bone)

  • MIDDLE MENINGEAL ARTERY tear (90% of epidural hematoma); branch of maxillary artery that passes through the foramen spinosum and supplies bone of CALVARIUM
  • UNCAL HERNIATION (push temporal bone through tentorial notch)
  • TONSILLAR HERNIATION (push cerebellum through foramen magnum)

Cause
-BLOW to side of head (fracture skull in the region of PTERION)

**Bleeding is arterial, can profuse and rap is, pt is lucid at first and can be fatal within hours if herniation occurs

148
Q

A hematoma is when there is an internal bleed that can damage the brain by increased ICP and compressing the brain

Identify the type (anatomy and cause)

  • slow onset of neurological symptoms, headache (often hours to days)
  • CT shows hematoma is crescent/moon shaped
A

SUBDURAL HEMATOMA

Anatomy (bleed into potential space btw dura and arachnoid)
- Tear of BRIDGING VEINS which link superficial cerebral veins on surface of brain and superior SAGITTAL sinus (also other venous sinuses)

Cause
-BLOW to HEAD; in elderly can occur without distinct event

**Chronic subdural hematomas can remain undetected (can result in uncus herniation if untreated)

  • *Table 8 has subdural hematoma
  • displacement of midline
  • compression of lateral ventricle
  • coup contra coup; injury on both sides
149
Q

A hematoma is when there is an internal bleed that can damage the brain by increased ICP and compressing the brain

Identify the type (anatomy and cause)

  • Berry ANEURYSM; Headache (sudden onset)
  • rapid loss of consciousness 25-50% die
A

SUBARACHNOID HEMATOMA

Anatomy

  • Rupture of aneurysm
  • *berry aneurysm = swelling of vessel wall
  • Tear of cerebral artery or vein ;
  • if arterial, bleeding can be RAPID and FATAL

CAUSE

  • many causes
  • hypertension
  • trauma etc
150
Q

The bones of orbit are rigidly linked together to form a stable socket to permit precise movements of the eye.

  • What are the contents of the 4 boundaries?
    1. Roof
    2. Floor
    3. Medial wall
    4. Lateral wall
A
  1. Roof - frontal bone (anterior cranial fossa is superior to roof)
  2. Floor - maxillary bone (maxillary sinus is inferior to floor)
  3. Medial wall - maxillary, lacrimal, ethmoid, frontal and sphenoid bones (nasal cavity is medial to medial wall of orbit)
  4. Lateral wall - zygomatic bone and sphenoid bone (greater wing)

**Orbit serve as passageway for nerves, vessels to face, scalp and nasal cavity

151
Q

Identify

  • OPENINGS which transmit nerves and vessels to structures in orbit (eye, extraocular muscles and lacrimal gland/ tears
  • passageway for nerves that are sensory to face, scalp and nasal cavity
A

FORAMINA OF ORBIT

152
Q

Most things enter orbit from middle cranial fossa

**Identify the following foramina of orbit

    • In base of lesser wing of sphenoid bone
    • contains OPTIC NERVE and OPHTHALMIC ARTERY
    • BTW greater and lesser wings of sphenoid
    • Contains CN III, IV, V1, VI and OPHTHALMIC VEINS
A
  1. OPTIC CANAL

2. SUPERIOR ORBITAL FISSURE

153
Q

Identify the following foramina of orbit

    • Btw ethmoid and frontal bones
    • connects orbit and nasal cavities
    • contains Anterior and posterior ethmoidal nerve, artery and vein (V1 and ophthalmic artery, vein)
  1. IN maxillary, lacrimal bones and inferior nasal concha
    - COntains membranous NASOLACRIMAL DUCT and TEARS
    • slit below superior orbital fissure
    • btw sphenoid and maxillary bones
    • connects Pterygopalatine fossa and infratemporal fossa with orbit
    • Contains; infraorbital and zygomatic N, A, V (V2, maxillary artery)
A
  1. ANT and POST. ETHMOIDAL FORAMINA
  2. Opening of nasolacrimal duct
  3. Inferior orbital fissure
154
Q

In the lining of orbit, the periosteum of bones of orbit is called what?

A

PERIORBITA

155
Q

Identify the structure and layers

-layered, moveable structures which protect eye and keep cornea moist (outermost layer)

A

EYELIDS

  1. SKIN
  2. Subcutaneous layer
  3. Orbicularis oculi muscle
  4. Orbital septum, tarsal plate and LEVATOR palpabrae SUPERIORIS muscle
  5. Conjunctiva
156
Q

The eyelid is made of 5 layers which protect the eye, is moveable and keep cornea moist.

Identify the layer of eyelid

  • Contains
  • eyelashes (cilia)
  • openings of sebaceous and sweat glands
A
  1. SKIN
157
Q

The eyelid is made of 5 layers which protect the eye, is moveable and keep cornea moist.

Identify the layer of eyelid

-Connective tissue contains sebaceous glands

**Obstruction of sebaceous glands in this layer of eyelid is called?

A
  1. Subcutaneous layer of eyelid

**Obstruction - STY or HORDEOLUM

158
Q

The eyelid is made of 5 layers which protect the eye, is moveable and keep cornea moist.

Identify the layer of eyelid

  • skeletal muscle which SURROUNDS eyelid and CLOSES eye
  • innervated by facial nerve VII

**Damage to CN VII cause what?

A
  1. ORBICULARIS OCULI
    (Palpebral part)
  • *Damage to facial nerve paralyzes muscle
  • Pt unable to close eyelids and spread tears over cornea
  • can result in CORNEA DAMAGE

(If you don’t blink, cornea can dry out and get damaged)

159
Q

The eyelid is made of 5 layers which protect the eye, is moveable and keep cornea moist.

Identify the layer of eyelid

  • fascia layer inside eyelid, is continuous with CT lining orbit (periorbita)
  • dense fibrous CT, located deep to orbital septum, forms SKELETON OF EYELID (help you blink fast)
  • What does it contain?
  • Obstruction of this content leads to what?
A

4a. ORBITAL SEPTUM
* CT layer continuous with periosteum of orbit (PERIORBITA)

4b. TARSAL PLATE
- contains TARSAL GLANDS (meibomian glands)
- keeps tears in eye, prevent evaporation of tears
* *OBSTRUCTION of tarsal gland = CHALAZION

160
Q

Identify the muscle which form part of the tarsal pate and orbital septum layer of eyelid

Origin
Insertion
Action
Innervation

**Damage to either part of this muscle result in what?

A

LEVATOR PALPEBRAE SUPERIORIS MUSCLE

ORIGIN; Tendinous ring
(Composed of skeletal CNIII and smooth muscle -sympathetic)

INSERTION; skin and tarsal plate of upper lid

ACTION ; OPENS EYELIDS

INNERVATION;
skeletal part by CN III
Smooth part by sympathetic

**Damage to either part = EYELID DROOP = PTOSIS

161
Q

The eyelid is made of 5 layers which protect the eye, is moveable and keep cornea moist.

Identify the layer of eyelid

  • clear membrane covering inside of lid
  • continues as a layer over sclera of eye and fuses to cornea

**Inflammation of this layer is what?

A

CONJUNCTIVA

**Reflection of conjunctiva from eyelid to eye is called Superior and Inferior cornices of conjunctiva. It is very sensitive

**CONJUNCTIVITIS (pinkeye) - inflammation of conjunctiva

162
Q

Tears are constantly produced by what gland?

-How do tears drain?

What is this gland innervated by?

A

LACRIMAL GLAND

  • Tears produced here
  • located in superolateral orbit
  • open by like 12 ducts through conjunctiva to superior fornix

**Tears first circulate over conjunctiva and wash out dirt then drain through;
LACRIMAL PUNCTA to LACRIMAL SAC to NASOLACRIMAL DUCT to INFERIOR MEATUS of nasal cavity

  • *Lacrimal gland innervated by CN VII (Facial nerve in a complex pathway)
  • Parasympathetics from CN VII, fibers hitch-hike with branches of CN V
163
Q

Tears flow across eye to lacrimal puncta on medial end of eyelids (eyelids meet at MEDIAL CANTHUS). Tears then pass through lacrimal canaliculi to lacrimal sac. The sac connects to nasolacrimal duct which drains to inferior meatus of nasal cavity.

**Obstruction of nasolacrimal duct result in what?

A

Obstructed duct

  • failure of duct to canalize;
  • tears drain over lower eyelid to face (tears flow onto face in neonate)
  • opened surgically for tears to drain to nasal cavity
  • *The nasolacrimal duct extends from medial canthus of eye to inferior meatus of nasal cavity
  • *This duct develops as a fold btw maxillary process and frontonasal process which then forms a solid cord that becomes canalized
164
Q

Identify the structure

  • thin fascia membrane surrounding eye
  • THICKENINGS of sheath attach to bones and form medial and lateral check ligaments which prevents excess movement of eyes
A

FASCIAL SHEATH OF EYEBALL aka TENON’S CAPSULE

165
Q

The structure of the eyeball is described as what 3 layers

A
  1. Fibrous layer (sclera, cornea)
  2. Vascular layer (UVEA) - Iris, ciliary body, choroid
  3. Retina
166
Q

The eyeball is divided into 3 layers; fibrous layer, vascular layer and retina. The fibrous layer is divided into which 2 structures

    • Tough, smooth white fibroblasts layer surrounding eye
    • Function; protect eye and maintain shape
    • provides attachment of extraocular muscles
    • pierced by nerves and vessels of eye

2.

  • AVASCULAR, transparent layer covering anterior eye
  • Function; important in FOCUSING LIGHT
  • *Irregularities = Astigmatism
A
  1. SCLERA
    * *continuous/fuses ANTERIORLY with CORNEA
    * *fuses POSTERIORLY with DURA
  2. CORNEA
    * *Clinical irregularities - Astigmatism (Can’t focus light)
167
Q

The eyeball is divided into 3 layers; fibrous layer, vascular layer and retina.

In the vascular layer: blood supply to the orbit/eye is derived from branches of what artery?

  • what are the major branches to the eye
  • enters posterior side of eyeball
A

OPHTHALMIC ARTERY (from internal carotid artery)

The branches of the ophthalmic artery that supply the eye ;

  1. Posterior ciliary arteries (long and short) - pierce sclera, blood to choroid, photoreceptors
  2. Central artery of retina - pierces optic nerve; blood to neural retina

**They enter the posterior side of eyeball

168
Q

Eye - structure of eye ball vascular layer - uveal tract (UVEA) = choroid, ciliary body and Iris

Identify the layer

  • highly vascular (choroid arteries and veins)
  • pigmented membrane ; provides nutrients and oxygen to other layers of eye
  • *Normally does not supply ganglion cells of retina (that form optic nerve)
A

CHOROID

169
Q

Eye - structure of eye ball vascular layer - uveal tract (UVEA) = choroid, ciliary body and Iris

IDENTIFY LAYER
-attaches to SUSPENSORY ligament of lens, hold lens taut, contains ciliary muscles

A

CILIARY BODY

  • *CILIARY MUSCLES
  • smooth muscles attached to SUSPENSORY ligaments of lens
  • contraction of muscles produces relaxation of SUSPENSORY ligaments
  • causes lens to thicken for near vision (accommodation)
  • INNERVATION: Parasympathetics from ciliary ganglion (CN III) cause contraction of ciliary muscles (Parasympathetics travel in SHORT CILIARY NERVE)
170
Q

Eye - structure of eye ball vascular layer - uveal tract (UVEA) = choroid, ciliary body and Iris

IDENTIFY LAYER

  • pigmented, contractile layer surround pupil (opening)
  • controls amount of light entering eye
  • contains 2 muscles

What are the 2 muscle

A

IRIS

  • constrictor papillae; circular smooth muscle which constricts iris, pupil
    Innervated by PARASYMPATHETICS (from ciliary ganglion of III)

-Dliator papillae ; radial smooth muscle which dilates pupil;
Innervated by SYMPATHETICS

171
Q

Identify layer

  • contains rods and cones (photosensitive)
  • contains many neurons which process visual information

**What can result in blindness?

A

RETINA

  • *artery - CENTRAL ARTERY OF RETINA (branch of ophthalmic artery)
  • *classicaly thought to have NO ANASTOMOSES (occlusion results in blindness)
172
Q

Identify disorder

  • blindness in one eye
  • carotid artery arteriosclerosis
  • most common cause
A

CRAO - Central Retinal artery occlusion

  • *New imaging show branches of ciliary arteries are present in 20% of people
  • can provide partial sparing of retina in cases of central retinal artery occlusion
173
Q

Identify

  • space that extends around the optic nerve up to its junction with sclera in back of eyeball
  • optic nerve can be viewed in ophthalmoscope as optic disc
  • changes in ICP (hydrocephalus) can be diagnosed by viewing optic disc

**What is swelling of the optic disc called?

A

SUBARACHNOID SPACE

  • *Increase in CSF can affect vision
  • sow onset, headaches

PAPILLEDEMA - swelling of optic disc, engorgement of retinal veins (correspond to branches of central artery)

174
Q

Identify the group of muscles

Origin - all take origin from TENDINOUS RING
**What is the exception

WHAT IS THE tendinous ring?

A

EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES
-Voluntary skeletal muscles that move eyeball

**Origin exception; INFERIOR OBLIQUE which origin is floor of orbit

**Tendinous ring is ring of connective tissue surrounding opening of optic Canal and superior orbital fissure

175
Q

There are 6 extraocular muscles that are voluntary skeletal muscles that move the eyeball. Identify all

A
  1. Inferior oblique (IO3)
  2. Lateral RECTUS (LR6)
  3. Superior oblique (SO4)
  4. Superior RECTUS (SR3)
  5. Medial RECTUS (MR3)
  6. Inferior RECTUS (IR3)
176
Q

Identify the 3 extraocular muscles that ABduct the eye

Nerve
Action

A
1. Inferior oblique (IO3) 
Nerve - CN III 
Action 
-Abduct 
-laterally rotate eye 
- raise eye 
  1. Lateral RECTUS (LR6)
    Nerve - CN VI
    Action
    -ABDUCT eye
3. Superior Oblique (SO4) 
Nerve - CN IV 
Action 
-medially rotate eye 
-ABDUCT eye 
-lower eye
177
Q

Identify the 3 extraocular muscles that ADDUCT the eye

Nerve
Action

A
1. Superior RECTUS (SR3) 
Nerve 
-CN III 
Action 
-medially rotate eye 
-ADDUCT eye 
-raise eye 
  1. Medial RECTUS (MR3)
    Nerve - CN III
    Action
    -ADDUCT eye
3. Inferior RECTUS (IR3) 
Nerve - CN III
Action 
-Laterally rotate eye 
-lower eye 
-ADDUCT eye
178
Q

What are the voluntary and involuntary eye movements

A
VOLUNTARY 
ADDUCT - move medially 
ABDUCT - laterally 
ELEVATE /Raise - Superiorly 
DEPRESS/Lower - Inferiorly 

INVOLUNTARY
Medial rotation - INTORSION
Lateral rotation - EXTORSION
**rotate involuntarily when you tilt your head

179
Q

**Resting position of eyes depends on what?

**Damage to any one muscle results in what?

A
  1. RESTING POSITION of eye depends upon TONIC ACTIVITIES IN MUSCLES
  2. DAMAGE TO ANY ONE MUSCLE does not entirely eliminate abduction, abduction, elevation or depression, only get WEAKNESS
180
Q

Identify the nerve damage

-damage causes MEDIAL STRABISMUS (cross-eyed)

A

Damage of ABDUCENS VI NERVE

-DUE to damage/paralyze LATERAL RECTUS (LR6)

181
Q

Identify the nerve damage

  • damage results in inability to turn eye down and out, also head tilt at rest
  • patient tilts head to opposite side (compensate for unilateral eye rotation)
A

TROCHLEAR NERVE IV

  • Pt can’t look down and out
  • Difficulty walking down stairs, HEAD TILTED

**Normal rotation occurs when you tilt head, rotate ipsilateral eye medially when tilt head laterally

**After IV Damage - eye rotated laterally; patient tilts head to opposite side so both eyes rotated

182
Q

Identify the nerve damage

At rest

  1. LATERAL STRABISMUS (wall eyed) due to paralyze MEDIAL RECTUS
  2. PTOSIS - drooping eyelid paralyze LEVATOR PALPEBRAE SUPERIORIS
  3. DILATED PUPIL - (MYDRIASIS) paralyze constrictor papillae and DIPLOPIA/double vision
A

OCULOMOTOR NERVE III

183
Q

What is the parasympathetic ganglion of occulomotor nerve called

**WHAT does it contain

A

CILIARY GANGLION

**Contains - Parasympathetics for ciliary muscles and sphincter pupillae ; Parasympathetics travel in short ciliary nerves

184
Q

Identify the nerves passing to back of eye (in addition to optic nerve)

**What is MYDRIASIS

A
  1. Short Ciliary nerves - Parasympathetics from III to ciliary muscles and constrictor pupillae
  2. Long Ciliary nerves - sensory branches of opthalmic division (V1) of trigeminal nerve which innervate cornea
  • *BLOWN pupil = DILATED pupil (MYDRIASIS) - pupil unable to constrict in response to light
  • indicates catastrophe (stroke, herniation)
185
Q

Damage to sympathetic pathways is referred to as what?

What are the symptoms?

A

HORNER’S SYNDROME

Symptoms
MIOSIS - pupillary constriction
PTOSIS - drooping eyelid
ANHYDROSIS - lack of sweating

186
Q

Identify the system

  1. Innervates visceral structures; smooth and cardiac muscles, blood vessels, glands and internal organs
  2. Often thought of as reactive to stimuli (fight or flight). Many provide pathways for the CNS to continuously regulate and control body functions

Give examples

A

AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM

E.g

  1. Thermoregulation - regulate body temperature
  2. Cardiovascular function in heart and blood vessels - monitor and regulate heart rate, blood pressure
  3. GI function - secretion, motility
187
Q

What is the basic pathway of the autonomic nervous system

A
  • 2 neuron arc
  • pre-ganglionic neuron is in CNS; axon leaves CNS; synapses in autonomic ganglion - post ganglionic cell in autonomic ganglion innervates smooth muscle, glands etc
188
Q

The pathway of the autonomic nervous system involves a 2 neuron arc. What is this called? Why is this

A

DIVERGENCE

  • *AUTONOMICS can activate many targets at the same time (simultaneously)
  • A single pre-ganglionic neuron synapses on many post-ganglionic neurons (ratio 1 per/15 post up to 1 pre/200 post)
  • This divergence can allow for widespread effects (e.g in thermoregulation, many sweat glands are activated simultaneously)
189
Q

There are 2 parts of the autonomic nervous system

Identify each respectively

    • Out CNS at THORACOLUMBAR LEVELS
    • GANGLIA close to CNS (paravertebral)
    • preganglionic is SHORT
    • post ganglionic is LONG

What are the actions

A

SYMPATHETICS (flight of fight)

Actions

  • Increase heart rate
  • Decrease gastric movements and secretions
  • Decrease secretion of salivary glands
190
Q

There are 2 parts of the autonomic nervous system

Identify this

    • REST and DIGEST
    • Out CNS at CRANIOSACRAL LEVELS (cranial nerves and sacral spinal nerves)
    • Ganglia is close to TARGET
    • pre ganglionic is LONG
    • post ganglionic is SHORT

What are the actions

A

PARASYMPATHETICS : Rest and Digest

Actions

  • Decrease heart rate
  • Increase gastric movements and secretions
  • Increase secretion of salivary glands
191
Q

Some body structures receive only SYMPATHETICS and not Parasympathetics

Identify
1. Innervate skin and peripheral blood vessels

  1. DO NOT innervate skin and peripheral blood vessels
    * *Do not go to the body wall
A
  1. SYMPATHETICS
    * innervates
    - skin (sweat glands and arrector pilae)
    - peripheral blood vessels
  2. PARASYMPATHETICS

**SYMPATHETICS are much more widely distributed than Parasympathetics- pathways are more complex

192
Q

Thermoregulation is controlled by what?

What are the responses to change in temperature

1

  • Peripheral vasodilation
  • increased sweating
  • water and electrolyte retention
    • peripheral vasoconstriction
    • decreased sweating
    • contract arrector pilae muscles
    • shivering
A

HYPOTHALAMUS controls termoregulation

  1. Responses to INCREASED TEMPERATURE (Anterior hypothalamus/Preoptic area)
  2. Responses to DECREASED TEMPERATURE (Caudal hypothalamus)

**Signals from hypothalamus project via hypothalamospinal tract and brainstem to autonomic nuclei in spinal cord (lateral horn)

193
Q

The centers in the CNS regulate autonomic function like brainstem reticular formation. What part of CNS is a major center for regulation of autonomic function

A

HYPOTHALAMUS

194
Q

What is the anatomical pathway of the SYMPATHETICS

What 3 things can they do

A

**Sympathetics (pre-ganglionic neurons) come out Spinal cord (at thoracic and upper lumbar levels )

3 things

  1. Synapse in ganglion at level of outflow
    - Pre ganglionics course in communicating rami (connect to sympathetic ganglion)
    - Post ganglionics join spinal nerve of that segment (e.g skin of thorax - innervated by intercostal nerves)
  2. Ascend or descending chain and synapse in other ganglia of chain
    - Post ganglionics then course in communicating rami to join spinal nerves at those segments (e.g cervical spinal nerves of brachial plexus)
  3. Not synapse in chain; pre-ganglionics continue to ganglia nearer to target organ
    - splanchnic nerves to gut (covered in spring semester)
195
Q

What is the sympathetic pathway to the head

A
  • *sympathetics to head come out T1 and T2
  • ascend sympathetic chain
  • synapse in Superior cervical ganglion
  • post ganglionics distributed with plexus on carotid arteries
196
Q

Damage or interruption to sympathetics pathway result in what condition

  • WHAT ARE THE symptoms (3)
  • innervation (SI)
  • damage (D)
A

HORNER’S SYNDROME

  1. ANHYDROSIS (lack of sweating)
    * SI - sweat glands in skin
    * D- lack of sweating in skin (e.g forehead)
  2. PTOSIS (eyelid droop)
    * SI - LEVATOR palpebrae SUPERIORIS - sympathetics to smooth muscle part
    * D - LEVATOR lifts upper eyelid; damage produces eyelid droop
  3. MIOSIS (constricted pupil)
    * SI - pupillary dilator muscle
    * D - Damage paralyses dilator muscle; pupil is constructed (constrictor pupillae muscle is intact - CN III)
197
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis of PTOSIS

Cause
Innervation
Differential effects

A

PTOSIS - EYELID DROOP

**Cause - damage to innervation of LEVATOR PALPEBRAE SUPEIORIS

**Innervation - by both SYMPATHETICS and SOMATIC MOTOR NEURONS CN III

**Differential effects on pupil of eye, sweat glands

198
Q

There are 3 structural differences btw HORNERS SYSNDROME and OCCULOMOTOR PALSY (nerve damage)

  1. Upper eyelid
A

HORNER

  • Ptsosis (eyelid droop)
  • paralyze SMOOTH muscle part of LEVATOR palpebrae SUPERIORIS

OCULOMOTOR PALSY

  • PTOSIS (eyelid droop)
  • paralyze SKELETAL muscle part of LEVATOR palpebrae SUPERIORIS
199
Q

There are 3 structural differences btw HORNERS SYSNDROME and OCCULOMOTOR PALSY (nerve damage)

  1. PUPIL OF EYE
A

HORNERS

  • pupil constricted (MIOSIS)
  • Pupillary dilator muscle paralyzed
  • pupillary constrictor muscle intact

OCULOMOTOR PALSY

  • Pupil dilated (MYDRIASIS)
  • Pupillary constructor muscle paralyzed
  • Dilator muscle intact
200
Q

There are 3 structural differences btw HORNERS SYSNDROME and OCCULOMOTOR PALSY (nerve damage)

  1. Sweat glands in skin
A

HORNERS
-ANDYDROSIS - lack of sweating in skin (e.g forehead)

OCULOMOTOR PALSY
No EFFECT
(Parasympathetics do not innervate skin)

201
Q

Identify the nerve

  • Innervates extraocular muscles
  • damages effects eye movements
  • no deficit in eye movements in HORNERS syndrome

*8What are other causes of PTOSIS

A

OCULOMOTOR NERVE III

Other cause of PTOSIS 
1. Myasthenia Gravis 
2. Aponeurosis PTOSIS (LEVATOR palpebrae loses insertion to tarsal plate) 
3. Orbital fracture 
Etc
202
Q

What are the 3 foramen that can be identified on the face

  • *location
  • *connection
  • *contents
A
  1. SUPRAORBITAL notch or foramen
  2. Infraorbital foramen
  3. Mental foramen
203
Q

There are 3 foramen that can be seen on the face

Identify

  • location ; in frontal bone
  • connection ; connects orbit and forehead
  • contents; contains SUPRAORBITAL nerve, artery and vein
A

SUPRAORBITAL NOTCH OR FORAMEN

  • *V1 - somatic sensory (GSA)
  • precise sensation
204
Q

There are 3 foramen that can be seen on the face

  1. INFRAORBITAL FORAMEN
  • location
  • connection
  • content
A
  • in maxillary bone
  • connects orbit and face
  • Contains INFRAORBITAL nerve, artery and vein

**V2 - somatic sensory

205
Q

There are 3 foramen that can be seen on the face

  1. MENTAL FORAMEN
  • location
  • connection
  • content
A
  • in mandible
  • connects MANDIBULAR canal to face
  • contains MENTAL nerve, artery and vein

*V2 -somatic sensory

206
Q

The calvarium and cranial vault has this foramen

  1. PARIETAL FORAMEN (2)
A
  • in parietal bone on either side of SAGITTAL suture
  • connects diploe in bone to scalp
  • contains EMISSARY VEINS
207
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. OLFACTORY FORAMEN
A

LOCATION - cribriform plate of ethmoid bone in anterior cranial fossa

CONNECTS anterior cranial fossa and nasal cavity

CONTAINS branches of OLFACTORY NERVE (fila olfactoria I)

208
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. OPTIC FORAMEN/CANAL
A

LOCATION - base of lesser wing of sphenoid none in middle cranial fossa

CONNECTS middle cranial fossa to orbit

CONTAINS OPTIC NERVE II and OPHTHALMIC ARTERY

209
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. SUPERIOR ORBITAL FISSURE
A

LOCATION - located btw greater and lesser wing of sphenoid bone in middle cranial fossa

CONNECTS middle cranial fossa and orbit

CONTAINS CN III, IV, V1, VI and OPHTHALMIC VEINS

210
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. CAROTID CANAL
A

LOCATION - in temporal bone

CONNECTS base of skull to middle cranial fossa (opening of carotid canal in middle cranial fossa called foramen lacerum)

CONTAINS Internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus surrounding artery

211
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. Foramen roundum
A

LOCATION - located in greater wing of sphenoid bone

CONNECTS middle cranial fossa and Pterygopalatine fossa

CONTAINS - MAXILLARY DIVISION (V2) of trigeminal

212
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. Foramen ovale
A

LOCATION - located in sphenoid bone

CONNECTS middle cranial fossa and infratemporal fossa

CONTAINS - V3 (MANDIBULAR division) and Accesory MENINGEAL artery (when present)

213
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. Foramen spinosum
A

LOCATION - located in sphenoid bone

CONNECTS middle cranial fossa and infratemporal fossa

CONTAINS MIDDLE MENINGEAL ARTERY and NERVUS SPINOSUS (from V3)

214
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. Internal auditory meatus
A

LOCATION - located in temporal bone

CONNECTS posterior cranial fossa to inner ear and (via facial canal) STYLOMASTOID foramen

CONTAINS Facial nerve VII and Vestibulocochlear nerve VIII

215
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. Jugular foramen
A

LOCATED - located in temporal and occipital bones

CONNECTS posterior cranial fossa and base of skull

CONTAINS Internal Jugular vein, IX, X and XI

216
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. HYPOGLOSSAL CANAL
A

LOCATION - in occipital bone

CONNECTS posterior cranial fossa and base of skull

CONTAINS XII - Hypoglossal

217
Q

There are 11 foramen in the interior of the skull

  1. Foramen magnum
A

LOCATION - Occipital bone

CONNECTS posterior cranial fossa and vertebral canal

CONTAINS spinal cord (with meninges) and vertebral arteries and veins

218
Q

There are 7 foramen in the Orbit

  1. Optic foramen and canal
  2. Superior Orbital fissure
  3. INFERIOR ORBITAL FISSURE
A

LOCATION - located btw sphenoid and maxillary bones

CONNECTS Pterygopalatine fossa and infratemporal fossa to orbit

CONTAINS Infraorbital and zygomatic nerve, artery and vein (nerves are branches of V2)

219
Q

There are 7 foramen in the Orbit

  1. Anterior and posterior ethmoidal foramina
A

LOCATED - btw ethmoid and frontal bones

CONNECTS orbit and nasal cavity

CONTAINS Anterior and Posterior ethmoidal nerves (branches of V1), arteries (branches of ophthalmic artery) and veins

220
Q

There are 7 foramen in the Orbit

  1. SUPRAORBITAL notch or foramen
A

LOCATION - in frontal bone

CONNECTS orbit and forehead

CONTAINS SUPRAORBITAL nerve, artery and vein

221
Q

There are 7 foramen in the Orbit

  1. Infraorbital foramen
A

LOCATION - in maxillary bone

CONNECTS orbit and face

CONTAINS infraorbital nerve, artery and vein

222
Q

There are 7 foramen in the Orbit

  1. Nasolacrimal duct
A

LOCATION - in maxillary, lacrimal bones and inferior nasal concha

CONNECTS - orbit and nasal cavity

CONTAINS Membranous nasolacrimal duct and tears

223
Q

The development of branchial arches reflect what fact?

A

Structures which develop in an embryo that are comparable to gills of fish ;
REFLECT THAT ONTOGENY (development of individual) RESEMBLES PHYLOGENY (evolution of species)

**Branchial arch = Pharyngeal arch

224
Q

Identify

  1. Region behind oral and nasal cavities. Connected to trachea (respiratory system) and esophagus (GI) system
    * *Name the 3 structures that make this up
  2. Voice box

**Identify the order of structures from nasal cavity to trachea

A
  1. PHARYNX
    * *Nasopharynx - Oropharynx - Laryngopharynx
  2. LARYNX

**Nasal cavity - Nasopharynx - Oropharynx - Laryngopharynx - esophagus - trachea

225
Q

In the development of branchial arches, what happens in WEEK 4

WHat are the other names for the following

  • branchial arch
  • branchial arch artery
  • Cleft
A

WEEK 4 - NEURAL CREST CELLS MIGRATE to form ridges/branchial arches on lateral side of pharynx

  • *
  • NEURAL CREST CELLS invade future head and neck region of embryo
  • cells form RIDGES* (branchial arches) on side of head and neck located LATERAL to rostral/proximal part of the foregut/pharynx
  • This forms the BRANCHIAL ARCH COMPONENTS

NOTE
Branchial arch - pharyngeal arch
Branchial arch artery - Aortic arch
Cleft - Groove

226
Q

In the development of branchial arches, what happens in weeks 5-6

A

WEEKS 5-6; Forms much of musculature of head and some of neck

**Structures in embryonic branchial arches reorganize to form cartilages, nerve, muscles and arteries in fetus

227
Q

In the development of branchial arches, what happens in weeks 6-7

A

WEEKS 6-7 ; Formation of ear, upper lip, mouth and developing ear

228
Q

In development of branchial arches, what happens in weeks 8-10

A

WEEKS 8-10

-Congenital malformations of head and neck result form incorrect transformation of branchial apparatus to adult structures

E.g cleft palate etc

229
Q

Summarize the events in the development of branchialarches form weeks 4 to 10

A

WEEK 4
*Neural crest cells migrate To form ridges/branchial arches in lateral part of pharynx

WEEK 5-6
*Forms much of musculature of head and some of neck

WEEK 6-7
*Form eye, upper lip, mouth, developing ear

WEEK 8-10
*Congenital malformations of head and neck result from incorrect transformation of branchial apparatus to adult structures (e.g cleft lip)

230
Q

The branchial apparatus is composed of 4 elements (including branchial arches)

Identify
- components are arches covered by; ectoderm externally
Endoderm lined internally
Core of arch formed by MESENCHYME

**what do the mesenchyme form

A

BRANCHIAL ARCH

**MESENCHYME will form muscles, arteries, connective tissue, cartilage and parts of skeleton

**Each arch has a specific nerve that innervated the muscles that develop from that arch; some arteries will form adult vessels (considered as Aortic Arches)

231
Q

The branchial apparatus is composed of 4 elements (including branchial arches)

Identify
- ectodermal (external) clefts between adjacent branchial arches

A

BRANCHIAL GROOVES (pharyngeal clefts)

232
Q

The branchial apparatus is composed of 4 elements (including branchial arches)

Identify

  • endodermal OUTPOCKETING of rostral/proximal part of foregut/pharynx
  • pouches are located between adjacent branchial arches
A

BRANCHIAL POUCH

233
Q

The branchial apparatus is composed of 4 elements (including branchial arches)

Identify
-Site of Contact of ECTODERM of branchial groove WITH
ENDODERM of pharyngeal pouch

A

BRANCHIAL MEMBRANE

234
Q

**Name the 4 elements of branchial apparatus

**What happens to branchial apparatus of embryo by end of embryonic period

A

*

  1. Branchial arch
  2. Branchial groove
  3. Branchial pouch
  4. Branchial membrane

**Branchial apparatus of embryo is reshaped into new structures; structures can disappear or form vestigial remnants by the end of the embryonic period

235
Q

What does the fate of branchial arches contribute to?

  • branchial arch cartilages
  • branchial arch nerves
  • branchial arch muscles
A

**Fate of branchial arches contribute to formation of face, neck, mouth, larynx and pharynx

  • BA cartilages - form skeletal elements (bones, cartilages and ligaments)
  • BA Nerves are cranial nerves (BRANCHIOMOTOR SVE) ; V, VII, IX, X, XI - respectively (fifth arch forms no adult structures in humans)
  • BA muscles - each muscle migrate but continues to be innervated by the cranial nerve to the arch from which the muscle is derived
236
Q

Identify the 5 branchial arches

A
First (V) 
Second (VII) 
Third (IX) 
Fourth (X) 
Sixth (XI) 
  • *Fifth arch forms no adult structures in humans
  • *Sixth arch is small; descriptions of fourth and sixth arches vary among authors
237
Q

The branchial arches are divided into first (V), second (VII), third (IX), fourth (X) and sixth (XI) arch/nerve.

*For the first (V) arch/nerve, identify 
Structures derived ; 
Skeletal 
Ligaments 
Muscles
A

FIRST arch (V) - Trigeminal ; forms face, has maxillary and MANDIBULAR processes

  • SKELETAL
    1) Malleus
    2) Incus
  • LIGAMENTS
    1) Anterior ligament of malleus
    2) Sphenomandibular ligament
  • MUSCLES
    1) Muscles of mastication
    2) Tensor tympani
    3) Tensor palati
    4) Mylohyoid
    5) Anterior belly of digastric
238
Q

The branchial arches are divided into first (V), second (VII), third (IX), fourth (X) and sixth (XI) arch/nerve.

*For the second (VII) arch/nerve, identify 
Structures derived ; 
Skeletal 
Ligaments 
Muscles
A

*SECOND (VII) - facial nerve

  • SKELETAL
    1) Stapes
    2) Styloid process
    3) Hyoid bone - lesser horn, upper half of body

*LIGAMENTS
Stylohyoid ligament

  • MUSCLES
    1) Muscles of facial expression
    2) Stapedius
    3) Stylohyoid
    4) Posterior belly of digastric
239
Q

The branchial arches are divided into first (V), second (VII), third (IX), fourth (X) and sixth (XI) arch/nerve.

*For the third (IX) arch/nerve, identify 
Structures derived ; 
Skeletal 
Ligaments 
Muscles
A

THIRD (IX) - GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL

  • SKELETAL
    1) Hyoid bone - greater horn
    2) lower half of body

*LIGAMENTS
None

*MUSCLES
Stylopharyngeus

240
Q

The branchial arches are divided into first (V), second (VII), third (IX), fourth (X) and sixth (XI) arch/nerve.

*For the fourth (X) arch/nerve, identify 
Structures derived ; 
Skeletal 
Ligaments 
Muscles
A

FOURTH (X) - Vagus nerve

*SKELETAL
Cartilages of Larynx

NO Ligaments

MUSCLES

1) All Muscles of larynx
2) All muscles of pharynx (except stylopharyngeus)
3) All muscles of Soft palate (except tensor palati)

241
Q

The branchial arches are divided into first (V), second (VII), third (IX), fourth (X) and sixth (XI) arch/nerve.

*For the sixth (XI) arch/nerve, identify 
Structures derived ; 
Skeletal 
Ligaments 
Muscles
A

Caudal SIXTH (XI) - Accessory nerve

No Skeletal

NO Ligaments

MUSCLES

1) Sternocleidomastoid
2) Trapezius

242
Q

What becomes the external auditory meatus and tympanic membrane

A

**First Branchial GROOVE (CLEFT) - External Auditory Meatus

**First Branchial MEMBRANE - Tympanic Membrane

243
Q
  • What surrounds and forms the STOMODEUM (primitive mouth)

* What is oropharyngeal membrane and what is the site called

A

*First Arch - forms face, has maxillary and MANDIBULAR processes - surround stomodeum (primitive mouth)

  • STOMODEUM is formed by ectoderm; forms oral cavity and nasal cavity
  • contacts ENDODERM at Oropharyngeal membrane (boundary)
  • Pharynx/rostral foregut is formed by ENDODERM

**PALATOGLOSSAL ARCH - Site of Oropharngeal membrane - Boundary between oral cavity and pharynx

244
Q

The innervation pattern of cranial nerves applies to which of the following:

A. Muscles of branch arches
B. Pouches
C. Clefts

A

A. Muscles of branch ARCHES

**Innervation pattern of cranial nerves does not apply to pouches or clefts/groove

245
Q

Various structures are derived form branchial pouches and clefts

*Identify the pouch

Elongates into tubotypanic recess and forms;

1) Auditory tube
2) Tympanic cavity

**what is the cleft linked to

A

FIRST POUCH

*First Branchial ‘cleft’ cyst - tract linked to EXTERNAL AUDITORY MEATUS

246
Q

Various structures are derived form branchial pouches.

  • Identify the pouch
  • forms epithelial lining of CRYPTS (spaces) of the palatine tonsils
  • What is the cleft linked to
A

SECOND POUCH

**Second branchial “cleft” cyst - tract linked to TONSILLITIS FOSSA (palatine tonsils)

247
Q

Various structures are derived form branchial pouches.

  • Identify the pouch
    1) Upper part forms INFERIOR PARATHYROID GLAND
    2) Lower part forms THYMUS
A

THIRD POUCH

*Third branchial ‘cleft’ cyst - tract at THYROHYOID MEMBRANE or PIRIFORM RECESS

248
Q

Various structures are derived form branchial pouches.

*Identify the pouch
Forms
1) Superior parathyroid gland
2) C - cells of Thyroid (produce calcitonin hormone)

A

FOURTH POUCH

**Fourth branchial cleft does not form

249
Q

Various structures are derived form branchial pouches.

*what does the SIXTH (XI) pouch and cleft form?

A

NOTHING

250
Q

WHAT does the superior and inferior parathyroid gland develop from?

A
  • Superior parathyroid gland develop form POUCH 4
  • Inferior parathyroid gland develop from POUCH 3

**Final position occurs because elements from pouch 3 migrate caudal to pouch 4

251
Q

Four branchial grooves separate the branchial arches externally on each side; only one pair of branchial grooves forms a structure in the adult

Identify

*what happens to the other branchial grooves?

A

ONLY FIRST branchial groove and membrane normally form structures in adult

  • First GROOVE - External Auditory Meatus (outer ear canal)
  • First MEMBRANE - Tympanic Membrane (groove meets pouch)
  • First POUCH - Auditory Tube
  • *The other branchial grooves develop to lie in a larger depression called the CERVICAL SINUS; this sinus is NORMALLY OBLITERATED during development bu can persist
  • cervical sinus; can persist as BRANCHIAL SINUS (blind pouch off pharynx) or a BRANCHIAL CYST FISTULA (channel connecting pharynx to skin); when present are found ANTERIOR TO STERNOCLEIDOMASTOID
252
Q

The cervical sinus is a depression that the other branchial grooves lie. The sinus can persist as a branchial sinus or a branchial cyst fistula (channel connecting pharynx to skin)

**When the branchial fistula/channel is present, where does it extend?

**What is the remnant of cervical sinus?

A

BRANCHIAL FISTULA (channel) - when present often extends from 2nd pharyngeal pouch and passes between internal and external carotid arteries and exits to skin anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle; can become INFECTED

  • *Branchial sinus = Blind pouch form pharynx
  • *Branchial fistula = Channel, often connecting pharynx to skin of NECK; usually passes anterior to sternomastoid, between internal and external carotid artery

**BRANCHIAL CYST is often the remnant of cervical sinus

253
Q

IDENTIFY THE 3 PARTS OF EAR

1.

  • bones link tympanic membrane to cochlea amplify pressure
  • muscles can dampen loud sounds
  • IMPRECISE sensation
    • funnel shaped
    • directs sounds to tympanic membrane
    • binaural hearing
    • PRECISE sensation
  1. Cochlea - hearing
    Vestibular apparatus - gravity
A
  1. MIDDLE EAR
  2. OUTER EAR
  3. INNER EAR
254
Q

Describe the development of thyroid gland

A
  1. Initial stage - thyroid start as median endodermal thickening on floor of primitive pharynx at JUNCTION OF FUTURE ANTERIOR 2/3 AND POSTERIOR 1/3 OF TONGUE (marked by foramen cecum)
  2. Later - endodermal thickening elongates into floor of pharynx to form THYROID DIVERTICULUM; opening of diverticulum on surface of developing tongue called the foramen cecum
  3. Developing thyroid diverticulum - descends in the neck anterior to hyoid bone and larynx. As the diverticulum elongates into neck, A THYROGLOSSAL DUCT CONNECTS diverticulum with foramen cecum
  4. Developing thyroid gland reaches final site in neck (anterior to upper rings of trachea)
    - THYROGLOSSAL duct disintegrates
    - foramen cecum remains as a vestigial pit on the tongue
255
Q

There are 2 possible congenital malformations

  • Identify this
  • part of duct can remain and form THYROGLOSSAL cysts anywhere from foramen cecum of tongue to thyroid gland in neck;
  • cysts found in midline of neck and can be located anterior to hyoid bone or larynx
A

THYROGLOSSAL DUCT REMNANTS

256
Q

There are 2 possible malformations

  • Identify this
  • present in 50% of people, represents persistent part of THYROGLOSSAL duct which can contain some thyroid tissue
  • lobe can be attached to hyoid bone by fibrous strand, usually no associated clinical problems
A

PYRAMIDAL BONE

257
Q

The visual system provides information about the external world by detection and analysis of light. Light reflection, transmission and emission must first be transduced into a pattern of NEURAL ACTIVITY.

  • What are the 2 components of the eye that contribute to this process
  • Processing of visual information begins where?
A
  1. The OPTICAL system of the eye FUNCTIONS LIKE A CAMERA, so that an ACCURATE image of the visual world is projected onto the retina
    - compensate for light sources of varying brightness and distances
  2. The NEURAL/RETINA system of the eye is responsible for TRANSDUCING LIGHT ENERY INTO NEURAL ACTIVITY , and initial processing of visual information
    -retina detect diff in light intensity
    (Rods - low light, cones - bright light)

**The processing of visual information begins in the RETINA and extends throughout the entire visual system which incorporates large areas of the cerebral cortex

258
Q

What is the ratio of the velocity of light in air to the velocity of light in that substance ?

**Compare velocity of light in air to solids and liquids?

A

REFRACTIVE INDEX

  • Light travels through air at a velocity of about 3 x 10 ^8 m/sec.
  • The velocity of light is slower through solids and liquids
  • The refractive index of a substance is given by the ratio of the velocity of light in air to the velocity of light in that substance

E.g

  1. The refractive index of air is 1.0 since the ratio of the velocity of light through air to itself is 1 (300000/300000)
  2. If the velocity of light through a particular type of glass is 2 x 10 ^8 m/sec, then refractive index is 1.5 (300000/200000)
259
Q

The bending of light rays at an angled interface caused by movement of light rays from one substance to another where there is a change in velocity is called. ?

Explain this concept

**What are the 2 things that determine the degree of bending of light rays

A

REFRACTION (Bending of light)

  • The direction in which light travels is always PERPENDICULAR to the plane of its wave front
  • When light strikes an interface with higher refractive index (e,g glass) at an angle PERPENDICULAR TO BEAM OF LIGHT (waves do not deviate from their course, only effects are DECREASED VELOCITY and SHORTER WAVELENGTH)
  • When light strikes an interface with higher refractive index at AN OBLIQUE ANGLE, the first portion of wave to enter medium is at SLOWER VELOCITY, remainder of wave is at ORIGINAL/FASTER velocity

**As light wave passes completely through the interface, the wave gets turned at an angle, redirecting the path of the light beam (WAVE IS REFRACTED/REDIRECTED)

**The bending of light rays at an angles interface is called REFRACTION.
Degree of bending is a function of ;
1. Ratio of the 2 refractive indices at the interface (REFRACTIVE INDEX)
2. The angle between the interface and the entering wave front (ANGLE OF INCIDENCE)

260
Q

There are 3 types of lens important in vision. 2 are spherical lens and 1 is cylindrical.

Identify this

  • causes parallel light rays to CONVERGE
  • At center (no angle of incidence, no refraction)
  • At edge (Increased angle of incidence and greater refraction)

**If the lens has proper curvature, parallel light rays entering the lens at any point will all be bent/focused so that they pass through a single point called ?

A

CONVEX spherical LENS - converge at Focal point

  • A light ray strikes the CENTER of the lens perpendicular to the surface and there is NOT BENT (Angle of incidence = 0)
  • Towards the EDGE of the lens, light rays strike at an angle deviating form perpendicular. REFRACTION with increasing degree across the lens surface (INCREASE AOI, greater refraction)

** If the lens has proper curvature, parallel light rays entering the lens at any point will all be bent/focused so that they pass through a single point called FOCAL POINT of the lens

261
Q

There are 3 types of lens important in vision. 2 are spherical lens and 1 is cylindrical.

Identify this
- DIVERGES light rays

*Rays bent to a greater degree degree with increasing distance from the center of the lens

A

CONCAVE spherical LENS - diverge light rays

  • Rays that enter exactly at the center of lens are NOT REFRACTED
  • Rays that strike the lens surface away from the center are refracted away from those that strike at the center
262
Q

There are 3 types of lens important in vision. 2 are spherical lens and 1 is cylindrical.

Identify this
-bends light in ONLY ONE PLANE
(Light is refracted towards or away from a line, rather than a point)
-Problem in this lens result in astigmatism (cant focus)

A

CYLINDRICAL LENS

  • concave or convex in only one axis
  • parallel light rays entering a CONVEX cylindrical lens are bent TOWARDS a focal line
  • parallel light rays entering a CONCAVE cylindrical lens are bent AWAY from a focal line

**The combination of 2 convex cylindrical lens at right angle has same FOCUSING effect as one convex lens
1 focus light onto a line, 2 focus the line onto a point

263
Q

What is the distance behind a CONVEX lens at which PARALLEL light rays converge?

**what is difference btw light rays traveling from a distant source versus a nearby source

**what happens to the convergence of light rays from nearby source

A

FOCAL LENGTH

  • Light from distant source (20 ft or more) - enter lens as essentially PARALLEL rays
  • Light from nearby source - enter lens as DIVERGING rays

**Becase Light rays from a nearby point source enter as DIVERGING rays, they converge behind the lens at a more DISTANT POINT (longer focal length) - Increase convexity to correct this

264
Q

What are the major ways of describing refractive power

A
  1. DIOPTERS - refractive power of a lens is usually described in units of diopters
    = 1m/focal length (m)

Different for the lens

  • convex
  • concave
  • cylindrical
265
Q
  1. A CONVEX lens which converges parallel rays of light onto a focal point 1 meter behind the lens has a refractive power of?
  2. Converge parallel rays of light onto a focal point 0.5meter behind lens?
  3. focal point 10cm (0.1meter) behind lens

**Which has the strongest lens?

A
  1. +1 diopter
  2. +2 diopters
  3. +10 diopters

**The one with shortest focal length has the greatest refractive power

266
Q

HOW is the refractive power of a CONCAVE LENS EXPRESSED ?

**How is the strength in diopters of concave lens determined?

A

-EXPRESSED in terms of the focal length in front of the lens from which the light rays diverge

  • *Strength of concave lens determined by the degree to which they DIVERGE LIGHT
  • -1 D concave lens diverges light at same rate that +1 D convex lens converges light
  • -10 D concave lens diverges light at same rate that +10 D convex lens converges light
267
Q

Combining concave and convex lenses with the same absolute value in diopters results in a total refractive power of?

A

0 diopters

  • 1 D lens “neutralizes” a +1 D lens
  • -10 D lens “neutralizes” a +10 D lens
268
Q

How is the strength of a cylindrical lens computed?

A

**Same as spherical lens except the AXIS (in degrees) of the lens must also be given

**If the focal line of a cylindrical lens is;
HORIZONTAL - axis is 0 degrees
VERTICAL - axis is 90 degrees

269
Q

What are the 4 refractive interfaces of the eye

A
  1. Between air and anterior surface of cornea
  2. Between posterior surface of cornea and aqueous humor
  3. Between aqueous humor and anterior surface of lens
  4. Between posterior surface of lens and vitreous humor
  • *2/3rd of total refractive power of eye comes from anterior surface of cornea - refractive index of the cornea is markedly different from air,
  • differences at other interfaces are much smaller
  • *1/3rd of total refractive power of eye comes from lens
  • differences in refractive index btw lens and aqueous/vitreous humor is relatively small
  • major function of lens is not refractive power, but ACCOMODATION (change in refractive power) - change in curvature of lens
270
Q

What is the major importance of the lens in eye function?

A

Not its refractive power

It is the ABILITY TO CHANGE SHAPE - increasing or decreasing in curvature . Provides basis for ACCOMMODATION

271
Q

What is the process through which the refractive power of the lens is changed?

A

ACCOMMODATION

  • The refractive power of the lens can be increased from 20 diopters to about 34 diopters in young children (14 diopters)
  • accomplished by CHANGING THE DEGREE OF CONVEXITY OF THE LENS -range from moderately to very convex
272
Q

Describe the messianism of lens accommodation

  • *What holds the lens in place
  • What happens to ligaments and lens during resting condition
  • what attaches to the ligaments?
A
  • Lens is elastic
  • held in place by about 70 SUSPENSORY LIGAMENTS
  • Ligaments attach radially around eye
  • pull the edges of the lens towards the eyeball
  • During resting conditions, SUSPENSORY ligaments are never CONSTANT TENSION - pulling lens into a relatively FLAT SHAPE

**CILIARY USCLE attaches to SUSPENSORY ligaments

273
Q

The lens is formed by a strong elastic capsule that is held in place by 70 SUSPENSORY ligaments. During resting conditions, the ligaments pull th Elena to a flat shape. The ciliary muscle is located where the SUSPENSORY ligaments attach to the eyeball

The ciliary muscle is composed of what 2 things

  1. Extends anteriorly to the corneoscleral junction
  2. Function like a sprinter

**what happens when the tension on SUSPENSORY ligaments decreases

A

2 separate sets of smooth muscle fibers

  1. MERIDIONAL FIBERS - extend anteriorly
    - when fibers contract, ligaments are pulled FORWARD and MEDIALLY, releasing tension
  2. CIRCULAR FIBERS - arranged so they function like a spincter
    - when fibers contract, decrease diameter of ligament attachment,
    tension on ligaments/lens decreases

**tension of SUSPENSORY ligaments decrease = elasticity of lens form SPHERICAL SHAPE (increase refractive power)

274
Q

** In the control of lens accomodation (change in refractive power/shape), the ciliary muscles are regulated by?

** Accomodation do the lens is under what 2 controls?

A

PARASYMPATHETIC N.S (Via CN III) - occulomotor nerve

-parasympathetic activity causes ciliary muscles to contract (lens becomes more convex/thick, loosen ligaments, refractive power increases)

  • *Parasympathetic firing adapts eye for viewing nearby objects
  • if distant object approaches eye, parasympathetic input to ciliary muscles increases and vice versa
  • accomodation is under both VOLUNTARY and REFLEXIVE control
275
Q

With age, the lens loses elasticity and the ability to accommodate decreases.

**The decline in the ability to accommodate is called?

**what can fix this?

A

PRESBYOPIA

  • *Lens becomes less elastic with age (reduce ability to assume round shape - can’t focus on objects nearby)
  • ability to accommodate decreases
  • in young child, accommodation range is 14 diopters
  • by 50 years, accommodation range reduces to about 2 diopters
  • by 70 years, lens is essentially inelastic

SOLUTION
-reading or bifocal glasses (with diff lens strength in upper and lower halves) can compensate for decreased accommodation

276
Q
  • What controls amount of light entering the eye
  • what has reflex control over pupil diameter
  • cause pupil dilation ?
  • cause pupil constriction ?

*what are 2 functions of pupil diameter

A

**IRIS/pupil diameter; control amount of light entering eye

  • *Autonomic nervous system has reflex control over pupil diameter/Iris
  • sympathetic activation cause pupil DILATION (MYDRIASIS)
  • parasympathetic activation causes pupil CONSTRICTION (MIOSIS)

**Diameter of pupil ranges btw 1.5 and 8 mm (this is a 30-fold change in amount of light entering eye)

2 functions of pupil diameter

  1. Control amount of light entering the eye
  2. Affect DEPTH OF FOCUS/FIELD (degree to which objects remain in focus)
    * *Depth of focus GREATEST when pupil diameter is SMALLEST
277
Q

The depth of field is the range of distance over which objects remain in focus

Differentiate what happens when in;

  • small pupil diameter
  • large pupil diameter
A
  1. SMALL pupil diameter (LONG depth of focus)
    - light rays allowed into eye from a point source diverge very little
    - light from a point outside the plane of focus is projected onto the retina with little scattering
  2. LARGE pupil diameter (SHORT depth of focus)
    - light rays allowed into eye from a point source diverge considerably
    - light from a point outside the plane of focus is scattered/blurred over a wide area of retina
278
Q

When the eyed are fixated on a nearby object, what are the 3 reflexes evoked?

Functions?

A

NEAR TRIAD (Near reflex)

  1. CONVERGENCE of eye ; to center object on fovea - area of retina with greatest acuity
  2. ACCOMODATION of lenses ; to bring nearby object to focus
  3. MIOSIS (pupil constriction); to
    maximize depth of focus/field so that much of the object is in focus at point of fixation
279
Q

Identify the condition

  • bilateral small pupils that constrict when patient focuses on near object, but do not constrict when exposed to bright light
  • *AKA near-light dissociation because pupil constriction is evoked as part of the near reflex (CAM) but not by light
  • strongly associated with NEUROSYPHYLLIS
A

ARGYLL ROBERTSON PUPIL

-named for Douglas moray cooper lamb argyll robertson 19th century ophthalmologist

280
Q

Identify the following normality/abnormality of refraction (4) and correction as needed

    • parallel light rays are in sharp focus on retina when ciliary muscle is completely related

**what degrades vision?

A

EMMETROPIA (normal eye)

**A mismatch between the length of the eyeball and the strength of the eye’s lens system DEGRADES VISION (cause hyperopia or myopia)

281
Q

Identify the following normality/abnormality of refraction (4) and correction as needed

  • caused by EYEBALL that is TOO SHORT
    Or LENS system that is too WEAK
    -light rays are not bent enough when lens is completely relaxed
  • to compensate, ciliary muscle is contracted to increase refraction (strength of lens)
A

HYPEROPIA (farsightedness)

-able to focus on distant object by using accommodation mechanism
*as point of fixation is shifted closer and closer, ability to accommodate is exceeded
(Farsighted person becomes unable to focus)
RESULT ; degraded vision for near objects

CORRECTION
-Adding refractive power by placing a CONVEX lens (+ve diopter) in front of the eye

282
Q

Identify the following normality/abnormality of refraction (4) and correction as needed

  • caused by eyeball that is TOO LONG, or LENS system which is TOO STRONG
  • No way to reduce lens strength when ciliary muscle is fully relaxed (cannot focus on distant objects)
A

MYOPIA (nearsightedness)

  • If distant object is brought close enough, refractive strength of eye matches divergence of light rays and focus is attained)
  • If objects is brought even closer, normal accommodation mechanism allows focus until ciliary muscle is fully contracted
  • RESULT: Degraded vision for distant objects

CORRECTION
-placing a CONCAVE LENS in front of the eye to partially neutralize/ reduce the refractive power of the lens system

283
Q

Identify the following normality/abnormality of refraction (4) and correction as needed

  • light from one plane (e.g vertical) is focused at a different distance than light from a second plane (e.g horizontal)
  • COMMON CAUSE - uneven curvature of the cornea in one of its planes
A

ASTIGMATISM

  • light is bent unequally depending on plane of orientation
  • uneven curvature of cornea in one planes is common cause
  • lens accommodation cannot compensate for astigmatism: lens changes equally in all planes

CORRECTION

  • Spherical lens cant correct it
  • diff degrees of correction required in diff planes
  • CYLINDRICAL LENS
  • have appropriate strength and axis

**An eye requiring correction for both astigmatism and either hyperopia/myopia requires a lens with both spherical and cylindrical components

284
Q

Contact lenses are frequently used for correcting vision. What are some advantages of contacts over glasses

**what is the progressive thinning and bulging of the cornea

A
  1. Aesthetics
  2. Greatly reduces refraction (normally occurs at anterior surface of cornea - when tears have same refractive index as cornea; refraction due to contact lens replaces that of the cornea)
    * *Good for person with abnormal shaped cornea
  • KERATOCONUS - progressive thinning and bulging of the cornea distorts vision, due to altered refraction refraction across the cornea
  • an appropriate shaped contact lenses may be sufficient to correct vision
285
Q

Identify the problem

  • cloudy or opaque area in the lens
  • In later stages may obscure light transmission to the point that serious vision impairment occurs
  • Vision improved by surgical removal of the lens
A

CATARACTS

  • removal of lens reduces the refractive power of the eye which must be replaced for restoration of vision
  • An artificial plastic lens is implanted inside eye in place of the removed lens
286
Q

The fluid within the eye creates what pressure?

What are the 2 divisions

A

INTRAOCULAR PRESSURE

2 division

  1. AQUEOUS HUMOR
    - IN front of and to sides of lens (free flowing liquid)
  2. VITREOUS HUMOR
    - between lens and retina (gelatinous/proteoglycans)

**Exchange between aqueous and vitreous humor is by DIFFUSION

287
Q

Describe the formation of aqueous humor

*what determines intraocular pressure?

A
  1. Aqueous humor is continuously formed and reabsorbed
    - secreted by ciliary body (ciliary processes)
    * 3-4ml per day (approx half the volume of eye)
  2. Balance between formation and reabsorption determines intraocular pressure
  3. Surface of ciliary process is covered with secretory epithelial cells
  4. Similar mechanism for secretion of aqueous humor and CSF
288
Q

Describe the steps for the flow/ reabsorption of aqueous humor

A

**Aqueous humor flow:

  • between SUSPENSORY ligaments
  • through pupil into anterior chamber
  • into angle between cornea and iris
  • through trabecular meshwork
  • out of eye through canal of Schlemm
  • into venous circulation
289
Q

Identify the problem

  • damage to the optic nerve (retinal ganglion cells)
  • associated with elevated intraocular pressure (risk factor)
    1. Typical cause is DECREASED OUTFLOW of aqueous fluid
    2. Elevated intraocular pressure may compress optic nerve and cause permanent damage
    3. Association is not perfect
  • optic nerve damage can occur with normal intraocular pressure
  • elevated pressure does not guarantee damage

What are the 2 types

A

GLAUCOMA

  • *If angle between iris and cornea is narrow
    1. ANGLE - CLOSURE (narrow angle) Glaucoma
  • Iris blocks flow of intraocular fluid (anatomical barrier)
  • rapid rise n intraocular pressure
  • rapid damage to optic nerve
  1. OPEN ANGLE GLAUCOMA
    - flow of intraocular fluid impeded at trabecular meshwork (no anatomical barrier)
    - more common
    - slower rise in intraocular pressure
290
Q

What are the ways to test for glaucoma

A

Glaucoma is detected using a battery of tests, including:
• TONOMETRY: measurement of intraocular pressure
• OPHTHALMOSCOPY: visual inspection of the optic nerve head, or optic disk
• VISUAL FIELD TESTING: for assessment of vision loss in specific areas of visual space
Additional tests used to assess glaucoma include GONIOSCOPY, which measures the angle between the iris and cornea.

291
Q

The retina has a laminated/layered organization. As light enters the retina, it must travel through several layers before it finally reaches the photoreceptors.

Identify all 6 layers

A
  1. GANGLION CELL LAYER - first neuronal layer encountered by light contains output cell - ganglion cell layer
  2. INNER PLEXIFORM LAYER - closest to the center of eye. Synapse of bipolar cells, amacrine cells and retinal ganglion cells
  3. Inner nuclear layer - cell bodies of amacrine, bipolar and horizontal cells
  4. Outer plexiform layer - synapse of bipolar cells, horizontal cells and photoreceptors
  5. Outer nuclear layer - cell bodies of photoreceptors
  6. Layer of photoreceptor outer segments - phototransduction occurs (embedded in PIGMENTED EPITHELIUM)
292
Q

THE photoreceptor outer segments are embedded in a PIGMENTED EPITHELIUM. What are the functions of this epithelium

A
  1. Absorbs light that pass all the way through retina
  2. Prevent reflection/scattering of light that can blur image and reduce acuity
  3. Biochemical and metabolic roles - renews photopigments and phagocytosis photoreceptor disks which have high turn over
293
Q

The neurons of the retina belong to which 2 orthogonal pathways

A
  1. Vertical pathway

2. Lateral pathway

294
Q

The neurons of the retina belong to 2 pathways.
Identify

  1. All cells release glutamate
    - Post synaptic effect may be excitatory or inhibitory
  2. Ganglion cells
    - output cells of retina
    - long axonal projections
    - fire action potentials
  3. Photoreceptors, bipolar cells
    - don’t fire action potentials, graded potentials only
    - transmitter release is graded
A

VERTICAL PATHWAY

**A 3 neuron chain including photoreceptors, bipolar cells and retinal ganglion cells - create a direct route for transduction and transmission of light information to the brain

295
Q

The neurons of the retina belong to 2 pathways.
Identify

  1. Horizontal cells
    - release inhibitory transmitter (GABA)
    - mediate LATERAL INHIBITION BTW PHOTORECEPTORS
    - don’t fire action potentials, graded potentials only
  2. Amacrine cells
    - multiple categories and functions
    - mediates connections between rod photoreceptors and ganglion cells
A

LATERAL PATHWAY

296
Q

WHAT are the ways in which retina varied from fovea to periphery

A
  1. Rod and cone density
    - Density of CONES (low light sensitivity) is high in FOVEA
    - Density of rods (high light sensitivity) is high in PERIPHERY
    * *Peripheral retina is adapted for vision in dim light
  2. Degree of convergence in vertical pathway
    * Peripheral retina
    - GREATER convergence (many photoreceptors converge onto one ganglion cell)
    - INCREASED sensitivity (light summation over a greater area)
    * FOVEA
    - much less convergence (photoreceptor to ganglion cell ratio close to 1:1
    - improved spatial resolution
    - decreased sensitivity
  3. Thickness
    - retina is THINNER at the FOVEA (enhanced visual acuity due to less scattering of light)
297
Q

What is the basic phototransduction mechanism : hyperpolarizing receptor potential

A

Electrical recordings from photoreceptors reveal that;

  • Membrane potential in DARK is DEPOLARIZED
  • LIGHT causes photoreceptor to HYPERPOLARIZE (degree of hyperpolarization is proportional to brightness of light)
  • hyperpolarizing receptor potential is graded and proportional to light intensity
298
Q

In phototransduction, the unusually positive resting (unstimulated) membrane potential of the photoreceptor is caused by the presence of what?

A
  • *Presence of CNG - cyclic nucleotide gated ion channels in the photoreceptor outer segment (held open by high resting level of cytotoxic cGMP)
  • cytotoxic cGMP conc is high (high gaunylyl Cyclades activity)
  • Outer segment contains high conc of CNG channels ( Na + and Ca2+ permeable)
  • resting inward current (dark current) holds photoreceptor at depolarized membrane potential
299
Q

Different events happen with photoreceptor in the dark of in light

Identify this

  1. Cytosolic cGMP conc is high
    - high guanylyl cyclase activity
  2. Outer segment contains high concentration of CNG channels
    - Na+ and Ca2+ permeable
  3. Resting inward current (dark current) holds photoreceptor at DEPOLARIZED membrane potential
A

PHOTORECEPTOR IN DARK

  • Photoreceptors DO NOT FIRE action potentials
  • Short, axon-like process ends with conventional presynaptic terminals
  • Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open in proportion to membrane potential
  • Photoreceptors release neurotransmitter (glutamate) continuously in the dark
300
Q

Different events happen with photoreceptor in the dark of in light

Identify this

  1. Light activates phosphodiesterase (PDE)
    - PDE rapidly converts cGMP to GMP
  2. CNG channels close
  3. Membrane potential hyperpolarizes
  4. Neurotransmitter release declines in proportion to hyperpolarization
    - declines in proportion to light intensity
A

PHOTORECEPTOR IN LIGHT

301
Q
  • When is phototransduction initiated?

* what is contained in OUTER SEGMENT disks

A
  • Phototransduction is initiated when a portion is absorbed by a photopigment molecule
  • Photopigment is contained in one of the disks in the rod OUTER SEGMENT.
302
Q

Photopigment is composed of what 2 parts

  • what tunes retinal absorbance to specific region of light spectrum
  • what is aldehyde of VIT. A
A
  1. Light absorbing chromosphere: RETINA (aldehyde of VIT A)
  2. Retinal binding protein : OPSIN
    * *Opsin resembles metabotropic neurotransmitter receptor
    - contains binding “pocket” for retinal
    - retinal acts as ligand for opsin
    * *Opsin tunes retinal’s absorbance to specific region of light spectrum
303
Q

Identify the 4 steps in phototransduction

  • *what activates transducin?
  • *what does transducin stimulate ?
  • *This stimulation degrades What that causes CNG channels to close?

**what is the advantage of this steps

A
    • Absorbance of light by retinal causes conformational change (from 11-cis retinal to all trans-retinal)
    • Conformational change in retinal induces conformational change in opsin
    • *CONFORMATIONAL CHANGE IN OPSIN ACTIVATES TRANSDUCIN (G-protein)
  1. Activated transducin stimulates PDE
  2. PDE rapidly degraded cGMP
  3. CNG channels close
    * *As cGMP levels decline, the stimulus which in the dark hold the CNG channels open is removed and the channels close
    * *Makes the photoreceptor to HYPERPOLARIZE (no leak channels)

***Advantage of all this is SIGNAL AMPLIFICATION

304
Q

WHAT IS this process called

  1. Single photon of light activates one rhodopsin (photopigment) molecule
  2. One rhodopsin molecule in turn activates approx. 800 transducin molecules
  3. One transducin molecule activates only one PDE molecule
  4. One PDE molecule degrades six cGMP molecules
  5. One photon removes close to 5,000 cGMP molecules
  6. 200 CNG channels close
  7. Photoreceptor hyperpolarizes by about 1mV
A

Important advantage in phototransduction in rods (high light sensitivity) due to SIGNAL AMPLIFICATION

**single photon - rhodopsin - 800 transducin - PDE - degrade 6 cGMP - remove 5,000 cGMP - 200 channels close - HYPERPOLARIZATION

305
Q

WHAT does running curve plot

A
  • Turning curve plots threshold intensity vs frequency
  • threshold intensity = stimulus intensity required to produce a response reliably (50% of the time)
  • Receptor is most sensitive at frequency where threshold intensity is lowest

**can also plot sensitivity vs wavelength

306
Q

Under phototransduction in rods,

The absorbance of light by retinal is called?

A

BLEACHING

  • retinal not only changes conformation from cis to trans, it also changes color from purple to yellow
  • all trans retinal dissociated from the opsin, diffuses into the cytosol of the outer segment and is transported into the pigmented epithelium
  • In pigmented epithelium, retinal is converted to the 11-cis form and transported back into the outer segment where it recombined with opsin
307
Q

What happens to sensitivity of photoreceptors at low levels of illumination ?

**What concept is this? (What regulates this)

A

LIGHT ADAPTATION (phototransduction in rods)

  • *At low levels of illumination, photoreceptors are MOST SENSITIVE to light
  • *As illumination increase, light sensitivity declines
  • **Light adaptation is regulated by Ca2+ concentration in the cytoplasm of the outer segment
  • The CNG channels in the outer segment are permeable to both Na+ and Ca2+
  • LIGHT INDUCED CLOSURE OF THE CNG CHANNELS therefore DECREASES THE INTERNAL CA2+ concentration
308
Q

What is the similarity and difference of phototransduction in cones versus rods

A

Phototransduction process in cones is similar to rods

**IMPORTANT DIFFERENCES
1. spectral sensitivity of photopigment
2. Light sensitivity
- 3 diff types of cone opsin
- Each cone contains only one opsin type
+SHORT (blue) - wavelength sensitive
+INTERMEDIATE (green) - wavelength sensitive
+LONG (red) - wavelength sensitive
-Wavelength sensitivity overlaps
(Medium wavelength cone responds equally to high level of red light and low level of green light
- Response of single cone class cannot indicate light wavelength
-Wavelength is determined by comparison of output from different classes of cones
-wavelength is determined by comparison of output from diff classes of cone

309
Q

What is the difference in sensitivity and saturation in cones versus rods

A
  1. Cones are much less sensitive to light than rods
    - cones photoresponse requires >100 photons
    - rods are best suited for vision in dim light
  2. Cones response saturates at much higher light levels than rods
    - cones are best suited for vision under bright light
310
Q

Identify the problems

  1. Loss of one or more cone photopigment impairs color discrimination
  2. Loss of one cone pigment
  3. Loss of two or three cone photopigments (rare)
A
  1. DYSCHROMATOPSIA (Color Blindness)
  2. Dichromacy
    A. Loss of red or green
    - relatively common
    - sex linked (X chromosome) more common in male
    - varies with ethnic group
    B. Loss of Blue (rare)
    - chromosome 7: equal incidence in male, female
  3. MONOCHROMACY
311
Q

DESCRIBE LIGHT ADAPTATION

  1. When are photoreceptors most sensitive to light
  2. What regulates light sensitivity
  3. What other processes contribute to light adaptation
  4. What range does light adaptation expand
  5. What does output from retina signal
A
  1. Photoreceptors are most sensitive to light when LIGHT LEVEL IS LOW
    - as light intensity increases, sensitivity to light declines
  2. CYTOPLASMIC Ca2+ regulates light sensitivity
    - Ca2+ influx through CNG channels maintains light sensitivity in dim or dark conditions
    + modulates affinity of CNG channels for cGMP
    + modulates activity of guanylyl cyclase
    - closure of CNG channels during light stimulation decreases cytoplasmic Ca2+ conc, lowering light sensitivity
  3. Other processes contribute to light adaptation
    - other biochemical process not involving Ca2+
    - bleaching (conversion to all trans retinal) of retinal
    - pupillary light reflex
  4. LIGHT ADAPTATION expands range over which photoreceptors can signal a change in light level
  5. Output from retina signals a change in light intensity, NOT absolute level of light intensity
312
Q

The operating range of photoreceptors is divided into 3 types of vision. Which is which

    • Vision under low light levels (at lowest levels of illumination, only rods activated)
    • Mediated entirely by rods (cones not sensitive enough)
    • High sensitivity, low acuity
    • Bright enough to stimulate cones
    • Not bright enough to saturate rods
    • Mediately entirely by cones
    • rods are completely saturated
    • Low sensitivity, high acuity
A
  1. SCOTOPIC VISION
  2. MESOPIC VISION
  3. PHOTOPIC VISION
313
Q

We can gain insight into the processing that occurs in the retina by examine receptive field properties of each cell where?

A

Each cell in the vertical pathway :
1. Photoreceptor
2. Bipolar neuron
3. Ganglion cell
**ganglion cell firing (retinal output) in response to light stimulation is determined by interactions among:
Photoreceptors, bipolar cells and horizontal cells

**Lateral inhibitory connections of HORIZONTAL CELLS create center-surround receptive fields

314
Q

The outer plexiform layer contains synaptic contacts among what?

What change will this synopsis cause?

A
  • contains synaptic contacts among photoreceptors, horizontal cells and bipolar cells

**As a result of the synapsis, receptive field changes from a simple point of light, for photoreceptors to a circular antagonist (distinct excitatory and inhibitor zones), CENTER- SURROUND RECEPTIVE FIELD for bipolar cells

315
Q

Two classes of bipolar cells are distinguished depending on the response of the bipolar cell to light applied to the center of the receptive field

**What are they

A
  1. Center responses
    On-center bipolar cells
    Off-center bipolar cells
  2. Surround responses
    On-center bipolar cells
    Off-center bipolar cells
316
Q

Photoreceptor-bipolar cells synapses are either excitatory or inhibitory depending on what?

A
  • depending on glutamate receptor type in bipolar cell
  • *Horizontal cells
  • excited by photoreceptors
  • MAKES INHIBITORY SYNAPSES ONTO PHOTORECEPTORS
317
Q

In the receptive field properties, what are the responses of center photoreceptors and bipolar cells

A
  1. Photoreceptors HYPERPOLARIZE in response to light
    - decrease glutamate release
  2. Bipolar cells respond to decreased glutamate by;
    -Hyperpolarization
    OR
    -Depolarization
318
Q

In center responses, describe the receptive field properties for ON CENTER BIPOLAR CELLS

A
  1. Contain metabotropic glutamate receptor (mGlu6) which close a cation channel
  2. Center photoreceptor in dark:
    - photoreceptor is depolarized releasing glutamate
    - glutamate keeps cation channel closed; bipolar cell is hyperpolarized (inhibited)
  3. Center photoreceptor in light;
    - photoreceptor hyperpolarizes, glutamate release decreases
    - cation channels open, bipolar cell depolarized
    - bipolar cell is disinhibited
  4. ON-CENTER bipolar cells depolarize when receptive field center is illuminated
319
Q

What is the conductance decrease IPSP from On center bipolar cell

A
  1. Synapse between photoreceptor and on-center bipolar cell is INHIBITORY
    - bipolar cell resting membrane contains open Na+/K+ (cation) permeable leak channels
    - mGlu6 closes cation channels, removing a depolarizing influence and causing neuron to hyperpolarize
  2. Light stimulation of photoreceptor disinhibits (excites) on-center bipolar cells
320
Q

In center responses, describe the receptive field properties for OFF CENTER BIPOLAR CELLS

A
  1. Contain ionotropic glutamate
  2. Center photoreceptor in dark
    - photoreceptor is depolarized, releasing glutamate
    - ionotropic glutamate receptors are activated, keep bipolar cell depolarized
  3. Center photoreceptor in light
    - photoreceptor hyperpolarizes, glutamate release decreases
    - bipolar cell loses source of excitation, hyperpolarizes
  4. Off-center bipolar cells depolarize when receptive field center is in dark
321
Q

How is surround response different from center response

A

SURROUND response is INVERSE of center response

  1. Lateral inhibitory connections of horizontal cells create antagonistic surround
    - light in center; center photoreceptor hyperpolarizes
    - light in surround;
    + surround photoreceptors hyperpolarize
    + horizontal cells hyperpolarize
    + center photoreceptor is disinhibited and DEPOLARIZES
322
Q

WHAT IS the surround response of bipolar cells

A
  1. Center photoreceptor responds oppositely to light stimulation of the center vs the surround
    - light stimulation of center causes hyperpolarization
    - light stimulation of surround causes depolarization
  2. There fore BIPOLAR cells (which get synaptic input from the center photoreceptors must also respond oppositely)
    - ON-CENTER BIPOLAR CELLS
    + Light stimulation of center of receptive field depolarize
    + Light stimulation of the surround hyperpolarizes

-OFF CENTER BIPOLAR CELLS
+ light stimulation of center of receptive field hyperpolarizes
+ light stimulation of surround depolarizes

323
Q

What does the rod pathway include

A
  1. Rod pathway includes ONLY ON- CENTER BIPOLAR CELLS
    -rod bipolar cell synapse is inhibitory (mGluR6)
    - rood bipolar cells synapse onto amacrine cells (all type)
    - amacrine cells synapse onto on and off center cone bipolar cells
    + inhibitory synapse onto off-center cone bipolar cells
    + excitatory (electrical) synapse onto on-center cone bipolar cells
  2. Rods use cone pathways for output from retina
324
Q

What is the clinical significance of the rod pathway

A
  1. Melanoma-associated retinopathy
    - some melanoma patients lose scotopic (night) vision
    - PARANEOPLASIA: antibody against mGlu6
  2. Congenital stationary night blindness
    - loss of scotopic (night) vision
    - several gene mutations affecting on-center bipolar cells (including mGlu6)
    - Day vision less affected due to parallel (Off-center bipolar cell) pathway
325
Q

Describe the receptive field properties of GANGLION CELLS

A
  1. Each ganglion cell is driven by only one type of bipolar cell
    - synapses between bipolar and ganglion cells are excitatory
  2. On-center ganglion cells receive input from on-center bipolar cells
  3. Off-center ganglion cells receive input from off-center bipolar cells
326
Q

Describe the on and off center of ganglion cells

A

ON CENTER GANGLION

  • same receptive field and light responses as on center bipolar cells
  • increase firing when light illuminates center of receptive field (turned on by light in center)
  • Inhibited when light illuminates surround of receptive field

OFF CENTER GANGLION

  • same receptive fields and light responses as off center bipolar cells
  • inhibited when light illuminates center of receptive field (are tuned off by light in center)
  • Increase firing when light illuminates surround of receptive field
327
Q

How are ganglion cells best activated

  • what do ganglion cells respond poorly to?
A
  1. ACtivated by large RELATIVE differences in brightness between center and surround (antagonistic zones of their receptive fields)
  2. ganglion cells respond poorly to DIFFUSE light or dark (illumination)
    - center and surround cancel each other out
  3. Areas of sharp contrast (edges), are effective stimuli for ganglion cells
    - when appropriately oriented in receptive field
328
Q
  • What is crucial in determining output of ganglion cells?

- describe the figure that illustrates this?

A
  • For ganglion cells, the RATIO OF INTENSITIES and NOT the absolute intensity is critical in determining their output (rate of action potential firing)

FIGURE - show that ganglion cells respond to relative intensity differences

  1. Firing rate of on-center ganglion cell recorded in response to “test” spot of light in center of receptive field
  2. Each curve shows firing rates evoked by spots of varying brightness, against a constant level of background (surround) illumination
  3. Different curves represent different levels of background intensity from dim (-5) to bright (0)
329
Q

In summary, how does the receptive field properties of ganglion cells relate to the retina’s function in visual information processing?

**how can the same firing rate be obtained

A

**Same firing level is produced by
1. DIM TEST SPOT against a VERY DIM background (-5)
AND
2. BRIGHT TEST SPOT against a MODERATELY BRIGHT background
(The same firing rate can be obtained at any level of test spot luminance, depending on the brightness of the background)

**Ratio of light intensities (center vs surround) DETERMINES GANGLION CELL OUTPUT

**Retinal ganglion cell firing does not encode absolute intensity of light

330
Q

What are the 2 ways to classify ganglion cells

A
  1. By receptive field
    A. On-center
    B. Off-center
  2. By size
    A. M-type ganglion cells (mahnocellular, large) - 5% of ganglion cells
    B. P-type ganglion cells (parvocellular, small) - 90% of ganglion cells
    C. “NonM- nonP-type” ganglion cells
    -cannot be classified as M or P type
    -5% of ganglion cells
331
Q

Ganglion cells can be classified by receptive field and by size.

Identify the respective size types of ganglion cells

  1. 5%, large, fast, transient adaptation, no sensitivity, DETECT MOVEMENT
  2. 90%, small, not as fast, sustained adaptation, sensitive to wavelength, DETECT FORM AND FINE DETAIL
  3. Can’t be classified as either M or P type
A

TYPES OF GANGLION CELLS

  1. M-TYPE (aka Y type, alpha, parasol)
    A. Prevalence - 5%
    B. Receptive field size - large
    C. Conduction velocity - fast (due to large axons)
    D. Adaptation - transient
    E. Wavelength sensitivity - no
    F. Functional role - DETECT MOVEMENT (in visual field)
2. P-TYPE (aka X type, beta, midget)
A. Prevalence - 90% 
B. Receptive field size - small 
C. Conduction velocity - not as fast 
D. Adaptation - sustained 
E. Wavelength sensitivity - yes 
F. Functional role - DETECT FORM AND FINE DETAIL 
  1. NonM-nonP-type (aka bistratified, konicellular, K type)
332
Q

What types of ganglion cells are sensitive to differences in the wavelength of light?

What are they called? Why?

What are the 2 types of color-opponent ganglion cells

A
  1. P type and some nonM-nonP type ganglion cells
    * wavelength sensitive - response depends on color of light
  2. Most wavelength sensitive ganglion cells are COLOR OPPONENT cells
    - center and surround of receptive field are sensitive to different wavelengths
  3. 2 types of color-opponent ganglion cells
    A. Red-green (red cones vs green cones)
    B. Blue-yellow (blue cones vs red+green cones)
333
Q

Most of the wavelength sensitive cells are called COLOR OPPONENT CELLS. The color opponent ganglion cells come in 2 flavors and this 2 flavors can have various combinations

Give examples

**What is ineffective in a color opponent ganglion cell

A
  1. In red-green cells, red can either excite or inhibit (in either the center or surround of receptive field)
A. R+G- 
- red is excitatory in the center 
-green is inhibitory in the surround 
B. G-R+
- green inhibits the center 
-red excites the surround 
  • *WHITE LIGHT is ineffective
  • contains all wavelengths: excitatory and inhibitory portions of receptive field cancel out
334
Q

What type of information stream do retinal ganglion cells carry form the retina

A

CARRY PARALLEL VISUAL INFORMATION STREAMS from retina

  1. Parallel functions; the same structure performs multiple functions
  2. Some ganglion cells respond to presence of light-dark regions (boundaries, form), some respond to movement, some respond wavelength (color)
    - retina processes form, motion and color information in parallel
    - retina output is carried in parallel by ganglion cell axons (optic nerve)
  3. Visual information is relayed in parallel through central visual pathways to the primary visual area of cerebral cortex