Exam 1; Tissue, Skeleton, and Joints (PP) Flashcards
This covers the PowerPoint given by the professor. Includes way too much information. Check out the exam 1 study guide for actual information needed for the exam.
From smallest to largest, list the levels of human complexity.
Atoms, molecules, organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, and organisms.
What is gross anatomy?
This is large-scale structures visible to the naked eye.
What is surface anatomy?
This is structures that can be seen without cutting as in a routine patient examination.
What is radiological anatomy?
This is the use of imaging methods to view the internal anatomy of a living person
What is systemic anatomy?
The study of one organ system at a time.
What is regional anatomy?
The study of all organs in a given body region such as the head or thorax.
What is comparative anatomy?
The study of more than one species in order to understand common themes and evolutionary trends in body structure.
What is the type of microscopic anatomy called histology?
Histology is the microscopic study of the tissues.
Histopathology is the examination of tissues for signs of disease.
What is the type of microscopic anatomy called cytology?
This is the study at a cellular level involving structure and function of individual cells. Ultrastructure uses an electron microscope to study at cellular and molecular level.
What are the different methods of study for anatomy?
Inspection
Palpation
Auscultation
Percussion
Dissection
Medical Imagining
What is auscultation?
This is listening to the body sounds/ normal sounds.
What is percussion?
This is listening to sounds reverberating from a tap on the surface.
What are the four types of medical imaging?
Radiography, computed tomography (CT scan), sonography (ultrasounds), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and positron emission tomography (PET scan).
What is a CT scan?
Cross-section x-rays revealing three-dimensional soft tissue anatomy.
What is an MRI?
MRI uses magnetic fields to visualize soft tissue. Good for images of brain and spinal cord.
What is a PET scan?
Used to assess the metabolic status of tissues. It produces color images using gamma ray detection and showing which area is using the greatest amount of glucose.
What is sonography (ultrasound)?
Sonar technology reflecting ultrasound waves used in obstetrics to assess fetal age and position.
What are the latin terms for anatomical arrangments?
Situs solitus- normal arrangment
Situs inversus- reversed position of organs
Situs perversus- one organ is misplaced.
What are tissues?
These are groups of cells with similar structure and function. Includes the intracellular spaces between the cells.
What are organs?
Organs are made up of two or more tissue types and perform one or more functions.
What is considered anatomical position?
Standing erect with flat feet, arms at sides with palms, face, and eyes forward. Forearms are supinated with palms facing forward and upward. (opposite is pronated)
All anatomical descriptions are expressed in relation to what?
Anatomical position.
What are the two terms for the front of the body?
Ventral and Anterior
Ex: the heart is placed ventrally in the body.
What are the two terms for the back of the body?
Dorsal and Posterior
Ex: the kidneys are placed dorsally in the body.
What is the term in anatomy referring to ‘above’?
Superior
Ex: The heart is superior to the diaphragm.
What is the term in anatomy referring to ‘below’?
Inferior
Ex: The diaphragm is inferior to the lungs.
What term refers to the region along the sagittal plane or central axis of the body?
Medial
Ex: The heart is medial to the lungs
What term refers to the region that is away from the sagittal plane/ central body axis?
Lateral
Ex: The clavicles are lateral to the sternum
What term refers to the part of the anatomy that is closer to the point of connection?
Proximal
What term refers to the part of the anatomy that is further away from the point of connection?
Distal
What term refers to the center of the body?
Central
Ex: The brain and spinal cord make up the central nervous system
What term refers to the region that is away from the center of the body?
Peripheal
What term refers to things close to the surface of the body?
Superficial
What term refers to things far from the surface of the body?
Deep
What does the term ipsilateral mean?
This refers to body parts being on the same side of the body, like the right arm and right leg.
What does the term contralateral mean?
Refers to body parts on opposite sides of the body.
What do the terms supine and prone refer to?
Supine means to face up. Prone means to face down.
What are the three anatomical planes?
Sagittal, Frontal, and Transverse
What is the sagittal anatomical plane?
This is split right/left portions of the body.
What is the frontal anatomical plane?
This is anterior/posterior portions of the body.
What is the transverse anatomical plane?
This is superior/inferior portions of the body.
What are the four major body quadrants?
Right upper and lower quadrant. Left upper and lower quadrant.
What are the nine body regions within the four body quadrants?
The far left and right regions from top to bottom include the hypochondriac, lateral, and inguinal regions.
The middle three regions include epigastric, umbilical, and hypogastric regions.
What houses the brain?
Cranial cavity. Lined by meninges
What houses the spinal cord?
Vertebral canal. Lined by meninges.
The body wall encloses several ____________, each lined by a ______ and contain internal organs called _________.
Body cavities; membrane; viscera
What two cavities are in the thoracic cavity?
Pleural and pericardial cavity
What two cavities are in the abdominopelvic cavity?
Abdominal and pelvic cavity
Describe organs and main functions of the integumentary system.
Skin, hair, nails, cutaneous glands
Functions in protection, water retention, thermoregulation
Describe organs and main functions of the skeletal system.
Bones, cartilage, ligaments
Functions in support, movement, protective enclosure of viscera (organs in body compartment), mineral storage
Describe the organs and main functions of the muscular system.
Skeletal muscles
Functions in movement, stability, communication, heat production
Describe the organs and main functions of the lymphatic system.
Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, thymus, spleen, tonsils
Recovery of excess tissue fluid, detection of pathogens, immune cell production, defence against disease
Describe the organs and main functions of the respiratory system.
Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs
Functions in the absorption of oxygen, the release of carbon dioxide, acid-base balance, speech
Describe organs and main functions of the digestive system.
Teeth, tongue, salivary glands, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, gallbladder, pancreas
Functions in nutrient breakdown and absorption. Liver metabolizes carbs, proteins, and fats and functions in drug metabolism and blood cleaning
Describe organs and main functions of the nervous system.
Brain, spinal cord, nerves, ganglia
Functions in rapid internal communication, coordination, and motor control and sensation.
Describe the organs and main functions of the endocrine system.
Pituitary gland, pineal gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, thymus, adrenal glands, pancreas, testes, and ovaries
Functions in hormone production and internal communication and coordination.
Describe organs and main functions of the circulatory system.
Heart and blood vessels
Functions in the distribution of nutrients and all other things.
Describe the organs and main functions of the urinary system.
Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra
Functions in elimination of waste, regulation of blood volume and pressure, red blood cell formation stimulation
Which of the following techniques requires an injection of radioisotopes into a patient’s bloodstream?
PET scan
What are the three types of microscopy used in the advancements in cytology?
Light microscope, Transmission electron microscope, and Scanning electron microscope
What is a light microscope?
This type of microscope can magnify up to 1,200 times with good resolution. It is the most often used.
What is a transmission electron microscope (TEM)?
Magnifies objects by up to 600,000 times through the use of beams of electrons.
What is a scanning electron microscope (SEM)?
Produces a dramatic 3-dimensional image to give a sense of texture and landscape. Uses a beam of electrons instead of light.
What is the fluid mosaic model?
Describes the structure of the cellular plasma membrane as mosaic components, including phospholipids, cholesterol, proteins, and carbohydrates that give the membrane its fluid-like characteristics.
What are the three different identifying cellular terminologies for surfaces?
Basal surface- bottom
Apical surface- top
Lateral surface- side
Describe the composition and features of the phospholipid bilayer.
The phospholipid bilayer separates the cytoplasm of the cell from the extracellular fluid (ECF) in the body. It is made of two layers of phospholipids, which include a hydrophilic head that faces watery areas and two hydrophobic tails that are inside (like a sandwich effect). This type of arrangement allows fat-soluble molecules to pass easily through the membrane while water-soluble molecules are restricted.
What are the main components of the phospholipid bilayer?
75% phospholipids
20% cholesterol- cholesterol helps maintain the integrity, flexibility, and strength of membrane.
5% glycoproteins- enable the membrane to heal itself.
What are the 6 different types of membrane proteins?
Receptors, enzymes, ion channels, gated ion channels, cell-identity markers, and cell-adhesion molecules (CAMs).
What are the general characteristics of glycoproteins in the plasma membrane?
They are typically integral/transmembrane proteins that penetrate from one side of the plasma membrane to the other.
Where are peripheral proteins located in the plasma membrane?
Peripheral proteins are located inside or outside the cell but do not penetrate the plasma membrane.
How does the membrane transportation method of filtration work?
Filtration is when a physical force drives water and small solutes through a membrane like the wall of a blood capillary. This is crucial in the transfer of substances from the bloodstream through capillary walls and to the tissues.
What is the method of membrane transportation called simple diffusion?
Simple diffusion is the process in which molecules move down their concentration gradient from the point of high to low concentration. These substances can diffuse through a plasma membrane if they are small or lipophilic.
What is the method of membrane transportation called osmosis?
Osmosis is the process of water moving from high water concentration to low water concentration.
What is the difference between simple diffusion and osmosis?
Simple diffusion is about solutes going from higher to lower concentrations, while osmosis is only concerned with water flow.
What is the type of membrane transportation called facilitated diffusion?
Facilitated diffusion allows ions and water molecules to cross the cell membrane. Carrier proteins will ferry a molecule from one membrane side to another down the concentration gradient. The process uses no energy.
Specifically, these proteins are for one type of molecule. Once it binds, the protein will change shape and facilitate the movement of the molecule down its concentration gradient.
What is the type of membrane transportation called active transport?
This process requires ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient. Specifically, the solute will bind to the site on transport protein; the protein breaks the ATP to ADP by losing a phosphate. Phosphate binds to protein, inducing a shape change. The protein then releases solute on the other side. (also drop phosphate group).
What is the main example of an active transport protein?
The sodium-potassium pump (Na+/K+).
What are the specifics of the sodium-potassium exchange pump?
3 Sodium ions enter carrier protein from inside the cell. ATP binds and is turned to ADP, and the phosphate causes a conformation change in carrier protein shape. This change spits out the 3 Na+ ions (shape has low affinity for sodium), and 2 potassium ions enter the carrier protein (shape has high affinity for K+). When the original phosphate is released, the shape returns to the original, and the K+ ions are released into the cell.
What is the type of membrane transportation called vesicular transport?
Vesicular transport is the energy-dependent process of endocytosis or exocytosis. The type of endocytosis is phagocytosis, where the cell uses its cell membrane to engulf something it will eat.
What are the differences between microvilli and cilia?
Microvilli are small outcroppings that increase surface area for nutrient absorption. Cilia are additional hairlike projections that are on the surface of epithelial cells.
What is the glycocalyx?
This is a spongy carbohydrate coating on every cell surface that is formed by the carbohydrate components of glycolipids and glycoproteins. It functions in cell identification and adhesion.
What are the 6 different types of cellular membrane transportation?
Filtration, simple diffusion, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, active diffusion, and vesicular transport.
What are the four types of cell junctions?
Gap junctions, tight junctions, hemidesmosomes, and desmosomes.
Describe the appearance and function of tight junctions.
Tight junctions form a zipperlike seal that encircles a cell and joints it tightly to a neighbouring cell. They prevent the nonselective transport of materials through epithelium. Used as a sealant!
Describe the appearance and function of gap junctions.
Gap junctions are pores surrounded by a ringlike connexin which is a circle of six membrane proteins. Solutes can pass directly from cell to cell through gap junctions. Used for communication!
Describe the appearance and function of desmosomes.
Desmosomes are protein patches that physically link one cell to another, enabling tissues to resist stress.
Describe the appearance and function of hemidesmosomes.
These are like half of a desmosomes. They bind epithelial cells to an underlying basement membrane.
What are the four main things included in the interior of a cell?
Cytosol- fluid of the cell
Cytoskeleton- structural support
Organelles- functioning structures
Inclusions- non-essential structures in the cell
What is the cytoskeleton made of?
Composed of the protein microfilaments, intermediate microfilaments, and microtubules. Together they form a terminal web on the inner surface of the plasma membrane.
Intermediate filaments are stiffer and give the cell its shape, resist stress, and contribute to cellular junctions.
Microtubules are hollow cylinders composed of the protein tubulin. They hold organelles in place, form bundles to maintain cell shape, guide the movement of organelle, mitotic spindles, and more.
What are the nine main organelles in a cell?
Nucleus, rough ER, smooth ER, ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, peroxisomes, mitochondria, proteasomes, and centrioles.
Describe the characteristics of the nucleus.
The nucleus contains the DNA of the cell! It is filled with nucleoplasma. The DNA is wound up in the form of chromosomes. Ribosomes are produced in the nucleus and pass through the nuclear pores to enter the cytosol.
Describe the characteristics of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
The ER, as a whole, is a system of interconnected channels called cisternae. Smooth ER has more tubular cisternae and no ribosomes. The smooth ER produces triglycerides, cholesterol and steroid hormones, detoxifies drugs, and stores calcium in skeletal muscle.
Describe the characteristics of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
The rough ER have flat cisternae and is studded with ribosomes. Rough ER is the major site of protein synthesis. This is also where secretory proteins are synthesized.
What are the ribosomes on the rough ER?
Ribosomes are located in the cytosol, rough ER, nuclear envelope, nucleoli, and mitochondria. They are protein-synthesizing granules of RNA and enzymes that read genetic messages, assemble amino acids and synthesise proteins.
Describe the characteristics of the Golgi complex.
The Golgi is composed of cisternae like the ER. It puts the finishing touches on newly synthesized proteins and packages them up to be exported from the cell. Sometimes carbohydrate chains are attached to proteins to form glycoproteins by Golgi.
Describe the function of proteasomes.
These are cylindrical organelles that break down proteins. Degrades around 80% of old proteins in cells.
Describe the functions of lysosomes.
Lysosomes are membrane-enclosed packets of digestive (hydrolytic) enzymes that break down macromolecules, expired organelles, and foreign matter and assist in apoptosis.
Describe the function of peroxisomes.
Similar to lysosomes but function in detoxifying substances like alcohol, drugs, and free radicals. They can also break down fatty acids into 2-carbon molecules that can enter metabolic pathways, eventually producing ATP. Peroxisomes produce hydrogen peroxide as a by-product. Very abundant in the kidney and liver, which makes sense as those are key organs in filtration and metabolism.
Describe the functions of mitochondria.
The powerhouse of the cell is responsible for the production of ATP. It has its own DNA. The inner membrane has cristae folds, allowing for more surface area for enzymes associated with ATP production.
Describe the function of centrioles.
Centrioles are short cylindrical arrays of nine triplets of microtubules. There are typically two centrioles in a clear patch of cytoplasm called the centrosome. They play a role in cell division.
What are inclusions in a cell?
These are non-essential things to a cell’s survival. It stores cellular products like pigments, fat droplets, and glycogen granules. Also stores foreign bodies like dust, viruses, and bacteria.
What is the goal of the cell cycle?
The cell cycle aims to prepare a specific cell for division.
What are the four stages of the cell cycle?
G1, S, G2, and M phase
The first gap phase, synthesis phase, and second gap phase all represent what in the cell cycle?
They represent interphase.
What occurs during the cell cycle’s G1 (first gap) phase?
This is when the cell is performing its normal metabolic functions but is also growing.
What occurs during the cell cycle’s S (synthesis) phase?
This is when DNA is replicated.
What occurs during the cell cycle’s G2 (second gap) phase?
More growth in the cell and preparation for mitosis. DNA proofreading is done here too.
What is the M (Mitotic) phase of the cell cycle?
This is when the cell is actually replicating the nucleus, and DNA is pulled apart. The mitotic phase has 4 separate parts; prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Cytokinesis can be thrown in there as well.
What are the 4/5 parts of mitosis?
Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. (PMAT).
What happens during prophase?
DNA condenses to chromosomes and become shorter and thicker. Each identical copy of single chromosome is called sister chromatid. Nuclear envelope disolves. Spindle fibers form as microtubles grow out of centrioles and move to opposite poles of the cell.
What happens during metaphase?
Chromosomes line equator of cell. Microtubules attach to sister chromatids.
What happens during anaphase?
This begins when the sister chromatids of the chromosomes begin to separate and the centromere that holds the two sisters together is divided. They are then pulled away from center with spindle fibers.
What happens during telophase?
The two groups of chromosomes reach opposite ends of the cell. New nuclear envelope is forming and chromosomes unwind. Spindle fibers start to disintegrate.
What happens during cytokinesis?
Division of cytoplasm and organelles. After this is complete, there are two genetically identical cells.
What is histology?
Histology is the study of tissues and how they are arranged in organs.
What are the four primary tissue classes?
Epithelial, connective, nervous, and muscular.
Describe the epithelial tissue class.
Epithelial tissue comprises layers of closely spaced cells that cover organ surfaces or form glands; and serve for protection, secretion, and absorption.
Has one or more layers, very closely adhered cells, and is avascular.
Main locations: epidermis inner lining of GIT and other glands. Found anywhere that the external environment may extend into the body
Describe the connective tissue class.
Connective tissue has more matrix than cell volume, used to support, bind, and protect organs.
Main Locations: tendons, ligaments, cartilage, bone, blood, lymph
Describe the nervous tissue class.
Nervous tissue contains excitable cells specialized for rapid transmission of information to other cells.
Main locations: brain, spinal cord, and nerves
Describe the muscular tissue class.
Muscular tissue is comprised of elongated, excitable cells specialized for contraction.
Main locations: skeletal muscles, cardiac muscle, walls of smooth muscle.
Describe the two main types of epithelial tissue.
A. Simple epithelium- occurs where every cell touches the basement membrane. Forms every cell on the basement membrane
B. Stratified epithelium- occurs when some cells lie on top of others. Named by the top layer.
Pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue has cells that all attach to the basement membrane but may appear layered as not all cells reach the free surface.
What are the three types of epithelial cell shapes?
Squamous- scale-shaped cells
Cubodial- cube-shaped cells
Columnar- elongated cube-shaped cells
Describe simple squamous epithelial tissue.
Simple squamous epithelium is a single layer of scaly cells. These cells are close together, easily damaged, and located in the serosae of the abdominal viscera (secretes serous fluid), capillaries, and alveoli of the lungs (where diffusion occurs). Helps to minimize the barrier to the diffusion of gases and fluids.
Describe simple cuboidal epithelial tissue.
Simple cuboidal epithelial tissue is a single layer of cube-shaped cells. Involved in absorption, secretion, and movement of mucus in the airway. Located in kidney tubules, gland ducts, bronchioles, liver, and thyroid gland.
Describe simple columnar epithelial tissue.
Simple columnar epithelial tissue is a single layer of elongated cube cells (tall narrow cells). The surface possesses many microvilli and contains mucous-secreting goblet cells. Functions in absorption and secretion. Found in the inner lining of the uterus, stomach, and intestines.
Describe pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue.
Pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue appears to have several layers but is actually one in which cell nuclei are at different levels. All cells are anchored to the basement membrane, but not all reach the free surface. Cells are often ciliated. Functions in secreting and propelling mucus in the respiratory tract. Often have goblet cells secreting mucus too.
Describe stratified squamous keratinized epithelial tissue.
Stratified squamous epithelial tissue has many layers of cells ranging from cuboidal or columnar near the basement membrane to squamous cells at the free surface. Cell division occurs in lower layers and pushes outward as outer layers are lost in high wear and tear areas like the epidermis, mouth, anus, and esophagus. Specifically, keratinized stratified squamous has a thick layer of dead cells (no nuclei) packed with keratin on the surface, making it drier and tougher.
Describe stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelial tissue.
Stratified squamous tissue comprises many layers of cells ranging from cuboidal or columnar near the basement membrane to squamous at the free surface. Non-keratinized stratified squamous has living cells all the way to the surface and are located in the esophagus and vagina.
Describe stratified cuboidal epithelial tissue.
Stratified cuboidal epithelial tissue consists of two or more layers of cuboidal cells or cuboidal cells resting on top of squamous basal cells. Located in sweat gland ducts, seminiferous tubules, and follicles of ovaries.
Describe transitional epithelial tissue.
Transitional epithelial tissue consists of 5 to 6 cell layers with flattened or dome surface cells depending on the distention of the organ. The basal cells are typically cuboidal. Located in the urinary tract due to liquid distention.
Describe the type of loose CT called areolar CT.
Areolar CT is a random array of collagenous and elastic fibers mixed with fibroblasts and other ground substances. It underlies most epithelial tissue and fills space between adjacent organs like the trachea and esophagus. Loosely binds organs together, allowing immune defense, nerves, and blood vessels to reach other tissues.
Describe the type of loose CT called reticular CT.
Reticular CT consists of a loose web of reticular fibers infiltrated with lymphocytes and other cells. It forms the framework of lymph nodes, speel, liver, thymus, and bone marrow.
Describe dense regular CT.
Dense regular CT has a mostly protein matrix. They have less ground substance and more closely packed parallel collagen fibers with fibroblasts squeezed between them. Found in tendons and ligaments and is able to resist stress and tearing.
Describe dense irregular CT.
Dense irregular CT consists of seemingly randomly arranged but densely packed collagen fibers. Dense irregular CT forms most dermis of the skin. It surrounds nerves, muscles, bones, and cartilage. Also forms protective capsules around organs like the liver and spleen.
Describe adipose tissue as a CT.
Adipose tissue stores energy and is protective. Adipocytes are the cells that store fat droplets. It is under the skin and between organs.
What are the main function units and characteristics of cartilage?
Chondroblasts- These are the cells within the cartilage that secrete the cartilage matrix.
Chondrocytes- cartilage cells in the lacunae
Lacunae- small cavity surrounding the chondrocytes
Describe hyaline cartilage.
Matrix of fine collagen fibers not visible. Located at the end of ribs, where bones meet joints, fetal skeleton, and trachea.
Describe elastic cartilage.
Matrix of collagen and elastic fibers. Found in the outer ear, epiglottis, and auditory tube.
Describe fibrocartilage.
Parallel fibers of collagen with chondrocytes and lacunae dispersed throughout. Found in the spine and where the left and right pubic bones meet.
What are important portions of bone mentioned in the recording?
Bone can be spongy or compact. It is dense calcified tissue with no space. The structural unit is known as the osteon. Osteon consists of osteocytes in lacunae embedded in a matrix of concentric circles. Osteon has a central canal in the center for blood vessels and nerves.
Describe the characteristics of blood as a CT.
Blood consists of a fluid matrix of plasma, cells, and cell fragments (formed elements) which include RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.
Describe nervous tissue.
Nervous tissue is specialized for rapid communication. Includes brain, spinal cord, neurons, and neuroglia.
Describe skeletal muscle tissue.
Skeletal muscle consists of elongated, striated, multinucleated cells called muscle fibers. Most skeletal muscle is attached to bones and moves joints when it contracts. Under voluntary control.
Describe cardiac muscle.
Cardiac muscle consists of shorter cells called cardiocytes with a single nucleus, striations, and intercalated discs where cells meet end to end. Involuntary control and is only in the heart.
What are the three different types of secretion seen in exocrine glands?
Merocrine glands- secrete their products by exocytosis. Includes tear glands, pancreas, and gastric glands.
Holocrine glands- entire cells disintegrate and become the secretion. Includes oil-producing glands of scalp and eyelid
Apocrine glands- merocrine in the mode of secretion but distinctive histological appearance. Seen in mammary and axillary glands.
Describe the basic flow of keratinocytes from the stratum basale (bottom of epidermis) to stratum corneum.
- Keratinocytes originate by mitosis of stem cells in stratum basale and push the older keratinocytes upward.
- Those keratinocytes flatten and produce a membrane-coating vesicle and cytoskeletal filaments that migrate upwards
- In the stratum granulosum, the cytoskeleton filaments are transformed to keratin, and the membrane-coating vesicles release lipids that help to render the cells water-resistant. Cells then undergo apoptosis.
- In stratum corneum, dead keratinocytes become compacted into the stratum corneum.
- 30-40 days after keratinocyte mitotic birth, it will flake off the epidermal surface. This process is called exfoliation.
What are the strata layers in the epidermis from bottom to top?
- Stratum basale
- Stratum spinosum
- Stratum granulosum
- Stratum lucidum (only in thick skin)
- Stratum corneum
(BSGC- bullshit groupchat)
Describe the dermis.
The dermis is CT with lots of blood vessels, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve endings. There are 2 zones; papillary layer and reticular layer. Around 0.2 to 4mm thick. Composed mainly of collagen but includes elastic and reticular fibers, fibroblasts, and more.
Describe the papillary layer of the dermis.
Composed of areolar tissue and forms the dermal papillae. This thin layer allows for mobile leukocytes to provide defense.
Describe main cell types in the different layers of the epidermis.
Describe main cell types in the different layers of dermis (includes hypodermis).
Describe the main functions of different locations of hair.
What are the three portions of the hair follicle and hair?
- Bulb- Deep within hair follicle where hair originates in the dermis. Dermal papilla of vascular CT gives hair the nourishment it needs. The hair matrix is above papilla and is site of hair mitosis.
- Root- remainder of hair within the hair follicle. Dead tissue at this point
- Shaft- Portion of the hair above the skin surface. Dead tissue still.
What are the inner three layers of an actual hair?
- Medulla- most inner layer with loosely arranged cells with air spaces
- Cortex- the bulk of hair made of keratinized cells. Several cells thick.
- Cuticle- outer layer with overlapping scaly cells
Describe the hair lifecycle.
- Early Anagen- growing stage lasting 6-8 years. Hair matrix cells multiply and keratinize causing hair to grow upward.
- Mature Anagen
- Catagen- Degenerative phase of hair shrinking lasting. 2-3 weeks.
- Telogen- Resting phase lasting 1-3 months. Hair typically falls out during catagen or telogen stage.
Hair lifespan is 6-8 years and can grow 10-18 cm/year.
Describe different parts of the nail.
The nail plate has a free edge (top white part), nail body (actual tan nail), and nail root (includes nail fold and groove which is raised skin right next to nail).
The skin underlying the nail is called the nail bed and is made of epidermal tissue called hyponychium.
The nail matrix is at the very bottom under the skin. This is a growth one composed of epidermal stratum basale.
How do merocrine glands release their contents?
These glands release content via exocytosis and the contraction of the myoepithelial cells around the base of the follicle which squeezes secretion to surface. Majority of sweat glands are merocrine glands. Merocrine sweat glands produce perspiration to cool the body. Secretions are water based and other waster products found in urine.
How do apocrine glands release their contents?
These glands also release via exocytosis and become active at puberty. Apocrine sweat glands are in the groin, anal region, areola, beards, and axilla. Secretions are associated with sex pheromones.
How do sebaceous glands release their contents?
Sebaceous glands are holocrine glands meaning their entire cell breaks down to form the secretion. These glands produce oily secretions called sebum. Sebum prevents hair from becoming brittle.
Describe prenatal development of the epidermis and dermis.
- The epidermis starts as surface ectoderm, and the dermis starts as mesoderm. Occurs at 2 weeks.
- The epidermis becomes two layers: periderm and basal layer. The dermis becomes mesenchyme. Occurs at 4 weeks.
- By week 6, blood vessels are formed in the dermis.
- The intermediate layer of the epidermis grows between the periderm and basal layer. This new layer produces keratinocytes. The dermis developed its fibrous connective tissue. Occurs at week 11.
- All layers of the epidermis are completed. Dermal papillae are done by week 12.
Describe the prenatal development of hair.
- By month 2, eyebrows, eyelids, upper lip, and chin have hair follicles
- By month 4, hair follicles develop elsewhere
- At birth around 5 million hair follicles develop
No more hair follicle development till after birth.
What are the 4 groups of bone classification?
Flat, Long, Short, and Irregular
What are flat bones?
Flat bones are thin and often curved. Examples include ribs, scapula, and sternum.
What are long bones?
Long bones are rigid levers for movement. Examples include the humerus, ulna, radius, and femur.
What are short bones?
Short bones are bones that glide within joints. These include carpals of the wrist, and talus.
What are irregular bones?
Irregular bones are complex shapes. Examples include the vertebrae and sphenoid bone.
What are the 3 important sections within long bone?
The diaphysis, the proximal epiphysis and distal epiphysis.
The diaphysis contains compact bone tissue surrounded by the periosteum and filled with yellow marrow. The epiphysis’s are spongy bone covered in articular (type of hyaline) cartilage. Filled with red bone marrow where RBC, WBC, and TBC are made.
How do flat bones have their dense and spongy bone tissue arranged?
Flat bones arrange like a sandwich. Two layers of dense bone cover up a layer of spongy bone.
In the skull, the spongy bone layer is called the diploe!
Describe the location of osteocytes?
Osteocytes are bone found within the lacunae and surrounded by built bone matrix.
What is the basic structural unit of compact bone?
Osteon
Describe the osteon.
The osteon is a matrix. It is arranged in concentric lamellae surrounding a central canal.
What is spongy bone made of?
Spongy bone is made of thin trabeculae and spicules of osseous tissue (CT tissue). The spaces between trabeculae are filled with bone marrow. Trabeculae are thin plates of bone and spicules are rods and spines of bone.
Describe intramembranous ossification.
Bones like skull and sternum develop like a fibrous sheet of dermal tissue.
Describe endochondral ossification.
Bones developing from hyaline cartilage.
Where do bones grow from?
The epiphyseal plate made of hyaline cartilage.
What are the stages of bone healing?
- Hematoma formation
- Soft callus formation
- Hard callus formation- osteoblasts turn soft into hard callus of spongy bone
- Bone remodeling- osteoblasts convert spongy bone to compact bone.
The skeleton is divided into what two main regions? What is included in those regions?
Axial- central supporting axis includes skull, hyoid bone, vertebral column, and thoracic cage.
Appendicular- upper and lower limbs, pectoral and pelvic girdle
The skull is composed of the cranium and facial skeleton. How many bones make up the cranium?
8 Bones!
1 frontal bone
2 parietal bones
2 temporal bones
1 sphenoid bone
1 ethmoid bone
1 occipital bone
Name and locate the 8 bones of the cranium?
What is the cranial fossae?
This is how the bones of the floor of the skull create three step-like depressions (fossae).
What are important landmarks on the temporal bone of the cranium?
Mastoid process
Styloid process
Zygomatic process- extension of the temporal bone
External acoustic meatus- bony passageway to the eardrum
What are some major landmarks on the ethmoid bone found in the cranium?
The cristae galli- the attachment for falx cerebri.
Cribriform plate- perforated to allow olfactory axons to pass up to brain from nasal cavity
What is a major landmark on the frontal bone in the cranium?
The frontal air sinus
What are the major landmarks on the sphenoid bone in the cranium?
Sphenoidal air sinus
Hypophyseal fossa- pituitary gland sits here
What are the 14 bones of the facial skeleton?
2 maxilla bones
2 zygomatic bones
2 palatine bones
2 lacrimal bones
2 nasal bones
2 inferior nasal conchae
1 mandible
1 vomer
Describe the maxilla bones.
The maxilla is the upper jaw. It fuses at the midline right under nose.
Describe the palatine bones.
These are horizontal plates that form the posterior 1/3 of the hard palate and a perpendicular plate that forms part of the wall of the orbit and nasal cavity.
Describe the lacrimal bones.
This bone is at the medial wall of each eye orbit. It is the smallest bone of the whole skull!
Describe the vomer bone of the facial bones.
This bone has no muscle attachment.
Be able to label the different landmarks on the mandible bone.
Mental foramen- bottom hole
Mandibular foramen- upper hole
Mental protuberance- chin
What are the two bones associated with the skull but not actually part of it?
Auditory ossicles- bones of the middle ear
Hyoid- bone located between chin and larynx. The larynx is suspended from this bone.
What are the five different sections of the vertebral column as birth? How many vertebrae are in each?
Cervical- 7 vertebrae
Thoracic- 12
Lumbar- 5
Sacral- 5 (turns into sacrum)
Coccygeal- 4 ( turns into coccyx/ tail bone)
How does the shape of the vertebral column change from birth to adult?
A birth, the spine is C shaped with curves occurring at thoracic and pelvic section.
By age 3, the spine is S shaped with curvature at thoracic, lumbar, and pelvic.
Describe the general structure of a vertebrae.
Body.
Vertebral foramen- opening that contains spinal cord
Vertebral arch- includes pedicle and lamina
Spinous process
Transverse process
Superior and inferior articular processes
What is the structure an intervertebral disc?
Inner portion is called nucleus pulposus. Has a gelatinous consistency
Outer portion is anulus fibrosus made of fibrocartilage.
Describe the atlas and axis of the cervical vertebrae.
The atlas is vertebrae C1 that lays flat and supports the skull. The axis is C2 and provides a dens which allows head to rotate.
Describe the thoracic vertebrae.
12 total! Has costal facets for the 12 pairs of ribs to be attached Spinous processes are pointed and angle down. Larger than cervical vertebrae.
Describe the lumbar vertebrae.
5 total! Thick and stout bodies. Blunt and squarish spinous processes. Largest of all the vertebrae. Articular processes face laterally and medially.
What is the sacrum?
This is 5 vertebrae that fuse together during young adulthood. It articulates with the pelvic bones and forms posterior wall of pelvic cavity.
Describe the ribs.
12 pairs of ribs. All are attached to the thoracic vertebrae. Ribs 1-7 are called true ribs because they have their own cartilage attached to sternum. Ribs 8 to 12 are called false ribs because they lack independent connection to the sternum.
