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Biology 110 > Exam 1 Test Questions > Flashcards

Exam 1 Test Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

van der Waals bonding
A. only works between two electronegative atoms
B. includes both an attractive and a repulsive component
C. provides for a well with a net attraction that keeps atoms near a most favorable distance apart
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

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2
Q

The hydroxyl (OH) and carbonyl (C=O) functional groups contain only C, O and H atoms. Which of the following statement(s) about them is (are) true?
A. Hydroxyl and carbonyl are both polar groups
B. Hydroxyl and carbonyl are both nonpolar groups
C. Molecules with hydroxyl and carbonyl groups will readily dissolve in nonpolar hexane
D. A and C
E. B and C

A

A. Hydroxyl and carbonyl are both polar groups

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3
Q 
A covalent bond between C and O
A.	will be nonpolar
B.	will be polar
C.	is stronger than the van der Waals attraction between two carbon atoms
D.	A and C
E.	B and C
A

E. B and C

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4
Q 
Chlorine has 2 electrons in the 1s orbital, 2 electrons in the 2s orbital, 6 electrons in the 2p orbitals, 2 electrons in the 3s orbital, and 5 electrons in the 3p orbitals.  Chlorine has \_\_\_ electron(s) in its outer shell.  It can be involved in either ionic or covalent bonding.  When chlorine makes covalent bonds, it makes \_\_\_\_ covalent bond(s).  When chlorine is an ion, its charge is \_\_\_\_.
A.	7 and 2 and +1
B.	7 and 1 and -1
C.	6 and 2 and -1
D.	5 and 1 and +1
E.	5 and 1 and -1
A

B. 7 and 1 and -1

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5
Q

Which of the following statements about the ions in a crystal of sodium chloride (NaCl) is NOT true?
A. they form a repeated pattern in a crystalline solid
B. they’re held together by electrostatic attraction between sodium and chloride ions
C. they attract each other less strongly in the presence of water
D. in the presence of water they separate into small clusters of a few positive sodium ions surrounded by small clusters of a few negative chloride ions
E. all of the above are true

A

D. in the presence of water they separate into small clusters of a few positive sodium ions surrounded by small clusters of a few negative chloride ions

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6
Q

A proton is in the nucleus of a positive ion of the hydrogen atom of isotope 1H (atomic number = 1). This proton
A. is accompanied by one neutron in this positive ion of isotope 1H
B. is the same as a proton in a helium atom of isotope 4He (atomic number = 2)
C. is made up of one up quark and one down quark
D. is accompanied by an electron in the 1s orbital in this positive ion
E. is a lepton

A

B. is the same as a proton in a helium atom of isotope 4He (atomic number = 2)

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7
Q

Which of the following is true about the L=2 energy level?
A. It is higher energy than the M=3 energy shell
B. It is filled while going down the second column of the periodic table
C. it determines the chemical reactivity of elements in the second row of the periodic table
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

C. it determines the chemical reactivity of elements in the second row of the periodic table

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8
Q

p orbitals are being filled with electrons
A. on the left side of the periodic table
B. on the right side of the periodic table
C. in the middle of the periodic table
D. in atoms that form positive ions
E. in the lanthanide and actinide series

A

B. on the right side of the periodic table

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9
Q

An atom with seven outer shell electrons
A. is located in the next to the last column on the right of the periodic table
B. readily gains an electron to become a negative ion
C. readily loses an electron to become a positive ion
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

D. A and B

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10
Q

Electron orbitals
A. can contain up to 2 electrons
B. can contain up to 8 electrons
C. are oddly shaped paths that an electron moves around the nucleus of the atom
D. consist of several electron energy levels (shells)
E. are always the same shape

A

A. can contain up to 2 electrons

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11
Q

Radioactive isotopes are useful as tracers in biology and medicine because
A. they release easily detected energy when they decay
B. the differences in their atomic number versus stable isotopes of the same element makes them easy to detect
C. they are chemically similar to stable isotopes of the same element
D. A and C
E. B and C

A

D. A and C

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12
Q

There are two natural isotopes of the element sodium (atomic number 11). The sodium isotope of mass 22 (22Na) is rare and unstable, while the sodium isotope of mass 23 (23Na) is common and stable. Which of the following statements describe 22Na and 23Na?
A. 23Na has two more neutrons than 22Na (read carefully).
B. 23Na and 22Na have different numbers of electrons in their outer (valence) shell
C. 22Na has 11 neutrons, while 23Na has 12 neutrons
D. 23Na has one more proton than 22Na
E. 23Na has a completely filled shell of outer (valence) electrons, while 22Na does not

A

C. 22Na has 11 neutrons, while 23Na has 12 neutrons

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13
Q

If Avogadro’s number equals 6 x 10^23, which of the following is true?
A. 6 x 1023 AMU (Daltons) equals 1 gram
B. 1 pound equals 6 x 1023 AMU (Daltons)
C. 6 x 1023 protons have a mass of 1 gram
D. A and B
E. A and C

A

E. A and C

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14
Q

An explanation for the difference between gold and silver can be found in
A. the different properties of a proton in a gold atom versus a proton in a silver atom
B. the different properties of an electron in a gold atom versus an electron in a silver atom
C. gold atoms and silver atoms having different composition of the same types of subatomic particles
D. gold atoms and silver atoms being different isotopes with different numbers of neutrons
E. none of the above

A

C. gold atoms and silver atoms having different composition of the same types of subatomic particles

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15
Q

A system of atoms, particles, or molecules
A. will rarely undergo reactions that gain energy from the environment
B. will readily undergo reactions that release energy to the environment
C. will always tend to the state of lowest energy (it always tends to lose energy)
D. will always tend to the state of lowest potential energy
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

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16
Q 
A hydrogen gas molecule consists of two hydrogen atoms connected by a single covalent bond.  Pulling the two hydrogen atoms apart is an example of potential energy stored against which fundamental force?
A.	gravity
B.	weak nuclear force
C.	electromagnetism
D.	strong nuclear force
E.	the force of persuasion
A

C. electromagnetism

17
Q 
The tendency of atoms and molecules to stick together in various ways to form chemical bonds is the result of which of the fundamental forces?
A.	gravity
B.	weak nuclear force
C.	electromagnetism
D.	strong nuclear force
E.	none of the above
A

C. electromagnetism

18
Q

The strongest of the four fundamental forces:
A. is responsible for chemical bonds
B. holds quarks together to make protons and neutrons
C. keeps the electrons from collapsing into the nucleus
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

B. holds quarks together to make protons and neutrons

19
Q

The fundamental forces
A. determine the interactions of matter, but not energy
B. are a way of converting matter into energy
C. are a way of storing energy as potential energy
D. include gravity, strong nuclear force, weak nuclear force, centripetal force, and electromagnetism
E. all of the above

A

C. are a way of storing energy as potential energy

20
Q

Where does most of the mass of a proton come from?
A. the mass of the up quarks
B. the mass of the down quarks
C. the kinetic energy of the quarks and the potential energy in their interactions to make the proton
D. the energy in a proton interacting with neutrons
E. the energy in a proton interacting with electrons

A

C. the kinetic energy of the quarks and the potential energy in their interactions to make the proton

21
Q 
The elementary particles
A.	are all made of smaller particles
B.	include leptons and hadrons
C.	include leptons and mesons
D.	include mesons and hadrons
E.	include leptons and quarks
A

E. include leptons and quarks

22
Q

Protons
A. are elementary particles (not made of anything smaller)
B. are about 1800 times more massive than an electron
C. are a member of the class of particles called hadrons
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

23
Q 
For this course, atoms and covalent bonds are about how large?
A.	1 millimeter
B.	1 micrometer
C.	1 nanometer
D.	1 Angstrom
E.	none of the above
A

D. 1 Angstrom

24
Q

The relationship between mass and energy implied by the Theory of Special Relativity
A. is limited to kinetic energy
B. is defined by the equation E = mc2
C. states that small amounts of energy are destroyed and converted into large amounts of mass
D. states that matter and energy are two completely separate things
E. none of the above

A

B. is defined by the equation E = mc^2

25
Q

According to the Theory of Special Relativity, Rocket Girl, the woman in the rocket (bottom right)
A. sees the light beam coming at her at the speed of light (1.0 * c)
B. sees the light beam coming at her at one and a half times the speed of light (1.5 * c)
C. sees lengths shortened and time slowed in the world of Flashlight Guy, the man with the flashlight (bottom left)
D. A and C
E. B and C

A

D. A and C

26
Q

Some characteristics that have traditionally defined matter
A. include inertia, the resistance to acceleration, and gravitational attraction
B. include the ability to be converted into energy
C. include having mass and volume (taking up space)
D. A and B
E. A and C

A

E. A and C

27
Q

A difference between atoms interacting to make molecules and cells interacting to make organisms
A. is that more atoms are needed to make a molecule than cells are needed to make an organism
B. is that the cells have evolved to interact, but the atoms have not
C. is that the interaction of cells to make organisms will include emergent properties that are not present individual cells
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

28
Q

The three domains of life
A. are called plants, animals, and fungi
B. can be arranged on a tree of life where the length of the branches indicates the degree of similarity (shorter branches equals more similarity)
C. completely span the tree of life (that is, all current organisms fit on one of the three domains)
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

29
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection?
A. it states that organisms have evolved (changed) over time
B. it states that natural selection by differential survival and reproduction is the mechanism of evolution
C. it states that any characteristic that makes an organism physically bigger and stronger will always become more common in future generations
D. it is sometimes called “descent with modification”
E. it states that useful, heritable characteristics of organisms will be preserved while allowing for characteristics to change over time

A

C. it states that any characteristic that makes an organism physically bigger and stronger will always become more common in future generations

30
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about The Cellular Theory?
A. it states that all living things are made of cells
B. it states that cells arise from other cells
C. it is consistent with spontaneous generation (the formation of life from nonliving matter)
D. it is one of the two most important scientific theories in biology
E. all of the above are true

A

C. it is consistent with spontaneous generation (the formation of life from nonliving matter)

31
Q

Which of the following is true about scientific theories?
A. they link many hypotheses into a more general model
B. they’re theories in the everyday sense of just an untested idea
C. they include the Atomic Theory of Matter and the Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection
D. A and C
E. B and C

A

D. A and C

32
Q

Scientific hypotheses
A. are developed by deductive reasoning only
B. can generally be proved true
C. have to be capable of being proved false in order for them to have any meaning
D. A and B
E. A and C

A

C. have to be capable of being proved false in order for them to have any meaning

33
Q

Which of the following characteristics do NOT describe scientific knowledge?
A. it is knowledge about fundamental, general principles
B. it can be privately known by just one person
C. in scientific knowledge hypotheses that have been tested and not falsified are combined into more general theories
D. it can be hypothesis-driven or based on discovery
E. it tries to answer “how questions”

A

B. it can be privately known by just one person

Biology 110 (6 decks)

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