Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology > Exam 1 Terms > Flashcards

Exam 1 Terms Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

aerotolerant

A

grow equally well with to without oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bacillus

A

rod shaped bacteria cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bacteria

A

prokaryotes that can be very simplistic or complex, in some cases cause diseases to humans and in other cases live in symbiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

bacterial chromosome

A

most often circular, single stranded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

biofilm

A

a highly organized highly complex structure formed by multiple bacteria forming an environment together that causes the attraction of other bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

capsule

A

a bacterial surface coating that makes it district, gelatinous and firmly attached to the cell wall, makes it harder for phagocytosis of bacteria by the immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

coccus

A

circle shaped bacterial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cytoplasmic membrane

A

the outer layer of the cell that is selective and protect the contents of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

diplococci/diplobacilli

A

a grouping/arrangement of two bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

endospore

A

a dormant state of a bacteria that allows for it to live for long periods of time in extreme conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

eukaryote

A

a cell type that contains membrane bound organelles, 80s ribosomes, and is more complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

facultative anaerobe

A

grows aerobically when oxygen is present and prefers this but can also go through fermentation pathways when it is absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fimbriae

A

attachment pilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

flagellum

A

a long propeller like structure/appendage that is used to move the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

fungi

A

eukaryotic microbes, including molds and yeasts, can be either uni or multicellular, micro or macroscopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

genus

A

a taxonomical grouping of closely related but non-interbreeding species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

germination

A

transitioning between an endospore into the vegetative state, triggered by favorable environmental conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

glycocalyx

A

a gel like layer outside the cell wall that protects and allows for the attachment to surfaces, composed of primarily polysaccharides but can also contain polypeptides, can be organized as a capsule or slime layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

gram stain

A

a four step process used in order to distinguish gram positive bacterial cells from gram negative cells, uses crystal violet, iodine, decolorizer (alcohol), safranin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

helminth

A

a eukaryotic microbe, parasitic worms, multicellular animals, macroscopic but the eggs and larvae are microscopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

inclusion bodies

A

cytoplasmic structures used as storage bodies in the cell, granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

lipotechoic and lipopolysaccharides

A

acids that spans the peptidoglycan layer and link the wall to the plasma membrane in the gram positive bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

mycoplasma

A

a bacteria species that have extremely variable shapes because they lack cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

murein

A

the peptidoglycan in the cell walls of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

nucleoid

A

the grouping of DNA in prokaryotes since they lack nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)

A

one of the alternating subunits of peptidoglycan in the cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

N-acetylemuramic (NAM)

A

one of the alternating subunits of peptidoglycan in the cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

outer membrane

A

present in gram negative bacteria, a plasma membrane that surrounds the cell wall for another layer of protection for the cell, contains porin proteins and LPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

obligate aerobe

A

requires oxygen for growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

obligate anaerobe

A

cannot grow in oxygenated environments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

palisades

A

arrangement of bacillus bacteria where they look like a white picket fence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

peptidoglycan

A

the main substance that makes up the cell wall of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

phospholipid bilayer

A

the cell membrane that contains a double layer of phospholipids with the hydrophilic heads outside and the hydrophobic tails to the outside allowing for it to be semi-permeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

pilus

A

shorter external extensions, made of pilin proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

plasmids

A

extrachromosomal, circular ds DNA, role in antibiotic resistance and the spread of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

pleomorphic

A

the ability of some bacteria to be able to change their shape and size in response to some changes in the environmental conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

prokaryote

A

simplistic cells that have no complex membrane bound organelles, 70s ribosomes, circular DNA, electron transport happens in the cell membrane and replicate by binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

protozoa

A

single cell parasites that are microscopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

serotype

A

antigenic makeup of a species, when dealing with type of nomeclature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

sex pilus

A

a pili that is used to join bacteria during conjugation in order to transfer DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

slime layer

A

diffuse, irregularly, loosely attached to the cell wall surface coating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

spirochete

A

a corkscrew shaped bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

species

A

a collection of bacterial cells which share an overall similar pattern of traits in contrast to other bacteria whose pattern differs significantly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

sporulation

A

the process in changing a bacteria from the vegetative state to the endospore state, triggered by nutrient limitation and an adverse environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

streptococci/streptobacilli

A

a line/chain of bacteria arrangement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

staphylococci/staphylobacilli

A

a bacterial arrangement that is like a cluster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

strain

A

a culture derived from a single parent that differs in structure or metabolism from other cultures of that species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

teichoic acid

A

acid that is linked to the peptidoglycan layer in gram positive cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

virus

A

an obligate intracellular organisms that can only replicate within cells, where they are protected from many components of the host’s protective responses such as antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

acid-fast stain

A

used to detect mycobacterium, harsh method in order to reduce the waxy fatty acid, mycelia acid in order for the bacteria to be stained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

agar

A

solidifying agent that is used as the culture media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

aseptic technique

A

method of handling specimens, microbial cultures, and other sources of microbes in a way that minimizes contamination by pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

broth

A

the liquid culture media that becomes the base for a culture growth plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

bright field microscopy

A

most widely used, specimen is marked than surrounding field, great for fixed stained specimens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

capsule stain

A

a negative stain that colors the background in order to see the cell repelled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

colony

A

a visible cluster of cells derived form a single cell deposited on the agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

contrast

A

determines how easily cells can be seen, transparent bacteria lack contrast and are difficult to see against colorless backgrounds, stains increase contrast but kill cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

counterstains

A

the second stain used in differential staining to distinguish what is being observed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

crystal violet

A

the first step of gram staining, the peptidoglycan cell walls stain from this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

culture

A

a visible growth of microorganisms in a container of media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

dark field microscopy

A

brightly illuminated specifics surrounded by dark field, for live specimens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

decolorizer

A

the third step in gram staining in order to remove the dye from the structures where the oddest was not able to reach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

differential medium

A

contains specific ingredients that displays visible differences between types of microbes in mixtures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

electron microscopy (TEM or SEM)

A

forms an image with a beam of electrons that can be made to travel in wavelike patterns when accelerated to high speeds, magnification between 5000 and 1000000x allows to be able to see very detailed structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

enterotube test

A

contains 12 different biochemical test commonly used to test for enteric pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

fixed mount

A

made by drying and heating a film of specimen, the smear is then stained to be able to visualize the cells and its parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

flagella stain

A

adheres to and coats the normally thin flagella in order to make it visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

fluorescent microscopy

A

modified compound microscope with UV radiation, uses fluorescent dyes that emit visible light when bombarded with shorter UV rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

fluorescently labeled antibody

A

the dyes used in fluorescent microscopy, labeled with antibodies in order to recognize specific surface proteins on a microorganism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

general purpose media

A

grows a broad range of microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

genetic tests

A

detection of specific bacterial nucleic acids by PCR, 16s ribosomal sequencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

growth factors

A

different things that aid in the growth of a cell or culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

hanging drop preparation

A

allow examination of characteristics of live cells, motility, shape, arrangement, also called wet mounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

incubate

A

allowing for a culture to grow in optimal environmental conditions, incubators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

inoculating loop

A

a stick that is used to pick up cultures and move them in order to grow them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

inoculation

A

placing a sample on a sterile medium providing the appropriate nutrients for growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

inoculum

A

the first cels used in order to inoculate a plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

isolation

A

ideally the end results of inoculation on a solid media and incubation is sedation of colonies from one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

liquid media

A

broth, does not solidify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

magnification

A

make objects appear to be larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

media

A

a nutritive substance used in order to grow cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

microscopy

A

used to observe stained slides of cultures to assess cell morphology, arrangement, motility, cell structures, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

mixed culture

A

a culture that contains more than one type of organism growing in a sterile medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

negative stain

A

a stain that stains the background rather than the cell in order to make the cell stand out, used in order to see capsules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

PCR

A

a genetic method that uses sequence-specific primers to amplify selected sequences and make millions of copies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

pure culture

A

a culture of bacteria that contain only one type of bacterial species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

phase contrast

A

transforms subtle changes in light waves passing through the specimen into differences in light intensity, best for observing intracellular structures in unstained samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

resolving power

A

the ability to show detail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

safranin

A

the last step in gram stains that due the peptidoglycan layer that is not stained from the violet (gram negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

selective medium

A

contains inhibitory substances that suppress the growth of all but one or a few microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

smear

A

the culture that is present on a fixed mount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

spore stain

A

heat is used in order to facilitate the uptake of primary due by a spore that normally does not take up stains, counterstains are used in order to visualize other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

streak plate method

A

a technique used for isolating colonies on a plate with a liquid culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

subculture

A

a new cell or culture that is made by transferring cells from a previous culture to a fresh growth medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

wet mount

A

the same thing as hanging drop preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

acidusic

A

bacteria that are resistant to acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

acidiphile

A

bacteria that like low pH levels, acidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

aerobe

A

grows in the presence of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

aerotolerant

A

grows in the presence of oxygen but is only tolerant to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

anaerobe

A

cannot grow in the presence of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

binary fission

A

growth of a bacterial cell, the diving of one cell into two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

cell counter

A

method of counting the number of cells that are viable in a community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

colony forming unit (CFU)

A

a measure of bible cells in which a colony represents an aggregate of cells derived from a single progenitor cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

death/decline phase

A

the last phase of typical bacterial growth curve where more cells are dying than cells being made so the overall community is dying off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

direct/total cell count

A

includes cells that are viable and dead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

direct/total cell count

A

includes ells that are viable and dead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

exponential growth

A

rapid rate of growth of bacterial cells where they double each time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

generation/doubling time

A

the time it takes for one bacterial cell to become two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

growth curve

A

the urge that explains the generation time of bacterial culture, four stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

halophiles obligate

A

bacteria that requires high salt concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

halophiles facultative

A

bacteria that arable to withstand 10-20% salt concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

heterotroph

A

an organism that cannot manufacture its own food and instead obtains its food and energy through organic substances usually produced by others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

hypertonic

A

solutions have greater solute concentrations than the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

hypotonic

A

solutions have lower solute concentrations than the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

inorganic

A

something unrelated to organic matter or organic like, chemical compound that does not contain carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

isotonic

A

solution where the concentration of solutes is the same as in the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

lag phase

A

the first phase of growth curve where the cells are not producing rapidly just yet as they adjust to the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

log phase

A

exponential stage of the growth curve where the bacterial cells are rapidly dividing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

mesophiles

A

bacteria that grow when only a little bit of oxygen is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

microaerophiles

A

bacteria that grow when only a little bit of oxygen is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

osmosis

A

the diffusion of water from areas of lower solute concertino to areas of higher solute concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

osmolysis

A

rapture of a cell membrane due to excessive accumulation of solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

pH

A

measure of the hydrogen ion concentration, measure of the acidity/alkalinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

psychrophile

A

bacteria who grow and survive at very cold temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

psychrotroph

A

bacteria who are able to survive at cold temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

serial dilution

A

a step wise dilution of a substance in a solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

spectrophotometer

A

an apparatus for measuring the intensity of light in a part of the spectrum

128
Q

stationary phase

A

the third stage in the growth curve where there is equal amounts of cells being produced and cells dying off so the size stays consistent, usually due to not enough space

129
Q

thermophile

A

bacteria that sure at higher temps than body temperature

130
Q

thioglycollate medium

A

a growth medium in a test tube that reveals how bacteria grow in response to oxygen based on what portion of the tube they grow in

131
Q

turgid

A

when cells with cell walls increase in size in hypotonic solutions and push on the cell walls

132
Q

turbidity

A

measure of the degree to which the water loses its transparency due to the presence of suspended particulates

133
Q

acyl-homoserine lactones

A

communication between gram negative cells, quorum sensing

134
Q

autoinducer

A

molecules that stimulate expression of a particular gene and synthesis of a protein product

135
Q

autoinducer-2

A

communication between both gram positive and negative bacteria, quorum sensing

136
Q

autoinducing oligopeptides

A

communication between gram positive bacteria, quorum sensing

137
Q

extracellular polymeric substances

A

the glycocalyx portion of the biofilm that is produced by the bacterial cells, consists of polymers of DNA, proteins, polysaccharides

138
Q

persister cells

A

dormant variants of regular cells that form randomly in microbial populations, highly tolerant to antibiotics

139
Q

planktonic

A

single cells that may float or swim in a liquid medium

140
Q

quorum sensing

A

communication between different bacterial cells in a biofilm, dependent on the density of the film, using molecules to communicate and elicit a response

141
Q

active site

A

the region of an enzyme in substrate-level phosphorylation where the substrate and ADP binds in order to go through phosphorylation

142
Q

acetyl coA

A

the production of pyruvate is turned into that is 2 carbons long and goes into the krebs cycle after processing

143
Q

aerobic respiration

A

process of growing through respiration when oxygen is present, therefore oxygen is used as the terminal electron acceptor in order to produce energy

144
Q

anabolism

A

pathways that consume energy in order to synthesize products

145
Q

anaerobic respiration

A

process of going through respiration without oxygen, therefore they still go through respiring steps however an inorganic oxygen containing molecule is used as the terminal electron acceptor and not just oxygen

146
Q

ATP

A

adenosine tri-phosphate, holds a lot of energy in the last bond between phosphates and is broken in order to release high amounts of energy

147
Q

ATP synthase

A

an enzyme after the electron transport chain that is used to crete ATP by using the H+ gradient across the membrane to travel down to “turn” the wheel putting the third P onto ADP to form ATP

148
Q

biosynthesis

A

a multi-step, enzyme catalyzed process where the substrates are converted into more complex products in living organisms, simple compounds are modified, converted into otters compounds or joined together to form macromolecules

149
Q

catabolism

A

processes that break compounds down in order to produce energy

150
Q

cellular respiration

A

three stages involved, follows glycolysis

  1. synthesis of acetyl-coA
  2. krebs cycle
  3. electron transport chain - final series of redox reactions
151
Q

chemiosmosis

A

use of electrochemical gradients to generate ATP, protons flow down electrochemical gradient through ATP synthase that phosphorylates ADP to ATP

152
Q

cytochrome oxidase

A

large protein complex in the mitochondrial inner membrane of eukaryotes and the plasma membrane of prokaryotes that is involved in the electron transport chain in respiration

153
Q

electron

A

a negatively charged particle

154
Q

electron carrier

A

a molecule that is able to contain an electron and give it away

155
Q

electron transport chain

A

the enzyme complex in the membrane that produces the large H+ gradient in order to power ATPase

156
Q

enzyme

A

a protein that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction in a living organism

157
Q

FADH2

A

a redox cofactor that is created in the krebs cycle that is in its reduced form

158
Q

fermentation

A

obligate anaerobes and facultative anaerobes in the absence of oxygen use this process in stead of respiration, yields 2 ATP, purpose is to regenerate the oxidized electron carrier NAD+ in order to go through glycolysis again

159
Q

glucose

A

the 6 carbon molecule that starts in glycolysis

160
Q

glycolysis

A

occurs in the cytoplasm of most cells, oxygen is not involved in this step, takes in glucose in order to produces 2 3 carbon molecules, first step in metabolism for both aerobic and anaerobic pathways

161
Q

TCA or Krebs cycle

A

the step that acetyl coA enters in order to produce a reducing power to be used in the electron transport chain and also produces 2 ATP

162
Q

metabolism

A

the sum of all the chemical reactions in an organism

163
Q

NADH

A

the reduce form of NAD+ that peso into the ETC and also into fermentation

164
Q

oxidative phosphorylation

A

the process of converting ADP to ATP using the energy of the H+ gradient and the ATP synthase in the membrane

165
Q

oxidizing agent

A

a compound that is reduced and gains electrons

166
Q

oxidized

A

when a compound has lost electrons

167
Q

phosphorylate

A

the addition of an inorganic phosphate to a substrate

168
Q

precursor metabolite

A

a smaller compound that is used to produce others

169
Q

proton gradient/proton motive force

A

the gradient produced across the membrane that powers the ATPase to create ATP

170
Q

proton pump

A

the process of the electron transport chain pumping protons across the membrane in order to create a gradient

171
Q

pyruvate

A

the 3 carbon compound glucose is converted into through glycolysis

172
Q

redox reactions

A

reactions where one substance loses electrons by giving them to another substance, the one that loses them is oxidation and the one that gains is reduction

173
Q

reduced

A

when a compound gains electrons

174
Q

reducing agent

A

a compound that is oxidized and loses electrons

175
Q

reducing power

A

the capability of compounds such as NADH and NADPH to donate H+ and electrons in reduction reactions in the cell

176
Q

respiration

A

the process of using electrons to produce ATP

177
Q

substrate

A

a compound on which enzymes work on

178
Q

substrate level phosphorylation

A

the creation of ATP using an enzyme with an active site to use energy to combine ADP and P into ATP

179
Q

terminal electron acceptor

A

the final acceptor of electrons in respiration, in aerobic it is oxygen, in anaerobic it is an inorganic substance that contains oxygen

180
Q

arginine operon

A

an example of a repressible operon where the build up of arginine after constant transcription leads to the arginine acting as a corepressor binding to the repressor and turning transcription off

181
Q

bacteriophage

A

a bacteria for viruses, able to have gene transfer via these

182
Q

CAP

A

catabolite gene-activator protein, works in catabolite regulation in the lac operon where when it is bound to cAMP it binds to the lac operon promoter and enhance the RNA pol binding and increases expression

183
Q

complementary DNA

A

a DNA stand that is a compliment of the reading strand

184
Q

conjugation

A

form of gene transfer in bacteria via a sex plus and transferring DNA through it

185
Q

competent

A

a physiological state where a bacterial cell is able to take in free floating DNA from a solution and incorporate it into tits genome

186
Q

diploid

A

two copies of DNA

187
Q

extrachromosomal DNA

A

any DNA that is found outside the nucleus

188
Q

F plasmid

A

the plasmid that has an origin to transfer and is transferred between two cells in conjugation

189
Q

formyl-methionine

A

the initiator tRNA in prokaryotic translation

190
Q

frameshift mutation

A

the addition or deletion of a base in a strand of DNA that causes for the reading frame of the codons to shift

191
Q

genome

A

the complete set of genes in an organism

192
Q

genotype

A

sequence of nucleotides in DNA, an organism’s genetic/DNA makeup

193
Q

haploid

A

having one copy of DNA

194
Q

Hfr

A

a bacterial cell that has the f plasmid incorporated into its genome, high frequency of recombination cell

195
Q

induced mutations

A

mutations caused by exposure to mutagens whether they are physical or chemical

196
Q

intron

A

parts of eukaryotic gene that are the coding sequence

197
Q

intercalating agents

A

chemical mutagens that are flat and add themselves between bases in a DNA sequence that then causes an opening that allows for addition or deletion of a single base in replication

198
Q

lac operon

A

an inducible operon, where the presence of lactose induces the repressor to come off and transcription to occur, there is also a catabolite regulation part involving glucose

199
Q

lytic phage

A

a phage that causes the destruction of a bacterial cell after its DNA has been replicated

200
Q

missense mutation

A

a mutation that causes a slightly different amino acid to be added, usually doesn’t have add too much of a problem to the cell

201
Q

monocistronic

A

a gene only reads for one protein

202
Q

mutagens

A

agent that induces a change

203
Q

naked DNA

A

DNA that is free floating and not part of a chromosome in any genome

204
Q

natural selection

A

process that selects what organisms live and reproduce viable offspring based on its fitness level in the environment it lives in

205
Q

nonsense mutation

A

causes a premature stop codon and ends the polypeptide sequence early

206
Q

nucleotide analog

A

compounds that resemble the nucleotide bases but are actually not, the go in the place of the actual bases in replication and cause mutations

207
Q

operator

A

region of an operon where the repressor binds to

208
Q

operon

A

a collection of genes in a single polycistronic message that are regulated as a single unit for products with a coordinated function

209
Q

origin of replication

A

the point in DNA where replication starts

210
Q

phenotype

A

the physical, observable characteristics that are based on genotype

211
Q

pilus

A

the cell component that stretches out and connects two bacterial cells together in conjugation

212
Q

point mutations

A

a change in a single base pair

213
Q

polymerase

A

the enzyme that takes part in replication and reading of a DNA strand in transcription

214
Q

polycistronic

A

a string of a gene that is responsible for multiple proteins

215
Q

promoter

A

region in an operon/DNA sequence that the polymerase attaches to in order to go through transcription

216
Q

recombinant

A

DNA that is a combination of its own DNA and the added DNA from recombination of sequences

217
Q

redundancy

A

the genetic code is degenerate in that it has multiple codons that code for the same amino acid, 64 codons for 20 amino acids

218
Q

regulator

A

something that controls whether or not an operon is turned on to its highest extent or not

219
Q

repressor

A

the unit that stops/shuts off an operon from transcribing

220
Q

R plasmids

A

plasmids that contains genes for antibiotic resistance

221
Q

sigma factor

A

the subunit that loosely attaches to RNA pol that recognizes a promoter in transcription

222
Q

silent mutation

A

no change in the main acid sequence of the polypeptide, the new codon after a point mutation calls for the same amino acid

223
Q

spontaneous mutation

A

mutations that occurs randomly due to errors in DNA replication

224
Q

start codon

A

AUG, the codon to start translation

225
Q

supercoiling

A

the process of packing DNA tightly that prokaryotes use for organization of their genome

226
Q

temperate phage

A

a phage that incorporates its genome into a cell for it to be replicated and then passed off to the progeny of the bacterial cell and then eventually goes through the lytic phage cycle

227
Q

transcription

A

DNA –> RNA

228
Q

transduction

A

the gene transfer using phages to transfer gene sequence from one bacterial cell to another

229
Q

generalized transduction

A

uses lytic phages

230
Q

specialized transduction

A

uses temperate phages

231
Q

transition mutation

A

purine to purine, pyrimidine to pyrimidine

232
Q

tranversion mutation

A

purine to pyrimidine, pyrimidine to purine

233
Q

transposable elements

A

moveable DNA elements that move themselves from one location in a single cell to another location in the same cell

234
Q

transformation

A

the transfer of genes via the uptake of free floating naked DNA strands

235
Q

translation

A

mRNA –> proteins

236
Q

wild type

A

the typical phenotype of strains isolated from nature

237
Q

aminoglycosides

A

antibiotic that prevents protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosome subunit and causing the misreading of the mRNA leading to the premature release of the mRNA

238
Q

bactericidal

A

level of antibiotic that kills the bacterium

239
Q

bacteriostatic

A

level of antibiotic that inhibits growth of the bacteria but doesn’t otherwise kill the living bacteria

240
Q

beta lactam antibiotics

A

antibiotics that work by irreversibly inhibiting the enzyme responsible for the final step of synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls by binding to the transpeptidase that cross links the NAM subunits

241
Q

beta lactamase

A

the enzyme that some bacteria have produced that breaks down the beta lactic dugs in order to be resistant to them

242
Q

broad spectrum antibiotics

A

antibiotics that are able dot kill many types of bacteria

243
Q

narrow spectrum antibiotics

A

antibiotics that are specific to what bacteria it effects

244
Q

cephalosporin

A

a beta lactam antibiotic that has slightly different side chains distinguishing them

245
Q

competitive enzyme inhibitor

A

a molecule that inhibits the binding of an enzyme to what it works on by binding to it and causing it to not work properly

246
Q

diffusion test

A

kirby bauer disc test or e test

247
Q

drug spectrum of activity

A

a spectrum of different types of antibiotics that shows what types of bacteria they work against

248
Q

efflux pump

A

a pump in some bacteria that they have in the cell membrane to be resistant to the antibiotics by taking up the drugs once they are in the cell and immediately pumping them back out of the cells with the pump

249
Q

E test

A

using a lawn of bacteria, place a strip that has a gradient of amount of antibiotic on it and allow to grow and see where the minimal inhibitory concentration is for the antibiotic dependent where growth is and is not in relation to the gradient

250
Q

fluoroquinolone

A

antibiotics that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting work of topoisomerase in the bacteria, in particular DNA gyros, has the chance of effecting humans

251
Q

folic acid

A

an intermediate that is necessary in order to produce purines pyrimidines, amino acids, in bacteria it must be produced therefore there is a necessary metabolic pathway that produces this and can be targeted by antibiotics since humans obtain this through diet and do not make it

252
Q

gyrase

A

a topoisomerase that works in the synthesis of nucleic acids

253
Q

glycoprotein

A

vanocomycin, an antibiotic that binds to the D-Ala-D-ALa peptide side chain in the NAM molecules to block the addition of new peptidoglycan

254
Q

Kirby Bauer disc test

A

using a lawn of bacteria, place antibiotic soaked paper discs on the lawn and allow to grow, see if there is growth or not, if there is a zone of inhibition this means the antibiotic works, if no zone the bacteria is resistant

255
Q

lincosamide

A

antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis by to the 50s ribosomes and blocking proper mRNA movement through the ribosome

256
Q

macrolides

A

antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50s ribosome and blocking proper mRNA movement through the ribosome

257
Q

minimal inhibitory concentration

A

the smallest amount of antibiotic required in order to inhibit the growth of bacteria

258
Q

NDM-1 gene

A

a gene in some bacteria that encodes for carbapenemase that makes them resistant to carbapenems which is the last resort drug, this is very concerning because there might not be many ways to treat bacteria that have this gene

259
Q

opportunistic infection

A

infections that occur when the normal microbiota has been depleted and pathogens are able to take over

260
Q

PABA

A

competes with sulfa drugs in the bacteria in the folic acid synthesis pathway

261
Q

penicillin

A

a beta lactam antibiotic that functions by inhibiting cell wall synthesis by preventing transpeptidation

262
Q

penicillinase

A

an enzyme produced in resistant bacteria that inhibits the efforts of penicillin

263
Q

polymyxin

A

antibiotics that disrupts the function of the cell membrane by interacting with the phospholipids and lipopolysaccharides in the membrane compromising the integrity of the membrane and breaking it up

264
Q

prophylaxis

A

an action taken to prevent disease, i.e. prescribing antibiotics in order to inhibit the start of an infection

265
Q

selective toxicity

A

drugs used effect some type of cell but do not effect others, i.e. antibiotic interactions

266
Q

sulfonamide/sulfa drug

A

antibiotics that are analogs of essential metabolites in folic acid synthesis and are therefore able to compete with the metabolites and block synthesis

267
Q

tetracycline

A

antibiotics that inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosomes and blocking the docking spot for tRNA

268
Q

therapeutic index

A

balancing the effectiveness and toxicity of a drug, the lowest dose toxic to a patient over the therapeutic dose

269
Q

topoisomerase

A

enzyme used in nucleic acid synthesized, i.e. DNA gyrase

270
Q

transpeptidase

A

penicillin binding protein that cross links the NAM subunits in peptidoglycan

271
Q

vanomycin

A

antibiotics that blocks the addition of NAM subunits to the pre-existing cell wall

272
Q

alcohol

A

intermediate level chemical disinfectant/antiseptic

273
Q

aldehyde

A

intermediate level at low concentrations, high at high concentrations for extended periods disinfectant/antiseptic

274
Q

antisepsis

A

reduction of virtually all recognized pathogens but no necessarily all microbial life forms on living tissues

275
Q

aseptic

A

free of all recognized pathogens

276
Q

autoclave

A

a device used to sterilize equipment by subjecting them to pressurized steam

277
Q

bis biguanide

A

low level liquid chemical disinfectant/antiseptic

278
Q

Bloodborne Pathogens standard

A

1991, 2001, OSHA put in place in order to protect workers who can reasonably anticipate to come into contact with blood of OPIM as a result of doing their job, the standard requirements state what employers must do in order to protect workers who are occupationally exposed to blood or other potentially infectious materials

279
Q

CDC

A

center for disease control, protects both the patient and health care workers

280
Q

contact time

A

the recommended time to keep the surfaces wet in order for full disinfection, often 10 minutes

281
Q

critical patient-care item

A

greatest risk of transmitting infections, penetrates the soft tissue, contacts bone, enters into or contacts the bloodstream or other normally sterile tissues: heat sterilize between uses or use single-use, disposable devices

282
Q

degermation

A

mechanical removal of microbes and debris from living tissues to substantially reduce their levels to meet accepted health standards

283
Q

detergent

A

low level chemical disinfectant/antiseptic

284
Q

disinfection

A

using physical or chemical means to destroy virtually all recognized pathogens but not necessarily all microbial life forms or on inanimate objects

285
Q

endospore

A

metabolically inert form of bacteria, protective shell, only destroyed by sterilization

286
Q

ethylene oxide

A

gas that is a sterilant at room temperature, used to sterilize things that are water and temperature sensitive

287
Q

germicide

A

an antiseptic that kills bacteria and pathogens

288
Q

halogens

A

intermediate level chemical disinfectant/antiseptic

289
Q

HEPA filter

A

used to filter air, removes microbes large than 0.3um, considered to disinfect air

290
Q

hepatitis B

A

viral infection that can be obtained through contact with infected bodily fluid, 1-31% chance through needle prick

291
Q

hepatitis C

A

viral infection that can be obtained through contact with infected bodily fluid, 1.8% chance though needle prick

292
Q

high level disinfectant

A

chemical germicide registered by the FDA, inactivates all microbes with the exception of high numbers of bacterial spores, with prolonged exposure can inactive bacterial spores and therefore acts as a sterilant

293
Q

HIV

A

viral infection that can be obtained through contact with infected bodily fluid, 0.3% chance though needle prick or 0.1% from blood splash

294
Q

hydrogen peroxide

A

a peroxide that is an intermediate at low concentrations or a high at high concentrations for long exposure disinfectant/antiseptic

295
Q

intermediate level disinfectant

A

chemical germicide registered by the EPA, as a “hospital disinfectant that is tuberculocidal” but does not inactivate spores necessarily

296
Q

iodophor

A

an antiseptic and disinfectant that releases free iodine into solution

297
Q

ionizing radiation

A

forms of radiation that kills microorganisms and viruses, damages DNA and produces peroxides, acts as a powerful oxidizing agent, X-rays, cathode, gamma, causes sterilization

298
Q

low level disinfectant

A

chemical germicide that eliminates most vegetative bacteria, some fun, and some viruses, cannot be relied on to kill more resistant microbes such as mycobacterium and spores

299
Q

non-critical patient care item

A

pose the least risk for transmission, contact with intact skin: clean and disinfect using a low level disinfectant, if it is visibly contaminated with blood then use intermediate level disinfectant

300
Q

nonionizing radiation

A

radiation that does not carry enough energy per photon to ionize atoms or molecules, UV, causes disinfection

301
Q

OPIM

A

other potentially infectious materials

302
Q

OSHA

A

occupational safety and health administration, protects health care personnel only, regulatory by law

303
Q

pasteurization

A

boiling water, causes disinfection

304
Q

peroxide

A

intermediate at low concentrations, high at high level concentrations for long exposure, chemical disinfectant/antiseptic

305
Q

phenol

A

low to intermediate level chemical disinfectant/antiseptic

306
Q

PPE

A

personal protective equipment, to keep the health care professionals at a safer risk from injury

307
Q

precleaning

A

cleaning off instruments of organic material because sterilization

308
Q

sanitization

A

mechanical removal of microbes and debris from inanimate objects to substantially reduce their levels to meet accepted health standards (not a specific level of control)

309
Q

semi-critical patient care item

A

has a lower risk of disease transmission, contacts mucous membranes or non-intact skin, but will not penetrate soft tissue, contact bones, or enter into or contact with the bloodstream or other normally sterile tissues: heat sterilize or high level disinfectant registered with the FDA

310
Q

soil

A

an object that is no longer sterile

311
Q

sporicidal

A

able to kill bacterial spores

312
Q

standard precautions

A

minimum infection prevention practices recommended by the CDC that apply to all patient care, regardless of the suspected or confirmed infection status of the patient in any setting where healthcare is delivered

313
Q

sterilant

A

a chemical that can be used in order to sterilize a substance, has to be a high level decontaminant

314
Q

sterile

A

to be free from all microorganisms including bacterial spores

315
Q

sterilization

A

using physical or chemical means to kill all microorganisms, including spores on inanimate objects

316
Q

tuberculocidal

A

able to kill mycoplasma

317
Q

universal precautions

A

based on treating all human blood and body fluids including saliva as potentially infectious

Microbiology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions