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Spinal Anatomy > Exam 1 Study Guide Questions > Flashcards

Exam 1 Study Guide Questions Flashcards

0
Q

What is osteology?

A

The study of bone

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1
Q

What are the four tissues of the human body?

A

Epithelial, muscle, neural & connective tissues

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2
Q

What are the three primary cell types of bone?

A

Osteoblasts, osteocytes & osteoclasts

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3
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblast - form bone; osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone; osteoclast - remodel bone

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4
Q

What are the bone cells embedded in?

A

An amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

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5
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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6
Q

What types of glycosaminoglycan’s predominate in bone?

A

Chondroitin sulfates, keratin sulfates and hyaluronic acid

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7
Q

What is the principal type of protein fiber in bone?

A

Collagen type I

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8
Q

What are the primary constituents of the bone material?

A

Calcium, phosphate, citrate and carbonate ions

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9
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

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10
Q

What is Wolff’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

Living tissues will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response to stress

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11
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

Sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium, and radium

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12
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

It has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

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13
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

Mesenchyme or cartilage

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14
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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15
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

From the second to third month in utero

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16
Q

What bones are derived from intramembranous ossification?

A

The nasal, palatine, vomer, lacrimal, zygomatic, maxilla, frontal, parietal, most of the mandible and clavicle, the squama of the temporal and occipital bones, and the greater wing of the sphenoid

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17
Q

Which bones of the neurocranium are formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

The frontal, parietal, squama of the temporal and occipital bones, and greater wing of the sphenoid

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18
Q

Which bones of this splanchnocranium are formed by intramembranous ossification?

A

The nasal, palatine, vomer, lacrimal, zygomatic, maxilla, and part of the mandible

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19
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

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20
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

From the second to fifth month in utero

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21
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

Chondrocranium

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22
Q

What bones are formed from the chondrocranium?

A

The inferior nasal concha, ethmoid, and the remainder of the mandible, sphenoid, temporal and occipital bones

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23
Q

Which bones of the splanchnocranium are derived from cartilage?

A

The inferior nasal concha and part of the mandible

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24
Q

Which bones of the neurocranium are derived from cartilage?

A

The ethmoid, and parts of the sphenoid, temporal, and occipital bones

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25
Q

Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

The mandible, sphenoid, temporal, and occipital bones

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26
Q

What bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

The clavicle

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27
Q

What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on the time of appearance?

A

Primary centers of ossification appear before birth; secondary centers of ossification appear afterbirth

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28
Q

Mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density?

A

Cortical or compact bone and spongy, cancellous or trabecular bone

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29
Q

What is the name given to the bone below an articulating surface?

A

Subchondral bone

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30
Q

What is the name of the outer fibro-cellular covering of the bone?

A

The periosteum

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31
Q

What is the name given to the fibro-cellular lining of the bone?

A

The endosteum

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32
Q

What are the primary sources of variation observed in bone?

A

Gender variation (sexual dimorphism), ontogenetic variation (growth or age variation), geographic or population-based variation (ethnic variation), and idiosyncratic variation (individual variation)

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33
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

Gender variation or sexual dimorphism

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34
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

Ontogenetic variation

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35
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity and locational variation is identified as which type of variation?

A

Geographic variation or population-based variation

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37
Q

Differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on uniqueness between individuals is identified as which type of variation?

A

Idiosyncratic variation

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38
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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39
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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40
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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41
Q

What is characteristic of pneumatic bone?

A

air spaces with the bone

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42
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid & temporal

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43
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone?

A

the bone develops within a tendon

44
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

45
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

46
Q

What are the four basic surface feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways & facets

47
Q

When do the surface features of a bone become prominent?

A

during and after puberty

48
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded, and sharp

49
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevation?

A

the line, ridge, and crest

50
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity, and malleolus

51
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

52
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch or incisure, groove, and sulcus

53
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

the fovea and fossa

54
Q

What is the definition of an osseous ostium?

A

a round or oval opening on the surface of bone

55
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

an irregular opening on the surface of bone

56
Q

What are the names given to an osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

57
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

meatus

58
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surface of adjacent of bones

59
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets and rounded facets

60
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

61
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80 bones

62
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

63
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible?

A

cranium

64
Q

What are the names given to the top of the adult skull?

A

the calva or calvaria

65
Q

What bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull?

A

the frontal, parietal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid

66
Q

How many bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

67
Q

What bones form the facial skeleton?

A

nasal, lacrimal, vomer, palatine, zygomatic, maxilla, mandible, inferior nasal concha

68
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton?

A

14 bones

69
Q

What bones comprise the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the cervial, thoracic, lumbar vertebrae, and the sacrum and coccyx

70
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column?

A

the spine

71
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24 bones

72
Q

What type of ossification pattern and suture appearance typically forms the true suture?

A

intramembraneous ossification; interlocking edges

73
Q

What are the classifications of true sutures (sutura vera) based on suture appearance?

A

serrate, denticulate, and limbous

74
Q

What type of ossification pattern and suture appearance typically forms the false suture?

A

endochrondral ossification; non-interlocking edges

75
Q

What are the classifications of false sutures (sutura notha) based on suture appearance?

A

squamous and harmonia

76
Q

Overlapping, non-interlocking sutures would be examples of which classification?

A

squamous suture

77
Q

Sutures which neither overlap no interlock are classified as ______ ?

A

plane sutures (sutura harmonia)

78
Q

What is the classic example of the plane suture (sutura harmonia)?

A

cruciate suture

79
Q

What is the classification of a “peg-in-socket” joint?

A

gomphosis

80
Q

Which joint classification would involve a “nail” appearance?

A

gomphosis

81
Q

Which joint classification would involve a fissure condition or appearance?

A

schindylesis

82
Q

What is an example of the schindylesis?

A

osseous nasal septum: sphenoid-ethmoid articulation, sphenoid-vomer articulation, ethmoid vomer articulation, vomer-palatine articulation or vomer-maxilla articulation

83
Q

What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

the are primary cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage, and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

84
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage, and synovial fluid

85
Q

What are the characteristics of the type I articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses, and they monitor the joint “at rest”

86
Q

What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion

87
Q

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

88
Q

What is the function of type IV articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

89
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

90
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

(1) synovial villi, (2) articular fat pads or Haversian glands, (3) synovial menisci and intra-articular discs

91
Q

What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

aid in spreading synovial fluid

92
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

93
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

94
Q

What the common function of type A and type B synovial cells?

A

formation and absorption of synovial fluid

95
Q

What are examples of glycosaminoglycans important in articular cartilage?

A

hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfates, and keratin sulfate

96
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

for a network for water retention

97
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

98
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to its original volume slowly, a time dependent property

99
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

100
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

101
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies and adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low friction observed during movement?

A

boundary theory

102
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, vicous, slightly alkaline, and tastes salty

103
Q

Synovial fluid consists of what specific chemical groups?

A

fats, salts, albumins, and hyaluronate

104
Q

What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

lubricin

105
Q

What is the function of synovial fluid?

A

provides a nutritive source for articular cartilage and supply the lubricant for the cartilage surface

Spinal Anatomy (2 decks)

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