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pathophysiology > Exam #1 Review > Flashcards

Exam #1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

This terms means the physiology of altered health - changes in cells, tissues, and organs of the body that cause of are caused by disease

A

Pathophysiology

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2
Q

This term means an acute or chronic illness that one acquires or is born with that cause physiologic dysfunction in one or more body system

A

Disease

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3
Q

The cause of disease; what sets the disease process into motion

A

Etiology

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4
Q

What are the three different agents of etiology?

A
  • Biologic
  • Physical
  • Chemical
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5
Q

What are the two different types of etiology?

A
  • Congenital
  • Acquired
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6
Q

How the disease process evolves, the sequence of cellular and tissue events that take place from initiation

A

Pathogenesis

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7
Q

These are objective and something an observer can see

A

Signs

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8
Q

These are subjective and what the person with the disease feels and tells you about

A

Symptoms

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9
Q

A compilation of signs and symptoms that are characteristic of a disease state

A

Syndrome

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10
Q

The designation as to the nature or cause of a health problem

A

Diagnosis

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11
Q

The study of factors, events, and circumstances that influence the transmission of infectious diseases among human populations

A

Epidemiology

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12
Q

The number of new cases arising in a population at risk during a specified time; the information on the risk of contracting the disease, probability of being diagnosed - the number of new cases of an infectious disease that occur within a defined population and time

A

Incidence

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13
Q

A measure of existing disease in a population at a given point in time; how widespread the disease is - the number of active cases at any given time

A

Prevalence

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14
Q

The causes of death in a population

A

Mortality

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15
Q

The effects an illness has on a person’s life (long-term consequences)

A

Morbidity

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16
Q

This type of disease prevention means keeping the disease from occuring by removing risk factors

A

Primary prevention

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17
Q

This type of disease prevention means detecting disease early when it is still asymptomatic and treatment can affect a cure or stop progression

A

Secondary prevention

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18
Q

This type of disease prevention includes clinical interventions that prevent further deterioration or reduce complications once a disease is diagnosed

A

Tertiary prevention

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19
Q

The smallest functional unit that has the characteristics necessary for life - most disease processes begin at this level

A

Cells

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20
Q

What are the three major components of the eukaryotic cell

A

Nucleus, cytoplasm, and cell membrane

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21
Q

This part of the cell contains DNA, instruction on how to make proteins, and is the site for RNA synthesis

A

Nucleus

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22
Q

This part of the cell controls cell shape and movement and is made of microtubules to develop and maintain cell from

A

Cytoskeleton

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23
Q

Scheduled/programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

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24
Q

Cell death due to injury or infection

A

Necrosis

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25
Q

When large amounts of tissue undergo necrosis

A

Gangrene

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26
Q

When cells surround and take in materials from their surrounding

A

Endocytosis

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27
Q

Known as cell drinking

A

Pinocytosis

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28
Q

Known as cell eating

A

Phagocytosis

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29
Q

Secretion of intracellular substances into extracellular spaces

A

Exocytosis

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30
Q

This term means:
- New growth
- Growth is uncoordinated and relatively autonomous
- Lacks normal regulatory controls over cell growth and division
- Tends to increase in size and grow after stimulus ceases or needs of the organism are met

A

Neoplasia

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31
Q

Mass of cells due to overgrowth

A

Tumors

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32
Q

Benign tumor of glandular epithelial tissue

A

Adenoma

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33
Q

Malignant tumor of glandular epithelial tissue

A

Adenocarcinoma

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34
Q

Malignant tumor of epithelial tissue

A

Carcinoma

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35
Q

Benign tumor of bone tissue

A

Osteoma

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36
Q

Benign microscopic or macroscopic finger-like projections growing on a surface

A

Papillomas

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37
Q

Less common tumor that grows in connective tissue such as bones, muscles, tendons, cartilage, nerves, fat, and blood vessels

A

Sarcoma

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38
Q

Evidence of a genetic trait - may or may not be visible to the naked eye

A

Gene expression

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39
Q

22 pairs of chromosomes alike in both males and females

A

Autosomal chromosomes

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40
Q

This disorder occurs in one of the 22 pairs of chromosomes

A

Autosomal disorders

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41
Q

Persons in whom the two alleles of a given pair are the same (AA or aa)

A

Homozygous

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42
Q

Persons having different alleles (Aa) at a gene locus

A

Heterozygous

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43
Q

These disorders are due to a combination of chromosomal and environmental factors

A

Multifactorial disorders

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44
Q

A connective tissue disorder manifested by changes in the skeleton, eyes, and cardiovascular system - autosomal dominant

A

Marfan syndrome

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45
Q

A condition involving neurogenic tumors that arise from Schwann cells and other elements of the peripheral nervous system - autosomal dominant

A

Neurofibromatosis (NF)

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46
Q

A rare metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency of the liver enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase - autosomal recessive

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

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47
Q

A variant of a class of lysosomal storage diseases, known as gangliosidosis - the membranes of nervous tissue that are deposited in neurons of the central nervous system and retina because of a failure of lysosomal degradation - autosomal recessive

A

Tay-Sachs Disease

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48
Q

Trisomy 21 is known as

A

Down syndrome

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49
Q

This chromosomal disorder occurs in females and is due to an alteration in chromosome number

A

Monosomy X (Turner syndrome)

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50
Q

This chromosomal disorder occurs in males and is due to an alteration in chromosome number

A

Polysomy X (Klinefelter syndrome)

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51
Q

This stage of general adaptation syndrome involves catecholamines and cortisol release

A

Alarm

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52
Q

This stage of general adaptation syndrome involves adapting and calming and techniques such as meditation and relaxation are used to extend it

A

Resistance

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53
Q

This stage of general adaptation syndrome occurs when one can no longer maintain normal

A

Exhaustion

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54
Q

When local inflammation or trauma occurs

A

Local adaptation syndrome

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55
Q

These are the smallest pathogens, have no organized cellular structure, are incapable of replication outside a living cell

A

Viruses

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56
Q

These reproduce by division and are larger than viruses

A

Bacteria

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57
Q

How are bacteria classified

A

By appearance and by gram-staining

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58
Q

Single-celled organisms that behave more like animals (small parasites)

A

Protozoa

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59
Q

These are larger than bacteria and have separate nucleus

A

Fungi

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60
Q

These are organisms that live off of other organisms (host) without benefit to the host

A

Parasites

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61
Q

Which cells work as phagocytotic cells during inflammation

A

Neutrophils

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62
Q

Which cells work during allergic reactions and parasitic infections

A

Eosinophils

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63
Q

Which cells produce Histamine during inflammation

A

Basophils and Mast cells

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64
Q

This is caused by:
- brief vasoconstriction
- rapid vasodilation (causes heat/redness)
- forces fluid into extracellular spaces (pain, swelling, loss of function)
- Cause ‘clampdown’ of vasculature to decrease bleeding

A

Acute inflammation

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65
Q

The collective, coordinated response of the cells and molecules of the immune system

A

Immune defense

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66
Q

The natural resistance with which a person is born

A

Innate or nonspecific immunity

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67
Q

Developed resistance - the second line of defense, responding less rapidly than innate immunity but more effectively

A

Adaptive or specific immunity

68
Q

Proteins secreted by cells of the innate or adaptive immune systems to regulate and control immune response - primary function is to enhance the acquired immune response or regulate through suppression or enhancement of the inflammatory process

A

Cytokines

69
Q

Immunity mediated by antibodies in the blood produced by B lymphocytes - the principle defense against extracellular microbes and toxins

A

Humoral immunity

70
Q

Mediated by specific T lymphocytes - defends against intracellular microbes such as viruses

A

Cell-mediated immunity or cellular immunity

71
Q

These cells of the immune system specifically recognize and respond to foreign antigens

A

Lymphocytes

72
Q

What are the accessory cells of the immune system?

A

Macrophages (eating cells) and dendritic cells (communication cells)

73
Q

This system is found in the blood and complements the activity of antibodies (innate immunity)

A

Complement system

74
Q

What are the three stages of the complement system?

A
  • Initiation or activation: phagocytes “clear the way”
  • Amplification or inflammation: early inflammation triggered by cytokines
  • Late-stage membrane attack response: proteins bind to membranes of pathogens
75
Q

Substances foreign to the host that can stimulate an immune response leading to the destruction of the invaders

A

Antigens

76
Q

These are secreted in response to the presence of antigens

A

Antibodies

77
Q

This type of antibody displays antiviral, antitoxin, and antibacterial properties, and is responsible for protection of newborn; activates complement and binds to macrophages

A

IgG

78
Q

This antibody is the predominant Ig in body secretions; protects mucous membranes

A

IgA

79
Q

This antibody forms natural antibodies; prominent in early immune responses (first Ig formed by infant), activates complement

A

IgM

80
Q

This antibody is found on B lymphocytes and is needed for maturation of B cells

A

IgD

81
Q

This antibody binds to mast cells and basophils; involved in parasitic infections, allergic and hypersensitivity reactions

A

IgE

82
Q

This type of immunodeficiency is congenital or inherited and can include genetic abnormalities of the immune system

A

Primary

83
Q

This type of immunodeficiency is acquired later in life and can be due to malnutrition, infection, neoplastic disease and immunosuppressive therapy

A

Secondary

84
Q

A hypersensitive immune response to self

A

Autoimmunity

85
Q

A hypersensitive immune response to same species

A

Alloimmunity

86
Q

Excessive or inappropriate activation of the immune system

A

Hypersensitivity disorders

87
Q

This antigen is present on the membranes of body cells

A

Endogenous antigen

88
Q

This antigen is absorbed on the membrane surface

A

Exogenous antigen

89
Q

This type of tissue donation occurs when the donor and recipient are related or unrelated but share similar HLA types

A

Allogeneic

90
Q

This type of tissue donation occurs when the donor and recipient are identical twins

A

Syngeneic

91
Q

This type of tissue donation occurs when the donor and recipient are the same person

A

Autologous

92
Q

This type of transplant rejection occurs almost immediately after transplantation and produced by existing recipient antibodies to graft antigens initiating a type III, Arthus-type hypersensitivity reaction

A

Hyperacute reaction

93
Q

This type of transplant rejection occurs within the first few months after transplantation with signs of organ failure; T lymphocytes respond to antigens in the graft tissue

A

Acute rejection

94
Q

This part of the kidney reabsorbs water, electrolytes, and other substances needed to maintain the constancy of the internal environment into the bloodstream - secretes other unneeded materials into the tubular filtrate for elimination

A

The nephrons

95
Q

A unique, high-pressure capillary filtration system located between the afferent and the efferent arterioles

A

Glomerulus Capillary System

96
Q

Which endocrine function of the kidney plays an important part in regulation of blood pressure

A

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

97
Q

Which endocrine function of the kidney regulates the differentiation of red blood cells in bone marrow

A

Erythropoietin

98
Q

Which endocrine function of the kidney increases calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract and helps regulate calcium deposition in bone

A

Vitamin D

99
Q

Approximately how much urine is produced by the kidneys each day?

A

1.5L

100
Q

This provides a valuable index of the hydration status and functional ability of the kidneys

A

Urine specific gravity

101
Q

Healthy kidneys can produce concentrated urine with a specific gravity of _____

A

1.030 to 1.040

102
Q

What are the factors affecting the glomerular filtration rate?

A
  • Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure
  • Glomerular capillary osmotic pressure
  • Hydrostatic and osmotic pressures in the Bowman capsule
103
Q

In addition to the GFR, this is used in estimating the functional capacity of the kidneys

A

Serum creatinine level

104
Q

Failure of an organ to develop normally

A

Dysgenesis

105
Q

The complete failure of an organ to develop

A

Agenesis

106
Q

Failure of an organ to reach normal size

A

Hypoplasia

107
Q

This type of incontinence is characterized by involuntary loss of urine during coughing, laughing, sneezing, or lifting - increases intra-abdominal pressure

A

Stress incontinence

108
Q

This type of incontinence is characterized by involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong desire to void (urgency)

A

Urge incontinence

109
Q

This type of incontinence is characterized by involuntary loss of urine that occurs when intravascular pressure exceeds the maximal urethral pressure because of bladder distention in the absence of detrusor activity

A

Overflow incontinence

110
Q

This type of incontinence is a combination of stress and urge incontinence

A

Mixed incontinence

111
Q

This type of incontinence is characterized by physical or behavioral issues that do not allow a person to get to the restroom and urinate appropriately

A

Functional incontinence

112
Q

A painful inflammation of the bladder wall
- Etiology: bladder tissue defect or autoimmune
- End stage: bladder hardens, bladder capacity is low, persistent pain
- Has two types: Non-ulcerative and ulcerative

A

Interstitial Cystitis

113
Q

Type of interstitial cystitis characterized by pinpoint hemorrhages in bladder wall due to inflammation

A

Non-ulcerative (90%)

114
Q

This type of interstitial cystitis is know for Hunner’s ulcers

A

Ulcerative

115
Q

Most common type of UTI - lower UTI infection in the bladder or urethra

A

Cystitis

116
Q

More serious type of UTI - upper UTI infection in the ureters or kidney

A

Pyelonephritis

117
Q

Manifestations of this condition include: dysuria, incontinence, urgency, frequency, burning, dark and foul-smelling urine, hematuria, confusion, behavioral changes (especially in the elderly), fever, chills, lower back pain, discharge, nausea/vomiting

A

UTI

118
Q

What are the two most common pathogens found when diagnosing a UTI?

A

E. Coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae

119
Q

This disease is characterized by an infection of the kidney parenchyma and renal pelvis caused by gram-negative bacterial infection generally originating in the urethra or bladder or other infection within the body; common in diabetics

A

Pyelonephritis

120
Q

Complications of this disease include acute kidney injury, renal abscesses, renal papillary necrosis, emphysematous pyelonephritis, and kidney scarring

A

Pyelonephritis

121
Q

Hardened crystalized deposits made of minerals and salt within the kidneys - most commonly make of calcium deposits (90%)

A

Nephrolithiasis - Renal Calculi (Kidney stones)

122
Q

What are the different types of kidney stones?

A
  • Calcium stones (most common): oxalate or phosphate
  • Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones
  • Uric acid stones
  • Cystine stones
123
Q

In this disease, urine is backed up into the kidney; usually due to a kidney stone or obstruction. Involves dilation of renal pelvis and calyces of one or both kidneys secondary to disease.

Manifestations: flank pain, hematuria, dysuria, decreased urine output, frequency, urgency, vomiting, abdominal distensions, UTIs

A

Hydronephrosis

124
Q

Fluid-filled sacs or segments of a dilated nephron
Caused by tubular obstructions that increase intratubular pressure and changes in the basement membrane of the renal tubules that predispose to cystic dilation

A

Cystic disease of the kidney

125
Q

What are the different types of cystic diseases of the kidney?

A
  • Simple and acquired renal cysts
  • Medullary cystic disease
  • Polycystic kidney disease
126
Q

An inherited, genetic disorder (90% carry the autosomal dominant form while only 10% carry the recessive form)
Manifestations include: multiple fluid-filled sacs on the kidneys, enlarging them and inhibiting function

A

Polycystic Kidney Disease

127
Q

Treatment for this disease includes symptom management by controlling BP through the use of ACE inhibitors and Angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, low sodium diet, exercise and stress reduction, pain control, fluids, dialysis, and surgery

A

Polycystic Kidney Disease

128
Q

This disease is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli; tends to affect both kidneys and impairs the kidneys ability to excrete waste and excess fluid

A

Glomerulonephritis

129
Q

What are the two types of glomerulonephritis?

A

Nephrotic and Nephritic

130
Q

This type of glomerulonephritis is characterized by excretion of excessive amounts of protein

A

Nephrotic syndrome

131
Q

This type of glomerulonephritis is characterized by proliferative inflammatory injury, hematuria and elevated blood pressure, and decreased GFR and impaired renal function

A

Nephritic syndrome

132
Q

Possible causes of this disease include declining testosterone, increasing estrogen, rising dihydrotestosterone which causes stomal cell proliferation; failure of prostate cells to mature and undergo apoptosis properly.
Growth pushes on and closes the urethra
Manifestations include: frequency, urgency, retention, difficulty initiating urination, weak stream, dribbling, nocturia

A

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

133
Q

This kidney tumor occurs during childhood between 3 to 5 years of age, can occur in one or both kidneys, and has the WT1 mutation on chromosome 11

A

Wilms tumor

134
Q

What is the name of the adult kidney cancer?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

135
Q

A condition in which the kidneys fail to remove metabolic end products from the blood and regulate the fluid, electrolyte, and pH balance of the extracellular fluids
Underlying causes include: renal disease, systemic disease, and urologic defects of nonrenal origin

A

Renal failure

136
Q

This type of renal failure is abrupt in onset and is often reversible if recognized early and treated appropriately

A

Acute renal failure

137
Q

This type of renal failure causes irreparable damage to the kidneys and develops slowly, usually over the course of a number of years

A

Chronic renal failure

138
Q

Kidneys can no longer filter the blood, waste collects and chemicals in blood can become imbalanced.
Causes include: conditions that slow blood flow to the kidneys, direct damage to the kidneys, blockage of ureters, sepsis, drugs/medications, major alcohol consumption

A

Acute Renal Failure (ARF)

139
Q

Other causes of ARF could be…

A
  • Pre Renal: a blood flow problem that leads to ARF
  • Intra Renal: something going on with the kidney to cause it to not filter properly
  • Post Renal: obstruction - such as a kidney stone
140
Q

What are the pre renal causes of acute renal failure?

A
  • Hypovolemia (dehydration)
  • Decreased vascular filling
  • Heart failure and cardiogenic shock
  • Decreased renal perfusion due to vasoactive mediators, drugs, diagnostic agents
141
Q

What are the different phases of AKI?

A
  • Asymptomatic: nephrons still functioning are compensating for those that are not
  • Oliguric: impaired glomerular filtration decreases solute and water excretion
  • Diuretic: function gradually returns but tubular damage causes them to be leaky
  • Recovery: full function is slowly regained
142
Q

What are the two main causes of Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)?

A

High blood pressure (HTN) and diabetes

143
Q

Kidney damage or decrease in function for 3 months or longer; five stages with the first being most mild and the 5th being kidney failure (fatal without dialysis/treatment)

A

Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)

144
Q

This disease has no cure due to irreversible damage - one can stop smoking, control DM, HTN

A

Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)

145
Q

Clinical manifestations of this disease include: accumulation of nitrogenous wastes, alterations in water, electrolyte, and acid-base balance, mineral and skeletal disorders, anemia and coagulation disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, neurologic complications

A

Chronic Renal Failure

146
Q

What are the stages of the progression of chronic renal failure?

A
  • Mild reduction of GFR to 60 to 89 mL/min/1.73m2
  • Moderate reduction of GFR to 30 to 59 mL/min/1.73m2
  • Severe reduction of GFR to 15 to 29 mL/min/1.73m2
  • Kidney failure with a GFR < 15 mL/min/1.73m2, with a need for renal replacement therapy
147
Q

What are the two types of dialysis used for persons with chronic renal failure?

A
  • Hemodialysis: requires going to a site with dialysis machine, done 2-3 times a week, blood with run through a machine and filtered
  • Peritoneal: abdominal dialysis with a port IV in the stomach
148
Q

What are the other treatments for renal failure?

A
  • Dietary management: protein restricted, carbohydrates, fat and calories increased to meet energy needs, and sodium and fluid intake adjusted per individual
149
Q

Complications of this disease include: anemia, cardiovascular disease, decreased sex drive, erectile dysfunction, decreased fertility, fluid retention, pulmonary edema, hyperkalemia, and weakened immune system

A

Chronic Kidney Disease

150
Q

This type of arrhythmia is generated in the SA node, atria, AV node and junctional tissues

A

Supraventricular arrhythmia

151
Q

This type of arrhythmia is generated in the ventricular conduction system and the ventricular muscle

A

Ventricular arrhythmia

152
Q

This degree of a heart block is indicated by slow conduction from atria to ventricles

A

First degree

153
Q

Where do heart blocks occur?

A

At the AV node

154
Q

This degree of heart block is indicated by lost ventricular beats after atrial beats

A

Second degree

155
Q

This degree of heart block is indicated by no connection between atrial and ventricular beats

A

Third degree

156
Q

This type of supraventricular arrhythmia is characterized by an excitable focus outside the normal SA node

A

Ectopic beats

157
Q

Ectopic pacemaker in ventricle initiates a beat

A

Premature Ventricular Complex (PVC) - won’t show a P wave on an EKG because the atria is not conducting

158
Q

Ectopic pacemaker in the atria initiates a beat

A

Premature Atrial Complex (PAC)

159
Q

This supraventricular arrhythmia is characterized by disorganized conduction in the atria and poor control of ventricular beats

A

Atrial Fibrillation

160
Q

This supraventricular arrhythmia is characterized by circular pattern of conduction in the atria and regular pattern of ventricular firing

A

Atrial Flutter

161
Q

This ventricular arrhythmia is characterized by a conduction delay through the ventricles - can be right or left sided

A

Bundle Branch Blocks

162
Q

This ventricular arrhythmia is characterized by rapid ventricular beats in regular pattern - requires shock to stop and correct electrical pattern

A

Ventricular Tachycardia

163
Q

This ventricular arrhythmia is characterized by poorly conducted and disorganized firing of ventricular cardiac cells - no pulse; shock required

A

Ventricular Fibrillation

164
Q

Can detect electrical activity on the heart monitor, but it is not translated into a pulse - no heart beat, severe shock

A

Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)

165
Q

This term means flat line of the heart’s electrical activity

A

Asystole

pathophysiology (2 decks)

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