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Spinal Anatomy 2 > Exam 1 Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Exam 1 Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult?

A

26 segments

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2
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical spine?

A

24 segments

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3
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

the 24 presacral segments; cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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4
Q

Which mammals do not have seven cervical vertebrae?

A
  • two toed sloth
  • manatee
  • three toed sloth
  • ant bear
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5
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebrae?

A
  • three toed sloth

- ant bear

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6
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A
  • two toed sloth

- manatee

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7
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

The neck region

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8
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

The loin; region between the rib and the hip

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9
Q

What does the term “coccxy” refer to?

A

A cuckoo birds’ bill or beak

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10
Q

Which variations account for the disparity in number and morphology of vertebrae within the population?

A
  • gender variation or sexual dimorphism
  • ontogenetic variation
  • geographic or population based variation
  • idiosyncratic variation
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11
Q

Differences in the number and morphology of vertebrae within the population based on the variation between individuals is identified as which type of variation?

A

Idiosyncratic variation

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12
Q

What is the length of the typical male spinal column?

A

70 centimeters or 28 inches

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13
Q

What is the length of the typical female spinal column?

A

60 centimeters or 25 inches

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14
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region?

A

12 centimeters or 5 inches

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15
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

28 centimeters or 11 inches

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16
Q

What is the length of the male lumbar region?

A

18 centimeters or 7 inches

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17
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum?

A

12 centimeters or 5 inches

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18
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?

A

58 centimeters or 23 inches

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19
Q

How does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation?

A

Ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

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20
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accommodate weight bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at the auricular surface

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21
Q

What specifically is responsible for the shape and position of the human frame?

A
  • Comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the vertebral body
  • Comparative anterior vs. posterior height of the intervertebral disc
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22
Q

What organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull?

A
  • Eye

- Vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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23
Q

What is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine?

A
  • Cervical: rectangular
  • Thoracic: triangular
  • Lumbar: reniform
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24
Q

What are the ages of appearance and the events occurring at each step in the formation of bone at the superior and inferior surface of the vertebral body?

A
  • Age 7-9: appearance of epiphyseal plate centers of ossification
  • Age 12: formation of epiphyseal ring
  • Age 15: formation of epiphyseal rim
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25
Q

What are the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body?

A

Nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

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26
Q

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

A

Basivertebral venous foramen

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27
Q

What is the name given to the large vessel exiting the back of the vertebral body?

A

Basivertebral vein

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28
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A
  • Cervical: posterolateral
  • Thoracic: posterior, slight lateral
  • Lumbar: posterior
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29
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

Ligamentum flavum

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30
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

Accessory bone

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31
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-ray?

A

Shingling

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32
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A
  • Cervical: anterolateral
  • Thoracic: posterolateral
  • Lumbar: lateral
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33
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

The growth of the lungs to remodel the shape of the ribs, which in turn push the transverse processes backward

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34
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis?

A

Superior articular facet

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35
Q

What is the name given to the bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis?

A

Inferior articular facet

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36
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the _______.

A

Pre-zygapophysis

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37
Q

In the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the ________.

A

Post-zygapophysis

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38
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A
  • Inferior articular process/Post-zygapophysis
  • Superior articular process/Pre-zygapophysis
  • Capsular ligament
  • Ligamentum flavum
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39
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

Inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

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40
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

Superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

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41
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A
  • Vertebral body of segment above
  • Vertebral body of segment below
  • Intervertebral disc
  • Posterior longitudinal ligament
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42
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process/spinous apophysis?

A

Calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process/spinal apophysis and horizontal plane

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43
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes/spinous apophysis in as seen on x-ray?

A

Imbrication

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44
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process /spinous apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

Cervical- slight angle inferiorly
Thoracic- noticeable angle inferiorly
Lumbar- no inferior angle

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45
Q

What neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2?

A
  • Spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis
  • Proximal part of the peripheral nerve system
  • Meninges
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46
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A
  • Cervical: triangular
  • Thoracic: oval
  • Lumbar: triangular
  • Sacrum: triangular
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47
Q

Identify the meninges of the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis and the commonly accepted meaning of each.

A
  • Dura mater: tough mother
  • Arachnoid mater: spider mother
  • Pia mater: tender/delicate mother
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48
Q

Name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord/spinal medulla/medulla spinalis.

A

-Epidural space: between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater
-Subdural space: between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
Subarachnoid space: between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater

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49
Q

What are the contents of the epidural space?

A
  • Anterior & posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
  • Anterior & posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
  • Basivertebral vein
  • Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
  • Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
  • Ligamentum flavum
  • Posterior longitudinal ligament
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50
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body?

A
  • Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
  • Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
  • Basivertebral vein
  • Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral, sinus vertebral nerve
  • Posterior longitudinal ligament
  • Hofmann/anterior dural/meningovertebral ligaments
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51
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A
  • Anterior spinal canal artery & plexus
  • Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus
  • Basivertebral vein
  • Recurrent meningeal/sinu-vertebral/sinus vertebral nerve
  • Hofman/anterior dura/meningovertebral ligaments
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52
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

Interstitial fluid

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53
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subdural space?

A

Serous fluid

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54
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the subarachnoid space?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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55
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

Vertebral artery

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56
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

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57
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A
  • Right & left anterior spinal arteries
  • Right & left posterior spinal arteries
  • 4 communication arteries
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58
Q

What forms the vasa corona below C6?

A
  • Median anterior spinal artery
  • Right & left posterior spinal arteries
  • 3 communicating arteries
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59
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root?

A

Anterior radicular artery

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60
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

Posterior radicular artery

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61
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

Ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

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62
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply about one third of the spinal cord?

A

Pial perforating arteries

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63
Q

What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

Anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

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64
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

Pial veins

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65
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A
  • Right & left anterior longitudinal veins
  • Right & left posterior longitudinal veins
  • 4 communication veins
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66
Q

Which vessels will drain the ventral/anterior nerve roots?

A

Anteriors radicular veins

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67
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

Intervertebral veins

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68
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A
  • Anterior internal vertebral venous plexus

- Basivertebral vein

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69
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

Filum terminale internum

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70
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

Typically S2, the dural cul de sac

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71
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

Transverse

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72
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A
  • C3-T1: Cervical enlargement

* T9-T12: Lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement

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73
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

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74
Q

What is a generic cord level of origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar/lumbosacral enlargement?

A
  • L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra
  • L3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra
  • L5, S1 levels in T11 vertebra
  • S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra
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75
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

Conus medullaris

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76
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

Typically S4, S5 and Co1

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77
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

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78
Q

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

Cruciate anastomosis

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79
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

Cauda equina

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80
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

Filum terminale externum

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81
Q

What is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges?

A

Coccygeal medullary vestige

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82
Q

What is the name given to the condition where the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

Tethered cord syndrome

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83
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen?

A
  • The spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple
  • The rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple

EX. T3 nerve exits intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4

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84
Q

What are the four tissues of the human body?

A
  1. Epithelial
  2. Muscle
  3. Neural
  4. Connective tissue
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85
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A
  • Osteoblasts- form bone
  • Osteocytes- maintain/nurture bone
  • Osteoclasts- remodel bone
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86
Q

What is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

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87
Q

What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?

A
  • Chondroitin sulfates
  • Keratin sulfates
  • Hyaluronic acid
88
Q

What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?

A

Collagen type I

89
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite

90
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

It has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age

91
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

92
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

From the second to third month in utero

93
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

Endochondral ossification

94
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

From the second to fifth month in utero

95
Q

What bone of the axial skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

The clavicle

96
Q

What is the time of appearance of a primary center of ossification?

A

Before birth

97
Q

What is the time of appearance of a secondary center of ossification?

A

After birth

98
Q

What is the name given to the bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

Heterotopic bone

99
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

Accessory bone

100
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

Most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

101
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A
  • Parietal bone

- Sternum

102
Q

What are examples of pneumatic?

A
  • Frontal
  • Ethmoid
  • Maxilla
  • Sphenoid
  • Temporal
103
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A
  • Patella

- Pisiform

104
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A
  • Linear
  • Rounded
  • Sharp
105
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A
  • Tubercle
  • Protuberance
  • Trochanter
  • Tuber/tuberosity
  • Malleolus
106
Q

What are the categories of osseous depressions?

A
  • Linear depressions

- Rounded depressions

107
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A
  • Notch/Incisure
  • Groove
  • Sulcus
108
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A
  • Fovea

- Fossa

109
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A
  • Ostium/Orifice

- Hiatus

110
Q

What are the names given to the osseous ostia which completely penetrate the bone?

A

Foramen or canal

111
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

An irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

112
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

Flat facets and rounded facets

113
Q

What is the definition of a flat osseous facet?

A

A relatively planar or slightly curvilinear surface on bone for osseous articulation

114
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

Articular heads and articular condyles

115
Q

What is the definition of an osseous condyle?

A

A knuckle-shaped surface on bone for osseous articulation

116
Q

How many bones form the typical adult axial skeleton?

A

80 bones

117
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible

A

The cranium

118
Q

What are the names given to the the top of the adult skull?

A

The calvaria or calva

119
Q

Which ribs are classified a typical ribs, true ribs/costa verae/vertebrosternal ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

Ribs 3-7

120
Q

Which ribs are classified as typical ribs, false ribs/costa spuriae and vertebrochondral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

Ribs 8 and 9

121
Q

Which ribs are classified as atypical ribs, false ribs/costa spuriae, and vertebral ribs in the typical adult skeleton?

A

Ribs 11 and 12

122
Q

What term is used to identify the study of joints?

A

Arthrology

123
Q

What term is used to identify the study of ligaments?

A

Syndesmology

124
Q

What are three histological classifications of joints?

A
  • Fibrous
  • Cartilaginous
  • Synovial fluid
125
Q

What were the three classifications of joints based on movement potentials?

A
  • Synarthrosis
  • Amphiarthrosis
  • Diarthrosis
126
Q

What is the classification of a joint with a “nail-like” condition?

A

Gomphosis

127
Q

What is the classification of a joint with a “fissure-like” condition?

A

Schindylesis

128
Q

What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?

A

Synchondrosis

129
Q

What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?

A

Symphysis

130
Q

What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?

A

Malocclusion

131
Q

What type of ossification pattern typically forms the true suture?

A

Intramembranous ossification

132
Q

What type of ossification pattern typically forms the false suture?

A

Endochondral ossification

133
Q

What is the synonym for amphiarthrosis joints?

A

Cartilage joint

134
Q

What is the classification of primary cartilage joints?

A

(amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

135
Q

What is the classification of a secondary cartilage joint?

A

(amphiarthrosis) symphysis

136
Q

What type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

Fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

137
Q

What is the synonym for amphiarthrosis joints?

A

Cartilage joint

138
Q

What is the classification of primary cartilage joints?

A

(amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

139
Q

What is the classification of a secondary cartilage joint?

A

(amphiarthrosis) symphysis

140
Q

What are four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A
  • Articular or fibrous capsule
  • Synovial membrane
  • Articular cartilage
  • Synovial fluid
141
Q

Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the_________.

A

Capsular ligament

142
Q

What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support the capsular ligament?

A

Intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

143
Q

What is the generic function of ligaments?

A

Stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint

144
Q

What are the characteristics of type I articular receptors?

A

Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule

  • Resemble Ruffini endings
  • Most numerous in cervical zygapophyses
  • Monitor the joint “at rest”
145
Q

Type II articular receptors morphologically resemble which type of sensory ending?

A

Pacinian corpuscle

146
Q

What is the function of type II articular receptors?

A

They monitor the joint during normal range of motion

147
Q

What are the characteristics of type II articular receptors?

A
  • Resemble pacinian corpuscles
  • Located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule
  • Most numerous in the cervical spine
  • Monitor the joint during normal range of motion
148
Q

What are the characteristics of type III articular receptors?

A
  • Resemble golgi tendon organs
  • Present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments
  • Not initially observed along the vertebral column
  • Monitor extreme joint motion
149
Q

Type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A
  • Fibrous capsule

- Articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels

150
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A
  • Accessory ligaments in general

- Dense posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

151
Q

What are the three classifications of synovial membrane?

A
  • Articular synovial membrane
  • Vaginal synovial membrane
  • Bursal synovial membrane
152
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A
  • Synovial villi/ Articular fat pads/ Haversian glands
  • Synovial menisci
  • Intra-articular discs
153
Q

What is the location of subcutaneous synovial bursa?

A

Bursa between integument and bone

154
Q

What is the location of subtendinous synovial bursa?

A

Bursa between a tendon and muscle and bone or cartilage

155
Q

What are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

They are phagocytic

156
Q

What are the specific functions of type B synovial cells?

A

Secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

157
Q

What are the primary constituents of articular cartilage?

A
  • Water
  • Cells
  • Collagen type II fibers
  • Proteoglycan gel
158
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

Form a network for water retention

159
Q

Cartilage is able to change shape due to compression, a characteristic known as ______.

A

Deformation

160
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

Cartilage can deform and return to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

161
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

Cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

162
Q

Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication

A
  • Weeping theory: implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film
  • Boosted theory: implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid
  • Boundary theory: implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is absorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed
163
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A
  • Yellowish-white
  • Viscous
  • Slightly alkaline
  • Tastes salty
164
Q

What substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

Hyaluronate

165
Q

What substance of synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

Lubricin

166
Q

What is a dialysate?

A

A separation phase of blood based on unequal diffusion through a semipermeable membrane

167
Q

What is transudate?

A

Any substance produced as a result of “sweating across” a membrane

168
Q

What is a compound synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

More than two articulating surfaces are present in the same synovial joint

169
Q

What is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

The articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc or meniscus

170
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A
  • (diarthrosis) Hinge/ginglymus

- (diarthrosis) Pivot/trochoid

171
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A
  • (diarthrosis) Bicondylar
  • (diarthrosis) Condylar
  • (diarthrosis) Ellipsoidal
  • (diarthrosis) Saddle/sellar
172
Q

What are the examples of synovial (diarthrosis) pivot/trochoid joints?

A

Median atlanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

173
Q

What is the shared morphological characteristic of synovial (diarthrosis) trochoid joints?

A

An osseous pivot point and an osteo-ligamentous ring

174
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) condylar or synovial (diarthrosis) bicondylar joints?

A
  • Temporomandibular joint

- Femur-tibia joint of the knee

175
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal joints?

A
  • Radiocarpal joint of the wrist
  • Metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand
  • Metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot
  • Atlanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
176
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) saddle/sellar joints?

A
  • Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
  • Talocrural joint of the ankle
  • Calcaneocuboid joint of the foot
177
Q

What are examples of synovial (diarthrosis) enarthrosis joints?

A
  • Femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip

- Humerus-glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

178
Q

At what location will the common carotid artery bifurcate?

A

The C3/C4 intervertebral disc at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage

179
Q

What are the regions/divisions of the internal carotid artery?

A
  • Cervical
  • Petrous
  • Cavernous
  • Cerebral
180
Q

What is the location for the petrous part of the internal carotid artery?

A

Carotid canal in petrous part of temporal bone

181
Q

What accompanies the cavernous division of the internal carotid artery in the middle cranial fossa?

A

Cavernous dural venous sinus

182
Q

What branch of the cavernous division on the internal carotid artery was stressed in the text?

A

The ophthalmic artery

183
Q

What are the segmental branches on the subclavian artery?

A
  • Vertebral artery
  • Ascending cervical artery
  • Deep cervical artery
184
Q

What is the location of origin of the axillary artery?

A

At the outer border of the first rib

185
Q

What is the segmental branch of the axillary artery?

A

Supreme (highest/superior) thoracic artery

186
Q

What branches of the thoracic descending aorta were stressed in the text?

A
  • Posterior intercostal artery

- Subcostal artery

187
Q

What parietal/dorsal branches of the abdominal descending aorta were stressed in the text?

A
  • Lumbar artery

- Median sacral artery

188
Q

What branches of the internal iliac artery were stressed in the text?

A
  • Iliolumbar artery

- Lateral sacral artery

189
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A
  • Iliolumbar artery
  • Lateral sacral artery
  • Median (middle) sacral artery
190
Q

What vessels form the retromandibular (posterior facial) vein?

A
  • Superficial temporal vein

- (Internal) Maxillary vein

191
Q

What will the inferior ophthalmic vein drain into?

A
  • Pterygoid venous plexus

- Cavernous dural venous sinus

192
Q

What is the purpose of lymphatic capillaries?

A

Remove excess plasma proteins from the interstitial space and prevent edema

193
Q

What characteristics of lymph capillaries were stressed in the text?

A
  • Begin as blind ended sacs
  • Have a greater luminal diameter than blood capillaries
  • More variable in luminal diameter than blood capillaries
  • More layered in plexus arrangement than blood capillaries
194
Q

How do the lymphatics (medium sized vessels) differ from veins?

A
  • More numerous
  • Possess more valves
  • Anastomose more frequently than veins
195
Q

What parts of the body will the right lymphatic duct drain?

A
  • Right side of head, neck, and thoracic parietal wall
  • Right upper extremity
  • Right lung
  • Convex (diaphragmatic) surface of the liver
196
Q

What is the location and structural origin for the thoracic duct?

A

L2 from the cisterna chyli

197
Q

What are examples of aggregate lymph nodules?

A

Peyer’s patches of the small intestine and the tonsils

198
Q

What are the functions of lymph nodules?

A
  • Lymphocytopoiesis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line)
  • To aid in immune response
199
Q

What is identified in the lymph node cortex?

A

Solitary lymph nodules

200
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A
  • Filter lymph (primary function)
  • Lymphocytopoiesis (perpetuation of the lymphocyte cell line)
  • Participate in immune response
201
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

Posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

202
Q

What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?

A

Posterior/kyphotic

203
Q

What accounts for the direction of the cervical curve?

A

The intervertebral disc height

204
Q

What is the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

Anterior/lordotic

205
Q

At which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

206
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A
  • Anterior groove
  • Posterior groove
  • Right and left uncinate processes
207
Q

What are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, lateral lip, or uncus

208
Q

What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?

A

Fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndemosis joint

209
Q

What is the joint classification for the posterior lip-posterior groove articulation?

A

Fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis joint

210
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

Catilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis joint

211
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

Five

212
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the lower surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

Five

213
Q

How many joint surfaces are preset on the vertebral body of a typical cervical

A

Ten

214
Q

How many synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

Four

215
Q

What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

Joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

216
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

Longus colli muscle

Spinal Anatomy 2 (2 decks)

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