Exam 1 Questions Flashcards
Which of the following is a defining characteristic of spina bifida occulta?
- A. Cyst-like protrusion through the posterior vertebral arch
- B. Non-fusion of the posterior vertebral arch with intact neural tissue
- C. Sac containing meninges, CSF, and spinal cord protruding through a defect
- D. Fatty mass over the lumbar or sacral spine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spina bifida occulta involves non-fusion of the posterior vertebral arch without neural tissue disturbance. It is often indicated by a tuft of hair or pigmentation at the site.
A sac containing meninges, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), and spinal cord protruding through a vertebral defect is termed:
- A. Meningocele
- B. Lipomeningocele
- C. Myelomeningocele
- D. Spina bifida occulta
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
- Myelomeningocele is characterized by a sac containing meninges, CSF, and neural tissue.
- This is the most severe form of spina bifida cystica.
Which prenatal diagnostic test is used to detect neural tube defects (NTDs) with a detection rate of approximately 89%?
- A. Amniocentesis combined with blood tests
- B. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels
- C. Cranial ultrasound
- D. MRI
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
- Amniocentesis combined with maternal blood tests (e.g., AFP levels) can detect approximately 89% of NTDs.
- AFP levels alone are less accurate.
Hydrocephalus in children with spina bifida is primarily caused by:
- A. Overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid
- B. Underproduction of cerebrospinal fluid flow
- C. Decreased absorption of cerebrospinal fluid
- D. Deformity of the cerebrum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
- Hydrocephalus in spina bifida is an overproduction of CSF, CSF absorption failure, or obstruction in CSF flow through brain structure and spinal cord
All of the following are signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in infants except:
- A. Bulging anterior fontanel
- B. Separation of cranial sutures
- C. Decreased head circumference
- D. Downward eye deviation (‘sunsetting’)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
- Decreased head circumference is not a sign of increased ICP.
- Signs include a bulging anterior fontanel, sutural separation, and ‘sunsetting’ of the eyes.
Which of the following is the most common surgical treatment for hydrocephalus in children with spina bifida?
- A. Posterior fossa decompression
- B. Cervical laminectomy
- C. Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt
- D. Ventriculoatrial (VA) shunt
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
- A Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt shunt is the preferred treatment for hydrocephalus, diverting excess CSF from the ventricles to the peritoneal cavity.
Which motor level in spina bifida is associated with minimal hip flexion and adduction, weak quads, and the need for HKAFOs or RGOs?
- A. Thoracic level
- B. High lumbar (L1-L3)
- C. Low lumbar (L4-L5)
- D. Sacral level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
- High lumbar lesions (L1-L3) present with minimal hip flexion and adduction, weak quads, and require high-level orthoses like HKAFOs or RGOs.
A tethered cord in spina bifida is caused by:
A. Excess cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles
B. Adhesions anchoring the spinal cord at the site of the lesion
C. Progressive scoliosis due to muscle imbalance
D. Herniation of the cerebellum through the foramen magnum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
- Tethered cord occurs when adhesions anchor the spinal cord at the lesion site, preventing upward movement and causing metabolic and ischemic changes.
A child with spina bifida presents with scoliosis above the level of paralysis and progressive lower extremity weakness. The most likely cause is:
- A. Hydromyelia
- B. Tethered cord syndrome
- C. Arnold-Chiari malformation
- D. Lumbar lordosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
- Tethered cord syndrome can lead to scoliosis above the level of paralysis and progressive weakness due to stretching and ischemia of the neural tissue.
- TCS occurs when adhesions anchor the spinal cord at the site of the original lesion.
Which of the following orthoses is appropriate for a child with sacral-level spina bifida and weak plantar flexors?
- A. HKAFO
- B. KAFO
- C. AFO
- D. Supra-malleolar orthosis (SMO)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
- An AFO with ground reaction force control supports weak plantar flexors and improves alignment during gait, suitable for sacral-level involvement.
Which of the following interventions is most important to prevent hip subluxation in children with high lumbar (L1-L3) spina bifida?
- A. Nightly total contact orthoses
- B. Daily passive range of motion (PROM)
- C. Early surgical hip relocation
- D. Standing programs with abduction positioning
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
- Daily PROM is crucial to maintain hip mobility and prevent contractures that contribute to subluxation.
- Surgical relocation is often avoided due to complications.
The ‘lemon sign’ on fetal ultrasound, indicative of spina bifida, refers to:
- A. Flattening of the occipital bone
- B. Flattening of the frontal bones
- C. Enlargement of the ventricles
- D. Herniation of brain tissue
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
- The ‘lemon sign’ refers to the flattening of the frontal bones, often visible before 24 weeks gestation and associated with spina bifida.
Adaptive equipment is classified into all of the following categories except:
- A. Assistive technology
- B. Alternative technology
- C. Augmentative technology
- D. Replacement technology
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
- Replacement technology is not a recognized classification.
- The three primary classifications are assistive (enhances function), alternative (substitutes for a function), and augmentative (supplements a deficient function).
Which of the following is an example of low-tech adaptive equipment?
- A. Eye gaze communication device
- B. Powered wheelchair
- C. Pencil grip
- D. Computer with voice recognition
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
- Low-tech devices are simple, cost-effective, and non-electronic solutions like pencil grips or footrests.
- The other options fall into mid-tech (e.g., powered toys) or high-tech (e.g., computers with voice recognition).
A child with severe trunk instability and hypotonia who struggles to maintain an upright posture during feeding would most benefit from a:
- A. Prone stander
- B. Supportive seating system with lateral trunk supports
- C. Sit-to-stand device
- D. Static supine stander
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
- Children with trunk instability benefit from seating systems with lateral supports to provide a secure base of support, improving function and participation in activities like feeding.
If a child requires a device to supplement speech due to inadequate verbal communication, which of the following adaptive technologies is most appropriate?
- A. Alternative technology
- B. Assistive technology
- C. Augmentative technology
- D. High-tech technology
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
- Augmentative technology, such as speech-generating devices, supplements existing but insufficient verbal communication capabilities.
All of the following are benefits of adaptive equipment in pediatric physical therapy except:
- A. Reinforces movements and skills learned during therapy
- B. Reduces the need for caregiver assistance at home
- C. Improves functional independence with limited reliance on PT
- D. Permanently corrects underlying musculoskeletal deformities
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
- Adaptive equipment supports functional independence and reinforces therapy skills but does not permanently correct deformities.
- Surgical or other medical interventions may be required for structural changes.
A child with retained primitive reflexes, such as ATNR or TLR, might need adaptive equipment designed to:
- A. Restrict or inhibit the influence of reflexes
- B. Increase ROM through prolonged static stretching
- C. Substitute for lost motor functions
- D. Provide high-tech sensory integration
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
- Adaptive equipment, like positioning devices, can help inhibit primitive reflexes that interfere with postural control and functional mobility.
A 5-year-old child has minimal hip abduction, increased extensor tone, and difficulty maintaining alignment during sitting. What adaptive equipment would best support their alignment?
- A. Prone stander
- B. Supine stander
- C. Seating system with hip guides
- D. Posterior walker
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
- Hip guides provide support for children with limited hip abduction, improving postural alignment and reducing extensor tone during sitting.
The benefits of standing devices include all of the following except:
- A. Increased lower extremity weight-bearing
- B. Improved bone mineral density
- C. Enhanced proprioceptive awareness
- D. Complete resolution of spasticity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
- Standing devices can modulate spasticity and improve weight-bearing and bone health, but they do not completely resolve spasticity, which often requires additional interventions.
Which of the following features of a seating system is critical for preventing extensor posturing in a child?
- A. Adjustable footplates for proper ankle dorsiflexion
- B. A backrest reclined to 120 degrees
- C. A seat-to-backrest angle of 95-110 degrees
- D. Removable lateral trunk supports
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
- A slight ‘dump’ (angle closer to 90 degrees) increases hip flexion and discourages extensor posturing, helping the child maintain better postural alignment.
A family is unable to afford a high-tech powered wheelchair for their child. What funding source is most likely to cover the cost if the equipment is deemed necessary for the child’s education?
- A. Medicaid waiver
- B. Private insurance
- C. IDEA through an IEP or IFSP
- D. Community philanthropic organizations
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
- The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) mandates funding for equipment required for educational access and inclusion, provided it’s included in the child’s IEP or IFSP.
Which of the following is an example of a thermal burn?
- A. Contact with faulty electrical wiring
- B. Prolonged exposure to ultraviolet radiation
- C. Scalding from hot liquids
- D. Chemical exposure to acidic solutions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
- Scalding from hot liquids is a thermal burn, which occurs due to heat sources like hot liquids, fires, or steam.
- Other options refer to electrical, radiation, or chemical burns.
A child presents with a red burn that does not blister and heals within a week. What classification best describes this burn?
- A. Superficial (1st degree)
- B. Superficial partial-thickness (2nd degree)
- C. Deep partial-thickness (2nd degree)
- D. Full-thickness (3rd degree)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
- Superficial burns involve only the epidermis, are red without blistering, and heal without scarring within 3-7 days.