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NUR 266 - Professional Nursing 1 > Exam 1 Prep > Flashcards

Exam 1 Prep Flashcards

1
Q

This theorist said that the goal of nursing is to facilitate the reparative process of the body by manipulating the patient’s environment.

A

Nightingale - 1860

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2
Q

This theorist said that the goal of nursing is to develop interaction between the nurse and patient.

A

Peplau - 1952

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3
Q

This theorist said that the goal of nursing is to work interdependently with other health care workers, assisting the patient in gaining independence as quickly as possible; help patient gain the lacking strength.

A

Henderson - 1955

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4
Q

This theorist said that the goal of nursing was to care for and help the patient attain total self-care.

A

Orem - 1971

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5
Q

This theorist said that the goal of nursing is to use communication to help the patient reestablish positive adaption to the environment.

A

King - 1971

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6
Q

This theorist said that the goal of nursing is to help individuals, families, and groups attain and maintain maximal levels of total wellness by purposeful interventions.

A

Neuman - 1974

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7
Q

This theorist said that the goal of nursing is to provide care consistent with nursing’s emerging science and knowledge with caring as the central focus.

A

Leininger - 1978

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8
Q

This theorist said that the goal of nursing is to identify types of demands place on patients, assess adaptation to demands, and help the patient adapt.

A

Roy - 1970

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9
Q

This theorist said that the goal of nursing is to promote health, restore patient to health, and prevent illness.

A

Watson - 1979

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10
Q

This theorist said that the goal of nursing is to focus on the patient’s need for caring as a means of coping with stressors of illness.

A

Benner and Wrubel - 1989

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11
Q

This theorist said that the framework for practice is that the nurse manipulates the patient’s environment to include appropriate noise, nutrition, hygiene, light, comfort, socialization, and hope.

A

Nightingale - 1860

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12
Q

This theorist said that the framework for practice is that nursing is a significant, therapeutic, interpersonal process. Nurses participate in structuring healthcare systems to facilitate interpersonal relationships.

A

Peplau - 1952

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13
Q

This theorist said that the framework for practice is that nurses help patients perform 14 basic needs including things like breathing normally, eat and drink, sleep and get adequate rest, worship according to one’s faith, etc.

A

Henderson - 1955

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14
Q

This theorist said that the framework for practice is that nursing care is necessary when the patient is unable to fulfill biological, psychological, developmental, or social needs.

A

Orem - 1971

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15
Q

This theorist said that the framework for practice is that nursing is a dynamic interpersonal process among nurse, patient, and health care system.

A

King - 1971

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16
Q

This theorist said that the framework for practice is that stress reduction is goal of the systems model of nursing practice. Nursing actions are in the primary, secondary, or tertiary level of prevention.

A

Neuman - 1974

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17
Q

This theorist said that the framework for practice with the transcultural care theory, caring is the central and unifying domain for nursing knowledge and practice.

A

Leininger - 1978

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18
Q

This theorist said that the framework for practice is the adaptation model based on the physiological , psychological, sociological, and dependence-independence adaptive modes.

A

Roy - 1970

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19
Q

This theorist said that the framework for practice involves the philosophy and science of caring. Caring is an interpersonal process comprising interventions to meet human needs.

A

Watson - 1979

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20
Q

This theorist said that the framework for practice is that caring is central to the essence of nursing. It create the possibilities for coping and enables possibilities for connecting with and concern for others.

A

Benner and Wrubel - 1989

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21
Q

This communication skill requires the use of all of the senses to assess verbal and
non-verbal communication. Also requires examination of one’s reactions to messages received. Creates an environment that fosters trust while providing evidence of genuine interest in the client

A

Active listening

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22
Q

This communication skill is the expression of thoughts, opinions, ideas, and rights in a confident manner that respects both self and others. It promotes mutuality in relationships, goal-setting, team building, and conflict resolution

A

assertiveness

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23
Q

This communication skill is a request for additional input in order to understand the message sent/received. It demonstrates the desire to understand the client’s communicated message

A

clarification

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24
Q

This communication skill is the positive resolution of conflicts between opposing demands through the art of negotiation. It strengthens relationships while building trust and collaboration.

A

conflict resolution

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25
Q

This communication skill makes one aware of incongruence and/or discrepancies between one’s behavior and what one says. The recognition of behavioral and verbal discrepancies can assist client’s to make changes.

A

confrontation

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26
Q

This communication skill uses questions and statements that help a client to expand upon or to develop an idea/topic/subject. It Facilitates dialogue while helping the client focus or concentrate on a topic.

A

focusing

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27
Q

This communication skill utilizes the expression of feelings and/or thoughts in a way that is comical, amusing, or funny. It can reduce stress and anxiety while allowing for expression of challenging thoughts and ideas.

A

humor

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28
Q

This communication skill is giving facts or information when the client seeks or asks for information. It facilitates informed decision making.

A

imparting information

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29
Q

This communication skill uses diffusion of tension while effectively resolving conflicts and stressful interpersonal interactions. It fosters participatory decision making.

A

negotiation

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30
Q

This communication skill is seeking feedback and/or securing information. It builds rapport and trust while eliciting data.

A

questioning (open and closed)

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31
Q

This communication skill uses statements based on the client’s comments to confirm assertions or assumptions. It elicits ideas, information, interpretations, and ideas that are important to the client

A

reflection

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32
Q

This communication skill is repeating what is believed to be the main idea of the client’s words. It requests validation of the message received from the client.

A

restatement

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33
Q

This communication skill is sharing carefully selected personal information for the purpose of meeting the client’s needs. It can foster trust, convey empathy, reduce fears, and normalize the client’s experiences

A

self-disclosure

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34
Q

This communication skill is a period of time in which no verbal communication takes place. It provides time for organization of thoughts and/or ideas.

A

silence

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35
Q

This communication skill is the statement of main ideas discussed during an interaction. It is important for validation and clarification of interaction.

A

summarization

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36
Q

This communication skill is clarification of insinuated or implied messages (verbal and/or non-verbal). It validates perceptions in order to understand the client’s message.

A

verbalizing the implied

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37
Q

This communication blocker is failure to receive the verbal or non-verbal message sent – lack of active listening. It ignores the needs of the client/sender and sends the message that the client is not important

A

failure to listen

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38
Q

This communication blocker is inadequate data collection by obtaining vague descriptions, eliciting incomplete answers, following stand forms too closely, and not exploring the client’s interpretation. It generates an inadequate database which prevents appropriate assessment of data in order to formulate nursing diagnoses and leads to lack of individualization of client care

A

incomplete questioning

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39
Q

This communication blocker is the continual repetition of client’s phrases (over-reliance on restatement). It projects the message that one is either not listening or is not an effective communicator – deters the development of trust and rapport.

A

parroting

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40
Q

This communication blocker is conveying approval or disapproval of behaviors, lifestyle, communication etc. via verbal or non-verbal communication methods. It implies that the nurse has the right to judge the client’s behaviors and/or communication as appropriate or inappropriate. Deters the development of a trusting relationship

A

judgment/moralizing

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41
Q

This communication blocker is attempting to reassure client and/or instill false hope via verbal interactions. It negates and/or minimizes the fears and feelings of the client. Does not allow for exploration of feelings

A

false reassurance

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42
Q

This communication blocker is the refusal to discuss certain valid topics with the client due to discomfort on the part of the nurse. It prevents the client from communicating his/her needs, feelings, fears, thoughts etc. May lead to feelings of rejection

A

rejection

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43
Q

This communication blocker is protecting someone or something from negative feedback. It negates the right of the client to express his/her opinions or thoughts.

A

defensiveness

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44
Q

This communication blocker is the use of trite, meaningless verbal expressions when responding to the client. It negates the worth of the client and shuts down communication by ignoring client’s needs.

A

cliche/canned responses

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45
Q

This communication blocker is telling or informing the client what the nurse thinks the client should do in a certain situation. It does not promote mutual decision making. Negates the client’s right to autonomy

A

giving advice

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46
Q

This communication blocker is minimizing and or mocking the client’s concerns or fears. It shuts down communication and deters development of trust/empathy.

A

belittling

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47
Q

This communication blocker is using language or terms unfamiliar to the client. It shuts down communication due to lack of understanding – can also be interpreted as patronizing by the client.

A

use of jargon

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48
Q

This communication blocker is a style of communication that displays a condescending attitude. It implies inequality in the relationship and places the nurse in a position of superiority.

A

patronizing

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49
Q

This term is defined as the legal, ethical, and moral obligation to other persons, groups, organizations, and societies.

A

accountability

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50
Q

Name some of the nursing developments that happened between 1860 and the beginning of the 20th c.

A

American Red Cross was ratified, Mary Mahoney the first Af. Am nurse was trained, the ANA was started, Henry Street Settlement helped NYC poor.

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51
Q

Name some of the nursing developments of the 20th century.

A

nursing evolved as a scientific research based practice, nurses began taking on advanced practice roles, Army/Navy nurse corps were est., nursing specialization developed and more specialty nursing organizations were created.

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52
Q

Name some of the nursing developments of the 21st century.

A

ethics are the forefront, revision of nursing school curricula, advances in tech/informatics along with high acuity force nurses to have a strong knowledge base. end of life care issues are getting more attention.

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53
Q

This term refers to a discipline involving knowledge, service, and an extended period of education, training, and work experience.

A

profession

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54
Q

This term refers to the expectations of behavior, norms and values that are demonstrated of represent a profession. It can be individuals or on a greater scale as a group.

A

professionalism

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55
Q

A transformative process into becoming a member of a profession and also promoting a discipline as a profession.

A

professionalization

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56
Q

Name the seven components of a profession.

A

specialized education, body of knowledge, service orientation, ongoing research, code of ethics, autonomy, professional organizations

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57
Q

Name the 5 types of nursing education.

A

Pre-licensure education preparing to become an (RN), graduate education in nursing, doctoral education in nursing, continuing education units, in-service education.

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58
Q

What are the three ways to become an RN?

A

hospital based training programs that hand out a diploma, ADN degrees, BSN degrees

59
Q

What is the importance of CEUs?

A

they make you accountable by keeping you up to date on the most current nursing practices

60
Q

These describe the responsibilities for which practitioners are accountable. They reflect the values and priorities of the profession. They also provide direction for professional practice and the framework for evaluating practice.

A

standards

61
Q

What is the value of using your first and last name as a nurse?

A

It exerts a level of authority and establishes credibility. Can use first name only later on to build rapport.

62
Q

Can an RN meet the legal, ethical, and moral obligations related to accountability without belonging to a professional organization?

A

No, because you don’t have access to resources, oversight, research and updates to practice.

63
Q

What are some ways that theory relates to nursing practice?

A

it generates nursing knowledge for use in pro nursing practice, directs how to use the nursing process (assess, diagnose, plan, implement, evaluate), provide accountability for pro nursing practice, adaptable to different patients in various settings.

64
Q

What are the four domains of nursing?

A

person, health, environment, nursing

65
Q

“a continuous and dynamic process whereby two or more individuals send, receive, and validate information exchanged among them. The information can be verbal, nonverbal, nonlinguistic, face to face, written, or virtual.” is the definition of what?

A

interpersonal communication

66
Q

What are the three context dimensions in the communication process?

A

physical (beside the hospital bed, in the hallway, in the bathroom), social/psychological (the status and/or the relationship of the participants, the roles and games that people play, involves the central rules of society), temporal (the time of day, the point in history).

67
Q

Name 4 forms of communication.

A

verbal, nonverbal, face to face, virtual

68
Q

Name some of the important aspects to consider with verbal communication.

A

vocabulary, denotative and connotative meaning, pacing, intonation, clarity and brevity, timing and relevance

69
Q

What is the difference between hearing and listening?

A

hearing is just an A&P process, listening is something we choose to do and is essential to good communication

70
Q

Name some forms of nonverbal communication.

A

artifacts (dress and belongings), haptics (touch), chronemics (time), kinesics (body language), proxemics (personal space)

71
Q

Speaking clearly and without ambiguity, being distinct is defined as what?

A

clarity

72
Q

Being short and sweet, expressing much with few words is defined as what?

A

brevity

73
Q

A person’s ability to engage in movement is the definition of what? Aka the peron’s ability to move about freely or a person’s “ability to engage in movement.”

A

mobility

74
Q

In terms of the nature of movement, coordinated efforts of the musculoskeletal system and nervous systems is known as what?

A

body mechanics

75
Q

Why do nurses care about body mechanics?

A

to avoid injury to yourself and your clients

76
Q

This term refers to the positioning of joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while standing, sitting or lying.

A

alignment and balance

77
Q

The force exerted by gravity, it is always directed downward.

A

weight

78
Q

The force that occurs in a direction opposite of movement. It can cause injury through skin tearing or shearing when moving clients.

A

friction

79
Q

How does one maximize balance?

A

by knowing where your source of gravity is and by taking a wide stance.

80
Q

What are some of the functions of the skeletal system?

A

provides attachments for muscles and ligaments, provides leverage for movement, protects organs, goes through hematopoeisis, store calcium

81
Q

What are some of the functions of the skeletal muscles?

A

movement of bones and joints

82
Q

What is the function of the nervous system in movement?

A

it regulates movement and posture

83
Q

What do ligaments do?

A

connect bone to bone (ex. anterior cruciate ligament)

84
Q

What do tendons do?

A

connect muscle to muscle (achilles tendon - the strongest in the body)

85
Q

What is the function of cartilage?

A

to join bones together and protect them.

86
Q

Why are isometric exercises contraindicated for someone with a heart attack or COPD?

A

because there is a lot of tension but no movement, which raises the blood pressure. Not good for these types of patients.

87
Q

List 3 reasons that nurses need to understand postural abnormalities.

A

some deformities may affect or limit ROM, we want our patients to have the maximal functioning possible, exercises and equipment can also cause pain, also want to be aware when moving a patient.

88
Q

Damage to the CNS will affect body alignment, balance and mobility. What are 3 potential sources of damage to the central nervous system?

A

head trauma, stroke, meningitis, injury to the cerebral cortex, parkinson’s

89
Q

What is the definition of a fracture?

A

a disruption of bone continuity usually caused by external trauma, can also have a pathological fracture which is caused by an illness like osteoporosis.

90
Q

This term is defined as the inability to move about freely or “impaired of altered ability to engage in movement”.

A

immobility

91
Q

This intervention restricts clients movement for therapeutic reasons. It isn’t used as much anymore because being on it for even 24 hours can lead to musculoskeletal deconditioning.

A

bed rest

92
Q

Name some physical causes of immobility.

A

broken bones, sever sprains, ligament damage

93
Q

Name some environmental causes of immobility.

A

incarceration, astronauts

94
Q

Name some neurological causes of immobility

A

trauma, neurodegenerative diseases, cerebral palsy, spinal injuries

95
Q

name some psychological causes of immobility

A

agoraphobia, depression, catatonia

96
Q

Name some medication causes of immobility.

A

sedation, anesthesia, versed, narcotics

97
Q

What are the metabolic hazards of immobility?

A

-Negative nitrogen balance caused by muscle loss, people have less appetite (compounded by depression and pain), harder strain on the kidneys due to processing extra protein.
Bones release calcium if you’re just sitting there altering their health/weakening them.

98
Q

What are some assessments for the metabolic hazards of immobility?

A

daily weights, lab work for calcium level, electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen level - a negative value would be bad.

99
Q

What are the cardiovascular hazards of immobility?

A

Heart pumps less efficiently, less cardiac muscle strength

  • blood pools in legs, arms, lower back
  • heart sometimes compensates by heart rate increasing and BP decreasing to try and move some of these fluids
100
Q

What are some assessments for the cardiovascular hazards of immobility?

A
  • check for edema indicative of pooling fluid (legs, feet, lower back)
  • check blood pressure and pulse
101
Q

What are the urinary/elimination hazards of immobility?

A
  • extra stress on kidneys because gravity isn’t helping - urine backs up
  • fluid/electrolyte imbalance leads to dehydration and issues like kidney stones and UTI
  • people eating less, not as much bowel activity and likely to have constipation or impacted. Narcotics make it worse, dehydration also worsens the problem.
102
Q

What are some assessments for the urinary/elimination hazards of immobility?

A
  • Look and see how concentrated urine is, cloudy, etc.
  • Intake and Output
  • Ask about BM and its qualities
  • Listen to bowel sounds - also can take awhile for bowel to start going through peristalsis.
103
Q

What are the respiratory hazards of immobility?

A
  • Secretions pool up d/t not coughing as effectively
  • breathing slowly and less deeply
  • risk of pneumonia
  • atelectasis (collapse of the lung)
104
Q

What are some assessments for the respiratory hazards of immobility?

A
  • Listen to lung sounds - crackles, etc. especially in the base of the lungs
  • Sometimes a cough and deep breathe program as a preventative
105
Q

What are some of the musculoskeletal hazards of immobility?

A
  • disuse atrophy and weakness - deconditioning

- contractures - joints get stuck in a position because the muscles are all stuck in a position

106
Q

What are some of the things you can do to prevent the musculoskeletal changes that accompany immobility?

A
  • the sooner you get them moving the better
  • don’t do something for someone that they can do themselves
  • encourage functioning
  • look at all muscle groups
  • move their joints to prevent contractures every so often, especially in older people
107
Q

What are some of the skeletal effects of immobility?

A
  • bones demineralize - calcium leaches out of the bones -weaker, fx. risk.
  • osteoporosis
108
Q

How can we assess for skeletal effects of immobility?

A

Ca+ labs, check their posture, bone pain

109
Q

What kind of integumentary hazards of immobility exist?

A
  • pressure ulcers
  • decreased circulation/edema
  • numbing, might not even realize they have a pressure sore
  • dehydration/fat loss
  • malnutrition
  • sweaty/incontinence - think diaper rash
  • fragile skin
110
Q

How do we assess and protect patients from the integumentary hazards of immobility?

A

check on skin integrity - Bradens scale (q2h), nothing wet or dirty on skin, no skin irritants, move q2h.

111
Q

How does cardiac function differ in an immobile patient?

A

the blood pools which increases the heart rate and decreases the stroke volume, also risk of orthostatic hypotension and blood clots.

112
Q

Where does blood initially pool in the body and what are the effects?

A

in the trunk, causing increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume

113
Q

If there is prolonged immobility, what does this do to the cardiovascular system?

A

it causes sluggish circulation and pooling of blood in the veins of the lower extremities

114
Q

The inflammation of a vein. this is frequently the result of immobilization.

A

phlebitis

115
Q

What 3 things make up Virchow’s triad and contribute to blood clots in the legs?

A

injury to the inside wall of the vessel, low blood flow due to immobilization, change in the blood components

116
Q

A blood clot that originates at the site of obstruction.

A

thrombus

117
Q

A blood clot that dislodged from a site of origin and moved within the system until it became stuck and caused an obstruction.

A

embolism

118
Q

A drop in blood pressure due to moving to an upright position (sitting/standing). Usually experience dizziness, fainting, pale, sweating, fast heart beat.

A

orthostatic hypotension (>than about 15mmhg drop in systolic, or >10 mmhg diastolic)

119
Q

Name some psychosocial effects of immobility.

A

emotional or behavioral responses (hostility, giddy, fear, anxiety), sensory alterations (sleep wake alterations after prolonged bedrest), changes in coping - out of proportion (depression, sadness, dejection)

120
Q

What’s the highest amount of weight a nurse should be lifting in a transfer?

A

35 lbs

121
Q

What are some tips to use when taking a patient for a walk?

A

do thorough assessment before starting the walk, explain the importance of walking, ask how far they can go, establish rest points, maintain center of gravity and encourage to walk upright, always use a gait belt and stand on the weak side of the client

122
Q

What are the 8 fall risk factors on the Hendrich II Fall Risk Model?

A

confusion or disorientation, symptomatic depression, altered elimination, dizziness or vertigo, male gender, epilepsy meds, benzodiazepines, poor performance on get up and go test

123
Q

What 4 things should you do after a fall occurs?

A

comprehensive assessment of patient, notify the doc and family, monitor and reassess, documentation

124
Q

What are the 4 categories of foreign born people?

A

legal immigrants, refugees, nonimmigrants, unauthorized immigrants

125
Q

Socially transmitted knowledge, behavior patterns, values, beliefs, norms, and lifestyles of a particular group that guides their worldview and decision making.

A

Culture

126
Q

A proposition asserting something to be true either of all members of a certain class or of an indefinite part of that class.

A

generalization

127
Q

Ascribing certain beliefs and behaviors about a given racial or ethnic group to an individual without assessing for individual differences.

A

stereotype

128
Q

the subordination of the personal interests and prerogatives of an individual to the values and demands of the family

A

familism

129
Q

The tendency to hold one’s own way of life as superior to that of others.

A

ethnocentrism

130
Q

the process of adopting the cultural traits or social patterns of another group

A

acculturation

131
Q

relating to or characteristic of a human group having racial, religious, linguistic, and certain other traits in common

A

ethnicity

132
Q

the insider’s perspective of a worldview is defined as this

A

emic worldview

133
Q

the outsider’s perspective of a worldview is defined as this.

A

etic worldview

134
Q

the act or process of to taking in and incorporating as one’s own

A

assimilation

135
Q

having two cultures at once, being a part of 2 worlds

A

biculturism

136
Q

being aware that cultural differences and similarities exist and have an effect on values, learning, and behaviors.

A

cultural sensitivity

137
Q

Process in which healthcare professionals continually strive to achieve the ability and availability to work effectively with individuals, families, and communities

A

cultural competence

138
Q

What are the various parts of Berlin and Fowkes LEARN model?

A

Listen to the patient’s perception of the problem, Explain your perception of the problem, Acknowledge and discuss the similarities and differences, Recommend treatment, Negotiate treatment

139
Q

What are some characteristics of cultural competence?

A

value diversity, cultural self-assessment, dynamics of interaction, cultural knowledge, adaptation of services reflecting cultural diversity

140
Q

What are some of the benefits of cultural competence?

A

more accurate diagnosis, more effective care plans, enhanced communication,patient adherence, address health disparities, earlier participation

141
Q

In terms of cultural competence, what is preservation?

A

you preserve the patient’s cultural elements as best possible

142
Q

In terms of cultural competence, what is accommodation?

A

Try to accommodate patients cultural needs so that they feel comfortable, minor changes to things to help them deal with medical situations.

143
Q

In terms of cultural competence, what is repatterning or brokering?

A

Trying to be an advocate/diplomat, your culturally compromising

NUR 266 - Professional Nursing 1 (3 decks)

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