Exam 1 Pharmacotherapeutics Flashcards

Lecture 4

1
Q

Pharmacotherapy relates to the use of drugs in the _____ and ____ of disease

A

Prevention and treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pharmacotherapeutics is the art and science of:

A

Applying drug-related didactic knowledge (pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics) and making therapeutic decision that are the most likely to benefit a specific patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or false: drug response varies between individuals

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Even the most selective agents evoke a spectrum of reactions rather than a single pharmacologic outcome. Why?

A
  • target receptor is located in other organs and tissues
  • Drug may be selective but not specific so may have effects at other receptors (high doses)
  • Nonselective effects may cause GI upset
  • A therapeutic dose for one person may ineffective or toxic to another
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What factors influence drug effects?

A
  • Patient factors
  • Drug factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Examples of patient factors

A
  • Body weight and composition
  • Age
  • Genetic influences
  • Sex
  • Pregnancy
  • Environmental factors
  • Diet
  • Physiologic variables
  • Pathologic factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Examples of pathologic factors

A
  • Hepatic dysfunction
  • Renal disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Examples of drug factors

A
  • Variables in drug administration
  • Drug tolerance
  • Drug interactions
  • Extension effects
  • Side effects
  • Idiosyncratic reactions
  • Drug allergy
  • Drug poisoning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Vd is a function of body mass. Extremes in patient size may result in:

A

Significant differences in plasma concentration when given a standard adult dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Two heavy patients, one obese and one muscular, may react ____ if given the standard dose

A

Differently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Adipose tissue contributes ____ to body water. So an obese person may be _____ but may also show resistance to ____

A

Little; More susceptible to a dose based on weight (mg drug per kg of body weight); Lipophilic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

For children, adjustments based on ____ are helpful

A

Age and weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Children often require ____ mg/kg weight doses

A

Larger (attributable to increased rate of elimination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Geriatric patients are frequently ____ to drugs and have ____ metabolism and excretion

A

Hyperreactive; decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neonates can experience drug accumulation due to:

A

Immature livers and kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ experience greater effects from drugs entering the CNS due to immature BBB

A

Neonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Children may experience abnormal growth effects due to:

A

Staining of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Children may experience abnormal growth effects due to:

A

Hormonal effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Children may have greater sensitivity to some drugs due to:

A

Higher metabolic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Geriatric patients may be hyperreactive to drugs because of:

A
  • reduced elimination
  • existing pathology
  • drug-drug interactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For some drugs, information may be lacking due to:

A

Exclusion of female subjects from drug studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dosage adjustments may be necessary for women because:

A

They tend to be smaller and have a higher % body fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

For women, ____ may have possible drug interactions

A

Systemic contraceptives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

There are decreased levels of ____ in pregnancy

A

Albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why is renal excretion increased in pregnant women?

A

Elevated cardiac output and glomerular filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

During pregnancy, what is the Pregnane X receptor?

A

Nuclear receptor activated by elevated estrogen and progesterone levels that increases expression of CYP3A4 (more drugs metabolized during pregnancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True or false: many drugs are proven to be safe for fetus

A

False - few if any (best to avoid medications when possible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

There is a ____ of embryonic and fetal development. Defects vary with ____

A

Sequential pattern; Action of drug and timing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Between fertilization to 20 days, fetus either ______ to drug insult

A

Survives or succumbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Teratogenic malformations are possible from ____ to ____

A

21 days (somites appear) to end of first trimester (differentiation/organogenesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which drugs have toxic effects during pregnancy?

A
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Cortisone
  • Diazepam
  • Local anesthetics
  • Opioid analgesics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What toxic effect do ACE inhibitors have on fetus?

A

Renal toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What toxic effect does cortisone have on fetus?

A

Cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What toxic effect does diazepam have on fetus?

A
  • Cleft palate
  • Respiratory depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What toxic effect does local anesthetic have on fetus?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • Respiratory depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What toxic effect does opioid analgesics have on fetus?

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

True or false: there is clear data regarding the use of local anesthetics during pregnancy

A

False; however, even with a small risk, only urgent or emergency treatment should be provided during the 1st trimester. Regular dental care should not be postposed once patient is in 2nd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What environmental factors may influence response to drugs?

A

Temperature, sunlight, altitude

39
Q

What can happen to children taking atropine on a warm day?

A

Antimuscarinic, decreases saliva and sweating that can cause hyperthermia

40
Q

Why would sunlight influence response to drugs?

A

Causes photosensitivity - skin reactions to sulfonamides/ sulfa drugs (act as photosensitizers that absorb and transfer energy)

41
Q

Nitrous oxide is more or less effective in high altitudes?

A

Less (reduction in partial pressure of nitrous oxide)

42
Q

Diet: use of insulin must be ____ to dietary intake to avoid hypoglycemia/hyperglycemia

A

Carefully matched

43
Q

Diet: grapefruit juice contains substances that inhibit ____

A

CYP3A enzymes

44
Q

Examples of physiologic variables

A
  • Salt and water balance
  • Exercise
  • Sleep
  • Body temperature
  • Blood pressure
  • Gastric, urinary, plasma pH
45
Q

Infected tissues tend to be more ____

A

Acidic

46
Q

Pathologic factors: altered patient reactivity most commonly involve?

A

Organs of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion

47
Q

Hepatic dysfunction can ____ the metabolism and biliary excretion of drugs

A

Dramatically reduce

48
Q

Characteristics of hepatic dysfunction

A
  • Reduced blood flow slows delivery of drugs to the liver
  • Reduced transport can inhibit the uptake of drugs and export of metabolites
  • Altered CYP450 expression
49
Q

In renal disease, plasma half-times of drugs eliminated in the urine are ____ by renal failure

A

Greatly prolonged

50
Q

True or false: even if a drug is inactivated by the liver, inadequate excretion of metabolites may increase incidence of side effects

A

True

51
Q

Renal status is measured by:

A

Endogenous creatinine clearance (indicator of GFR)

52
Q

A 50% decrease in creatinine clearance indicates:

A

2x increase in half-time of a drug that is removed solely by glomerular filtration

53
Q

What should you do to avoid excessive drug accumulation in patients with renal disease?

A
  • Lengthen the dosage interval in accordance with degree of impaired elimination
  • Or, reduce dose
54
Q

Memorize table for dosage adjustments in renal failure

A
55
Q

You can minimize significance of side effects if an agent is given before:

A

Sleep (ex. nausea associated with opioids, sedative properties of antihistamines)

56
Q

Agent producing CNS stimulation is best given when?

A

During the day

57
Q

Drugs dosed with meals is to limit:

A

GI upset

58
Q

Duration of therapy should be limited when capable of producing:

A

Dependence or have potential for cumulative effects (chemotherapy)

59
Q

____ is a state of decreased responsiveness that develops on repeated or continuous exposure to the drug

A

Drug tolerance

60
Q

Two major categories of drug tolerance

A
  • Pharmacokinetic (effective drug conc is diminished)
  • Pharmacodynamic (reaction to a dose of a drug is reduced, receptor downregulation = cellular tolerance)
61
Q

Pharmacokinetic tolerance involves:

A

Induction of enzymes

62
Q

Pharmacodynamic tolerance involves:

A

Cell tolerance due to receptor changes and/or other cell changes

63
Q

Immune tolerance involves:

A

Antibodies bind to drug and inactivate

64
Q

Cellular tolerance involves:

A

Therapy results in changes in cells of a tissue

65
Q

Learned tolerance involves:

A

Individual uses coping skills to compensate for drug effects

66
Q

Drug interactions occur when:

A

The effect of one drug may be increased or decreased when administered with another drug

67
Q

Minimum number of medicines taken daily by 30% of patients aged 75 and older

A

10

68
Q

Adverse drug reactions: serious outcomes include?

A

Hospitalization, disability, congenital anomaly, life-threatening and/or other serious outcome

69
Q

Extension effects: prescribed dosages generally provide an intensity of effect that is ____

A

Submaximal (often the maximum effect is dangerous)

70
Q

Any adverse effect arising from an “extension” of the therapeutic effect is ____

A

Dose related and predictable (adjust the dose to avoid the effect without loss of therapeutic benefit)

71
Q

Furosemide is used for ____. The therapeutic effect is ____, but the toxic extension is _____

A

Edema and hypertension; diuresis; hypovolemia and hypotension

72
Q

Heparin is used for ____. The therapeutic effect is ____, but the toxic extension is _____

A

Thromboembolic disorders; inhibition of coagulation; spontaneous bleeding

73
Q

Insulin is used for ____. The therapeutic effect is ____, but the toxic extension is _____

A

Diabetes mellitus; reduction of blood glucose concentration; hypoglycemia

74
Q

____ are predictable, dose-dependent reactions unrelated to therapy but occur at therapeutic doses

A

Side effects

75
Q

Side effect of diphenhydramine

A

Xerostomia

76
Q

Side effect of phenytoin

A

Gingival enlargement

77
Q

Side effect of amoxicillin

A

Dermatitis

78
Q

Side effect of lidocaine

A

Convulsions

79
Q

Side effect of erythromycin

A

Nausea, vomiting

80
Q

Side effect of morphine

A

Constipation

81
Q

Some side effects are due to the ____ tissue-receptor interaction, but in ____

A

Same; different tissue or organ

(example is atropine which results in xerostomia as a side effect - but can also be used to control excessive salivation during dental procedures)

82
Q

Amphetamine original use and subsequent use

A

CNS stimulant; ADHD

83
Q

Diphenhydramine original use and subsequent use

A

Antihistamine; sedative

84
Q

Lidocaine original use and subsequent use

A

Local anesthetic; antiarrhythmic

85
Q

Methadone original use and subsequent use

A

Analgesic; heroin substitute

86
Q

Metronidazole original use and subsequent use

A

Antiparasitic; antibacterial

87
Q

What is an idiosyncratic reaction?

A

A genetically determined abnormal response to a drug, unique or specific to the individual

88
Q

Genetic trait for idiosyncratic reaction is often ____ in the absence of the drug. Often appears as ____

A

silent; abnormal drug sensitivity

89
Q

Extension effects, side effects, and allergies are often falsely described as:

A

Idiosyncratic

90
Q

Example of idiosyncratic reaction

A

Genetic abnormality of low plasma cholinesterase + procaine or other ester local anesthetics –> local anesthetic toxicity

91
Q

Drug allergy is of ____ origin

A

Immunologic

92
Q

Distinguishing characteristics of drug allergy

A
  • Prior exposure to drug or related compound
  • Severity of response is dose independent
  • Nature of the effect is not a function of the drug but is of the immune mechanism involved
  • Unpredictable, may follow multiple doses without consequence
93
Q

Patients complaining or local anesthetic “allergy” are most often experiencing:

A

Pain, anxiety, or tachycardia - not a true allergic reaction

94
Q

American Association of Poison Control Centers
- In 2019, more than ____ human poison exposures in US
- Most poisonings were ____
- 13% of all poison exposures were believed to be ____

A
  • 2,000,000
  • children under 5 yers (43%)
  • suicide attempts