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Genetics > Exam 1 Molecular > Flashcards

Exam 1 Molecular Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Biology’s unifying principles

A

All organisms use genetic systems that have a number of features in common

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2
Q

Central Dogma

A

DNA->transcription->RNA->translation->amino acids-> protein

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3
Q

Molecular genetics focuses on

A

the level of the gene

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4
Q

Divisions of genetics

A

Molecular genetics, transmission genetics, and population genetics

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5
Q

Transmission genetics focuses on

A

heredity and how traits are passed from one generation to the next

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6
Q

Population genetics focuses on

A

the collection of genes within populations

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7
Q

Genome

A

complete set of genetic instructions for any organism

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8
Q

all genomes are composed of

A

nucleic acid, DNA or RNA

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9
Q

What makes a good genetic model

A

short generation time
large but manageable number of progeny
adaptability to laboratory environment
ability to be housed and propagated inexpensively

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10
Q

Two basic cell types

A

prokaryotic
eukaryotic

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11
Q

Prokaryotic cells

A

lack nuclear membrane, generally lack organelles

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12
Q

eukaryotic cells

A

posses nucleus and organelles

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13
Q

Fundamental unit of heredity

A

gene

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14
Q

Alleles

A

multiple forms of a gene

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15
Q

what determines the phenotype

A

genetics+environment

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16
Q

Genetic information is carried in

A

nucleic acids

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17
Q

Genes are located on

A

chromosomes

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18
Q

Chromosomes separate through the processes of

A

mitosis and meiosis

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19
Q

Mutations

A

permanent changes in genetic information that can be passed from cell to cell or from parent to offspring

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20
Q

Traits are affected by

A

multiple factors

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21
Q

Evolution is

A

genetic change

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22
Q

What is needed for inheritance

A

information storage
information copying (replication)
Information retrieval (translation)
Ability to vary

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23
Q

DNA was identified

A

before 1900 but it wasn’t until 1940s-1950s that we knew that DNA and not protein was the genetic material

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24
Q

DNA is a molecule composed of

A

repeating subunits (nucleic acids)

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25
Q

Three parts of DNA/RNA

A

Pentose sugar
Base
Phosphate

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26
Q

Pentose sugar is used as

A

an anchor
-DNA uses deoxyribose
-RNA uses ribose

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27
Q

Nitrogenous Bases

A

Purines-Adenine and Guanine
Pyrimidines- Cytosine, Thymine, Uracil

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28
Q

Purines

A

Adenine and Guanine

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29
Q

Pyrimidines

A

Cytosine
Thymine- only in DNA
Uracil- only in RNA

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30
Q

Nucleosides

A

base linked to sugar by 1’ carbon of pentose sugar

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31
Q

Nucleotides

A

phosphate group attached to the 5’ carbon

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32
Q

Phosphodiester bonds

A

covalent bonds between a phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3’ carbon of the next nucleotide’s sugar (5’ to 3’ linkage)

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33
Q

The two ends of the polynucleotide chain are

A

not the same
the 5’ end has a phosphate group attached to the 5’ carbon of the pentose sugar
the 3’ end has a hydroxyl group attached to the sugar’s 3’ carbon

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34
Q

A polynucleotide chain has

A

polarity

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35
Q

Base pairings

A

A-T
C-G
A-U RNA only

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36
Q

A-T bonding

A

two H bonds

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37
Q

C-G bonding

A

Three H bonds

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38
Q

Which nucleotide bonding is the strongest?

A

C-G bonding

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39
Q

Watson and Crick investigated the structure of DNA by

A

using all available information about the chemistry of DNA not by collecting new data

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40
Q

DNA is what type of structure

A

double helix

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41
Q

DNA strands are

A

antiparallel

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42
Q

What types of bonds are between the complimentary base pairs

A

hydrogen

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43
Q

The strands are arranged helically meaning

A

10 base pairs between each turn of the helix

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44
Q

If 10 bp per turn= 3.4 nm what is the distance between each pair

A

0.34 nm

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45
Q

If a single chromosome is 2.058 bp how long is it in meters

A

200 million bases

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46
Q

Genetic material must contain

A

all of the information for the cell structure and function of an organism- storage

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47
Q

1C Value

A

a single set of genes (or the number of unique DNA bases)
what we contribute to our offspring

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48
Q

Diploid

A

two copies of every base pair/gene
2C

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49
Q

Haploid

A

sperm and egg cells have only 1 copy
1C

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50
Q

What does N stand for

A

the number of chromosome molecules in a cell

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51
Q

DNA is _____ for compaction

A

supercoiled

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52
Q

Supercoiling relies on

A

topoisomerases

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53
Q

topoisomerases

A

enzymes that break the double helix
- rotate the ends then rejoin

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54
Q

Eukaryotic chromosomes have additional levels of compaction-

A

multiple linear chromosomes
also supercoiled
proteins including histones compact further

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55
Q

Chromatin

A

DNA with a protein scaffold

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56
Q

Histones

A

a group of basic proteins found in chromatin

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57
Q

Histones have

A

a net positive charge thus bind to negatively charged DNA

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58
Q

Histone sequences across species

A

is very similar

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59
Q

linker between nucleosomes

A

H1

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60
Q

Histones have two copies of _____ thus an octamer

A

H2B, H4, H3, and H2A

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61
Q

The fundamental repeating unit of chromatin

A

nucleosome

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62
Q

what is the structure of chromatin

A

beads on a string

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63
Q

Karyotype

A

a chart of chromosomes

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64
Q

how many chromosomes do humans have

A

23 pairs

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65
Q

Diploid eukaryotic cells have

A

two sets of chromosomes

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66
Q

Types of chromatin

A

euchromatin
Heterochromatin

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67
Q

Euchromatin

A

stains slightly, uncoiled except during cell division
holds active genes

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68
Q

Heterochromatin

A

stains darkly, more condensed
genetically inactive
found near centromeres, telomeres, and species-specific locations

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69
Q

Types of heterochromatin

A

Constitutive
facultative

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70
Q

Constitutive heterochromatin

A

involved in maintaining chromosome structure
includes centromeres and telomeres

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71
Q

Facultative heterochromatin

A

has the potential to become condensed, e.g. X chromosome inactivation

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72
Q

Centromeres

A

used by the cell during cell division to make sure that each daughter cell gets a copy of each chromosome
sites at which chromosomes attach to the mitotic and meiotic spindle

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73
Q

Where do kinetochores form and spindle microtubules attach

A

centromeres

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74
Q

Centromeres are responsible for

A

accurate segregation of the replicated chromosomes during meiosis and mitosis

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75
Q

Telomeres are located

A

at the ends of the chromosomes

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76
Q

Telomeres

A

short tandemly repeated sequences and other repeated sequences further in from the ends

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77
Q

What is the job of telomeres

A

adds new copies of the repeat so the chromosome isn’t destroyed by the loss of material after each round of synthesis

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78
Q

Circular genome

A

a form of closed -loop DNA that has no end

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79
Q

uniparental inherited

A

offspring inherit genotype from only one parent

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80
Q

Replicative segregation can lead to

A

both heteroplasmic and homoplasmic cells

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81
Q

Semiconservative

A

one strand of double helix is conserved, the other is new

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82
Q

Dispersive

A

each strand is a mix of old and new DNA

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83
Q

Conservative

A

one double helix is unchanged by the process, the other is completely new

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84
Q

Three proposed models of DNA replication

A

Conservative
dispersive
semi-conservative

85
Q

DNA structure was discovered in

A

1953

86
Q

Why do we use heavy nitrogen (N) in the experiment that demonstrated that replication is semi-conservative

A

?

87
Q

Raw materials of DNA synthesis

A

template
enzyme
substrates (raw materials)
Mg2+ ions

88
Q

What is the role of DNA polymerase in DNA synthesis

A

catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds

89
Q

DNA polymerase joins the ______ group of the last base in the DNA chain to the incoming ______ of a dNTP

A

3’-OH
5’ Phosphate

90
Q

Synthesis is

A

5’ to 3’

91
Q

How is it decided which dNTP to use

A

selected by the DNA polymerase 1 using the opposing base on the template strand

92
Q

When new DNA is synthesized from deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) the newly synthesized strand is

A

complementary and antiparallel to the template strand

93
Q

5 key elements of each replication fork

A
  1. helicase to unwind the DNA
  2. SSBP to protect ssDNA
  3. Gyrase to remove stain ahead of fork
  4. Primase to synthesize RNA primer
  5. DNA polymerase
94
Q

Okazaki fragments

A

?

95
Q

lagging strand

A

?

96
Q

leading strand

A

?

97
Q

Describe the process that happens at the DNA fork during DNA replication

A

?

98
Q

key factors of DNA replication in Eukaryotes

A

occurs in the nucleus during S phase of the cell cycle
is initiated by RNA primers
occurs in the 5’ to 3’ direction
semiconservative
initiated at the same time at many points (origins of replication) along the chromosome

99
Q

Packaging of newly replicated DNA

A

histones must first disassemble to allow DNA synthesis
synthesis of new histones is coordinated with DNA synthesis
Then must reassemble on two new chromosomes

100
Q

Main polymerases have a _____ activity
Why?

A

3’ to 5’
?

101
Q

Once DNA replication is complete, how do we package one copy of the DNA into one daughter cell and the other into another daughter cell

A

Mitosis

102
Q

5 phases of a cell life-cycle

A

G1
G0
S
G2
Mitosis

103
Q

What happens in the G1 stage

A

chromosome morphology changes from condensed to dispersed due to a change in the coiling fibers
the cell also prepares for S by producing RNA and protein
Contains the checkpoint

104
Q

Once a cell reaches the checkpoint in G1 can it go back?

A

no it must enter the S phase

105
Q

What happens in G0

A

quiescent phase of neither growing nor progressing to S
Mature muscle cells and neurons go into this phase

106
Q

What happens in the S phase

A

DNA untwists and replicates

107
Q

What happens in the G2 phase

A

DNA condenses- generally a short phase

108
Q

Mitosis is

A

the formation of two cells from one cell

109
Q

Mitosis has how many phases

A

5

110
Q

result of mitosis

A

2 daughter cells, each with a complete copy of the genome

111
Q

Phases of mitosis

A

Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase

112
Q

What happens in interphase

A

the cell grows, replicates its chromosomes, and prepares for cell division

113
Q

What happens in Prophase

A

Chromosomes condense
Two sister chromatids become detectable
Mitotic spindle assembles outside the nucleus and the envelope begins to break down

114
Q

At what stage in a cell’s lifecycle is the DNA replicated

A

S phase

115
Q

what happens during metaphase

A

chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate
centrosomes at opposite poles
microtubules from centrosomes to kinetochore
most condensed phase

116
Q

the number of chromosomes per cell equals the number of

A

functional centromeres

117
Q

What happens during anaphase

A

sister chromatids separate
chromosomes move towards opposite poles

118
Q

The number of DNA molecules per cell equals the

A

number of chromosomes when the chromosomes are unreplicated and twice the number of chromosomes when sister chromatids are present

119
Q

Product of meiosis

A

four daughter cells; each has half the genetic material of the parent cell (reduction)

120
Q

Number of chromosomes in a diploid cell

A

2N

121
Q

Number of chromosomes in a haploid cell

A

N

122
Q

Parts of Meiosis

A

Meiosis I
- prophase I, Metaphase I, anaphase I, Telophase 1, cell division
Meiosis II
- prophase II, Metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II, cell division

123
Q

Meiosis includes how many cell divisions

A

two

124
Q

the original cell is diploid with four chromosomes, after two meiotic division, each resulting cell is

A

haploid (1n) with two chromosomes

125
Q

Why are brothers and sisters so different if they have the same parents

A

we don’t get a complete copy of our mom’s mom’s chromosome or our mom’s dad’s chromosome
chromosomes cross-over during prophase I

126
Q

Chromosome crossover

A

when chromosomes line up they can switch parts

127
Q

Independent assortment

A

the random distribution of chromosomes in meiosis that produces genetic variation

128
Q

when the cell starts meiosis II it already has

A

two daughter cells, each one with a replicated copy of each chromosome

129
Q

In order for the cell to move past Metaphase II

A

fertilization has to take place

130
Q

Regulatory promoter is located

A

upstream of core promoter

131
Q

regulatory promoter

A

the binding site for transcription apparatus- RNA polymerase and it’s cofactors

132
Q

Transcription factors

A

bind at the regulatory promoter and affect the rate of transcription

133
Q

Enhancers

A

distal location that can enhance transcription

134
Q

Initiation

A

if the promoter (core and regulatory) and enhancers ‘say so’ a protein- coding gene is transcribed

135
Q

Elongation

A

keep adding nucleotides

136
Q

Termination

A

for RNA polymerase II there is no specific termination sequence
transcription can continue for 100s-1000s bp

137
Q

What is a gene

A

the fundamental unit of heredity

138
Q

Big picture of RNA processing

A

Start at a DNA template
RNA message- complimentary and antiparallel
Protein product

139
Q

With colinearity

A

the number of nucleotides in the gene is proportional to the number of amino acids in the protein

140
Q

Introns are found in

A

most eukaryote organisms

141
Q

Introns

A

a non-coding region of DNA that doesn’t code for a protein in between two regions that do

142
Q

Exon

A

region of DNA that codes for a protein

143
Q

In eukaryotes, intron size and number is related to

A

organism complexity

144
Q

Some introns have

A

regulatory roles

145
Q

introns tend to be _____ than exons

A

longer

146
Q

in order to have collinearity,

A

introns are spliced out by snRNPs in a spliceosome

147
Q

snRNPs

A

small nuclear nuclear ribonucleoproteins

148
Q

All sequences in DNA are transcribed into

A

a single RNA molecule

149
Q

mRNA

A

messenger RNA

150
Q

role of mRNA

A

carries the instructions to make a protein

151
Q

three primary regions of mature mRNA are the

A

5’ untranslated region
protein-coding region
3’ untranslated region

152
Q

5’ untranslated region

A

does not code for protein, ribosomes bind to 5’ end of transcript

153
Q

3’ untranslated region

A

not translated
affects stability of mRNA

154
Q

RNA transcribed in the

A

nucleus to produce primary transcript

155
Q

post-transcriptional modifications that can be made

A

addition of 5’ CAP
addition of Poly-A-Tail
introns spliced out

156
Q

5’ CAP

A

addition of extra guanine to 5’ end of primary transcript
addition of methyl groups to G and sometimes other bases

157
Q

5’CAP occurs

A

rapidly after transcription initiation

158
Q

Function of 5’ CAP

A

functions in initiation of translation
increases stability of transcript and influences splicing of introns

159
Q

Poly-A-Tail

A

plays a role in transfer of mRNA into cytoplasm
functions to alter the half-life of transcript

160
Q

RNA pol II does not have a

A

transcription sequence it keeps going

161
Q

primary transcript is

A

cleaved based on consensus sequence (AAUAA) in 3’ UTR, Polyadenylation signal

162
Q

polyadenylation signal

A

the consensus sequence in 3’ UTR that tells when to cleave the primary transcript

163
Q

Splicing

A

removes the introns so the DNA and Proteins can be colinear

164
Q

5’ splice donor site

A

GU (GT in DNA)

165
Q

3’ splice donor site

A

AG

166
Q

Splicesome

A

large, complex structure almost 300 proteins plus snRPS
removes introns from pre-RNA to generate mature RNA

167
Q

Process of splicing

A
  1. the mRNA is cut at the 5’ splice site
  2. the 5’ end of the intron attached to the branch point
  3. a cut is made at the 3’ splice site
  4. the intron is released as a lariat
  5. and the two exons are spliced together
  6. the bond holding the lariat is broken, and the linear intron is degraded
  7. the spliced mRNA is exported to the cytoplasm and translated
168
Q

Process of alternative splicing/ cleavage in thyroid cells versus brain cells

A
  1. in thyroid cells, cleavage and polyadenylation take place at the end of exon 4
  2. producing an mRNA that contains exons 1,2,3,4
  3. translation produces the hormone calcitonin
    Brain cells
  4. in brain cells, 3’ cleavage takes place at the end of exon 6
  5. during the splicing, exon 4 is eliminated with the five introns
  6. producing an mRNA that contains exons 1,2,3,4,5,6
  7. translation yields calcitonin-gene-related peptide
169
Q

where is the enhancer compared to an intron promotor

A

typically upstream

170
Q

why is there extra nucleotides on the end of a gene

A

room for error

171
Q

What are proteins

A

Functional molecules of the cell

172
Q

Enzymes

A

proteins that act as biological catalyst

173
Q

Structural proteins

A

membranes, filaments

174
Q

transporter proteins

A

allow things to move

175
Q

Regulatory proteins

A

transcription factors that bind to DNA

176
Q

Like DNA and RNA, protein

A

has a linear sequence and an alphabet
repeats similar but not identical units
have directionality

177
Q

Units that make up a protein

A

20 amino acids

178
Q

Amino end of an amino acid

A

has a free amino group (NH3)

179
Q

Carboxyl group of an amino acid

A

has a free carboxyl group (COO-)

180
Q

R group

A

differs in each amino acid

181
Q

Protein structures

A

Primary
secondary
tertiary
quaternary

182
Q

primary protein structure

A

sequence of AA

183
Q

secondary protein structure

A

interactions between AA (beta sheets, alpha helix)

184
Q

tertiary protein structure

A

structures after folding
overall 3-D structure

185
Q

quaternary

A

more than one polypeptide

186
Q

Domains

A

groups of AA that form a discrete functional unit

187
Q

Codon

A

three bases

188
Q

degenerate

A

redundancy
more than one codon for each AA

189
Q

First AA being translated

A

Met start codon
can occur internally as well

190
Q

Wobble

A

typically the 3rd base of the codon can vary

191
Q

synonymous

A

change in DNA sequence does not change AA

192
Q

non-synonymous

A

change in DNA sequences changes AA

193
Q

Nonsense

A

change in DNA introduces a stop codon

194
Q

AUG

A

start codon
methionine

195
Q

three stop codons

A

UAG
UAA
UGA

196
Q

reading frame

A

a way of dividing the sequence of nucleotides in a nucleic acid molecule into a set of consecutive, non overlapping triplets

197
Q

Each codon specifies the same AA in

A

almost all organisms, nearly universal

198
Q

The genetic code provides the

A

logic

199
Q

machinery that makes proteins

A

ribosomes

200
Q

Four phases of protein synthesis

A
  1. tRNA charging- binding tRNA to AA
  2. Initiation- start of translation
  3. elongation- synthesis of polypeptide chain
  4. termination- ending synthesis
201
Q

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

A

enzyme that attaches an amino avid to a tRNA

202
Q

Each aminoacyl-tRNA is

A

specific for a particular amino acid

203
Q

what forms the initiation complex recognizing the 5’ CAP

A

ribosome small subunit
initiation factors
initiator RNA

204
Q

When is the initiation complex added

A

just after transcription

205
Q

What does the initiation complex do

A

scans the mRNA until it finds the start codon

206
Q

translation stops when it encounters a __. Why?

A

stop codon
no incoming tRNA to match it to AA

207
Q

three sites that a ribosome can occupy

A

Aminoacyl A site- where charged tRNA enter ribosome
Peptidyl (P) site- where peptide bond is formed
Exit (E) site

208
Q

only codon to start in the P site

A

initiation codon met-tRNA

Genetics (5 decks)

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