Exam 1: Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Cell-mediated immunity is largely T-cell-driven, utilizing Th1 (CD4+) and cytotoxic T cell (CD8+), and is involved in responses to viral infection, graft rejection, chronic inflammation and tumor immunity. Which of the following is mismatched?

A. CD8 T cell: cytotoxicity
B. CD4 TH2 cell: cytotoxicity
C. CD4 TH1 cell: macrophage activation
D. CD4 TH2 cell: B-cell activation
E. CD4 TH1 cell: HIV infection
A

B. CD4 TH2 cell: cytotoxicity

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2
Q

Nearly one-third of the global population is infected with helminth parasites, rendering them among the most prevalent infectious agents in the world today, and they are responsible for many debilitating diseases and syndromes. Which of the following types of cells are notable for their presence at the sites of helminth infections?

A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils 
C. Lymphocytes 
D. Monocytes 
E. Neutrophils
A

B. Eosinophils

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3
Q

The term “central tolerance” has been used to describe a state which is established by mechanisms that operate during development of immune cells in the primary lymphoid organs, such as thymus and bone marrow. The central tolerance prevents immature immune cells expressing self antigen-specific receptors from becoming functionally mature cells. Which of the following is incorrect concerning immune tolerance?

A. Tolerance induction is antigen-specific.
B. Tolerance results from inactivation and/or elimination of B and/or T cells.
C. Tolerance can be induced in both young and old individuals.
D. Immature neutrophils are more susceptible to tolerance than mature
neutrophils.
E. The breakdown of tolerance can result in autoimmunity.

A

D. Immature neutrophils are more susceptible to tolerance than mature

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4
Q

Two separate properties of the MHC make it difficult for pathogens to evade immune responses. First, the MHC is polygenic: it contains several different MHC class I and MHC class II genes, so that every individual possesses a set of MHC molecules with different ranges of peptide-binding specificities. Second, the MHC is highly polymorphic; that is, there are multiple variants of each gene within the population as a whole. When the sequences of different MHC class I molecules are compared, the variation between molecules is concentrated within which of the following?

A. Areas of the molecule that bind CD4
B. Areas of the molecule that bind to the T cell receptor and to the antigenic peptide
C. Beta 2 microglobulin
D. the transmembrane domain of the alpha chain
E. the alpha 1 domain (the N terminal domain of the alpha chain)

A

B. Areas of the molecule that bind to the T cell receptor and to the antigenic peptide

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5
Q

The adaptive humoral immune response can be divided into primary and secondary responses. The primary immune response occurs when an antigen comes in contact to the immune system for the first time. The secondary immune response occurs when the second time (3rd, 4th, etc.) the person is exposed to the same antigen. The primary and secondary antibody responses differ in which of the following?

A. the predominant isotype generated.
B. the number of lymphocytes responding to antigen.
C. the speed at which antibodies appear in the serum.
D. the biologic functions manifested by the Ig isotypes produced.
E. All of the above.

A

E. All of the above.

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6
Q

The family of cytokines includes the inflammatory cytokines, growth factors, and chemokines. Cytokines have important roles in chemically induced tissue damage repair, in cancer development and progression, in the control of cell replication and apoptosis, and in the modulation of immune reactions such as sensitization. Which of the following statements regarding the functional properties of cytokines is false?

A. They typically have pleiotropic properties.
B. They often exhibit functional redundancy.
C. They often display antigen specificity.
D. They exhibit synergistic or antagonistic properties.
E. They assist in the regulation and development of immune effector cells.

A

C. They often display antigen specificity.

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7
Q

Leukocytes have a primary role in immune function. There are normally six different types of leukocyte found in the circulating blood: neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils,
monocytes, lymphocytes, and occasional plasma cells. The most abundant type of leukocyte in human peripheral blood is:

A. eosinophil 
B. basophil
C. neutrophil 
D. monocyte 
E. lymphocyte
A

C. neutrophil

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8
Q

The difference between tolerance and immunity depends upon the maturation status of the antigen presenting dendritic cells. What is the T-cell outcome of an antigen presentation event by a mature dendritic cell?

A. Anergy
B. Apoptosis 
C. Activation 
D. Ignorance 
E. Suppression
A

C. Activation

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9
Q

Extracellular pathogens replicate and/or persist on mucosal surfaces or in host tissues outside host cells and may rapidly spread or establish an infection. A person developed an extracellular bacterial infection, and lgM was made in response what is the most important protective function of IgM in this infection?

A. Antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity 
B. Complement activation
C. Direct lysis of bacterial cells 
D. Neutralization of bacterial toxins 
E. Opsonization
A

B. Complement activation

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10
Q

A virus is a small infectious organism - much smaller than a fungus or bacterium - that must invade a living cell to reproduce (replicate). A person develops a viral infection and both T and B cells become activated to fight the infection. In which way is antigen recognition by B cells different from antigen recognition by T cells?

A. B cells home to the paracortex of lymph nodes where they recognize the antigens trapped by helper T cells
B. B cells recognize the antigens that have been processed and presented by follicular dendritic cells
is a small infectious organism – much smaller than a fungus or bacterium – that
C. B cells undergo receptor editing to change receptors that fail to bind to an antigen
D. B cells utilize membrane immunoglobulin molecules to bind to antigen in its natural state
E. The antigen receptors on a single B cell have a broad specificity, and are able to recognize several chemically unrelated antigens

A

D. B cells utilize membrane immunoglobulin molecules to bind to antigen in its natural state

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11
Q

The intracellular signal initiated by antigen binding to the T-cell receptor is generated by which set of molecules expressed on the T cell membrane?

A. CD3 
B. CD4
C. CD28 
D. CD45 
E. CD152
A

A. CD3

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12
Q

Initial descriptions of TCRs were made 30 years ago primarily through similarity with immunoglobulin DNA sequences. Which of the following statements regarding T-cell receptor recognition of antigen is correct?

A. T-cell receptors recognize antigen only as a peptide bound to an MHC molecule.
B. T-cell receptors recognize antigens in their native form.
C. T-cell receptors, like B cell immunoglobulins, can recognize carbohydrate, lipid, and protein antigens.
D. Antigen processing occurs in extracellular spaces.
E. Like α/β T cells, γ/δ T cells are also restricted to the recognition of antigens presented by MHC molecules.

A

A. T-cell receptors recognize antigen only as a peptide bound to an MHC molecule.

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13
Q

The notion that specificity in adaptive immune responses derives from a clonal distribution of antigen receptors, coupled with requisite receptor ligation for activation, is the central argument of the generally accepted clonal selection hypothesis. Simply put, while billions of different antigen receptors can be made (in terms of antigen- binding specificity), each lymphocyte makes only one kind. Which of the following cell types do NOT have clonally distributed antigen receptors?

A. Natural killer cells
B. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
C. Naive B cells
D. Helper T lymphocytes
E. Memory B cells
A

A. Natural killer cells

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14
Q

An individual does not make an immune response to a self-protein because

A. self-proteins cannot be processed into peptides.
B. peptides from self-proteins cannot bind to MHC class I.
C. peptides from self-proteins cannot bind to MHC class II.
D. lymphocytes that express a receptor reactive to a self-protein are deleted by mechanisms of the central tolerance.
E. developing lymphocytes cannot rearrange V genes required to produce a receptor for self- proteins.
A

D. lymphocytes that express a receptor reactive to a self-protein are deleted by
mechanisms of the central tolerance.

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15
Q

A complete blood count (CBC) is a blood test used to evaluate your overall health and detect a wide range of disorders, including infections, anemia, and leukemia. CBC that indicates an elevated number of neutrophils would most likely consistent with which of the following conditions?

A. Chronic viral infection
B. Acute viral infection
C. Chronic helminth infection
D. Acute bacterial infection
E. Fungal infection
A

D. Acute bacterial infection

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16
Q

Checking the number of white blood cells in the blood is usually part of a CBC test. It may be used to look for conditions such as infection, inflammation, allergies, and leukemia. What is the term generally used to describe all white blood cells?

A. hematopoietic cells
B. myeloid progenitor
C. dendritic cells
D. monocytes
E. leukocytes
A

E. leukocytes

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17
Q

Which of the following is the site at which lymphocytes can leave the blood and gain entry into the lymph nodes and what lymphocyte cell surface protein mediates such access?

A. Lymphoid follicle: CD4
B. Germinal center: CD62L (L-selectin)
C. Lymphoid follicle: CD62L (L-selectin)
D. Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS): CCR7
E. High endothelial venules (HEV): CD62L (L-selectin)

A

E. High endothelial venules (HEV): CD62L (L-selectin)

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18
Q

Persons with helminth infections mount immunologic responses that involve IgE and eosinophils. Which two cytokines are most important for these responses to occur?

A. IL-1 and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
B. IL-4 and IL-5
C. IL- 10 and transforming growth factor beta (TGF-beta)
D. IL-12 and interferon gamma (IFN -y)
E. IFN-alpha and IFN-beta
A

B. IL-4 and IL-5

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19
Q

A 36-year-old woman with severe allergy to yellow jackets was stung multiple times at a soccer game. Within minutes she developed respiratory distress and became unconscious. Which mediator is primarily responsible for this reaction?

A. Complement 
B. IgG
C. Histamine
D. TNF
E. Norepinephrine
A

C. Histamine

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20
Q

Antigens from which one of the following microbes would be presented on MHC class I molecules by professional APCs?

A. Ascaris lumbricoides (a large roundworm)
B. Candida albicans (an opportunistic pathogenic yeast) C. Hemophilus influenzae (a Gram-negative bacterium)
D. Influenza virus (commonly known as the flu virus)
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae (a gram-positive bacterium)

A

D. Influenza virus (commonly known as the flu virus)

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21
Q

T Cell Receptor (TCR) activation promotes a number of signaling cascades that ultimately determine cell fate through regulating cytokine production, cell survival, proliferation, and differentiation. In T cells, signaling of TCR is performed by which of the following invariant signaling molecules?

A. CD3γ
B. CD3δ
C. CD3ε
D. ζ
E. All of the above.
A

E. All of the above.

22
Q

Macrophages are distributed in tissues throughout the body and contribute to both homeostasis and disease. Tissue macrophages can be derived from which type of circulating blood cell?

A. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte
B. Small lymphocyte
C. Monocyte
D. Basophil
E. Lymphoblast
A

C. Monocyte

23
Q

The TCR recognizes self or foreign antigens presented by MHC molecules. Engagement of the TCR triggers the formation of multi-molecular signalosomes that lead to the generation of second messengers and subsequent activation of multiple distal signaling cascades. When antigen binds to the T cell receptor, which of the following is involved in signal transduction?

A. CD3
B. CD21
C. LFA-1 (CD11a/CD18)
D. Iga/IgB
E. CD14
A

A. CD3

24
Q

Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are cells that can process a protein antigen, break it into peptides, and present it in conjunction with MHC molecules on the cell surface where it may interact with appropriate T cell receptors. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning the processing of an antigen, such as a bacterial protein, in the acid compartments of professional APC?

A. It results in production of potentially immunogenic peptides that associate with MHC class II molecules.
B. Predominantly exogenous antigens are processed by this pathway.
C. It may lead to activation of CD4+ T cells.
D. It may lead to the activation of CD8+ T cells.
E. Bacterially derived peptides displace a fragment of the invariant chain from the MHC class II binding groove.

A

D. It may lead to the activation of CD8+ T cells.

25
Q

There are five immunoglobulin classes (isotopes) of antibody molecules found in serum:
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE and IgD. Antibody classes also differ in their valency, i.e. the number of binding sites available to bind antigen. This arises from the ability of certain immunoglobulins to form multimers through linkage of their Fc domains via a J chain.
are five immunoglobulin classes (isotypes) of antibody molecules found in serum: For example, IgM is a pentamer of five identical “Y” shaped monomers. The relative level of specific IgM antibodies can be of diagnostic significance because

A. IgM is easier to detect than the other isotypes.
B. viral infection often results in very high IgM responses.
C. IgM antibodies are more often protective against reinfections than are the other isotypes.
D. relatively high levels of IgM often correlate with a first recent exposure to the inducing agent.

A

D. relatively high levels of IgM often correlate with a first recent exposure to the
inducing agent.

26
Q

Which immunoglobulin is secreted into the bloodstream as a monomeric form whereas it appears as a dimer in gastrointestinal fluid, colostrum, saliva, tears, and sweat?

A. IgA 
B. IgD 
C. IgE 
D. IgG 
E. IgM.
A

A. IgA

27
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins forms pentamers?

A. IgA 
B. IgD 
C. IgE 
D. IgG 
E. IgM
A

E. IgM

28
Q

Mast cells and basophils differ from each other in which of the following characteristics?

A. Inflammatory mediators are found in their granules
B. The immunologic reactions they participate
C. Their location
D. Their ability to synthesize lipid mediators
E. None of the above

A

C. Their location

29
Q

The host immune response is complex and largely successful in preventing microbial invasion and disease. Organisms have evolved means of evading host immune mechanisms. This interplay between pathogen and host immune response results in a delicate balance, the weight of which can shift in favor of the pathogen in the setting of immune deficiency states or in favor of the host with vaccination. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A. lymphocytes: innate immune response
B. natural killer cell: kills virus-infected cells
C. macrophage: phagocytosis and killing of microorganisms
D. erythrocyte: oxygen transport
E. eosinophil: defense against parasites.

A

A. lymphocytes: innate immune response

30
Q

A patient presents with a lymphocytosis (an increase in the number of lymphocytes in the blood) and enlarged lymph nodes, and a biopsy of the bone marrow is performed. Ninety percent of the patient’s bone marrow cells stain with a fluorescent antibody specific for CD3. Which of the following is a reasonable differential diagnosis in this patent?

A. AIDS
B. DiGeorge syndrome (thymus is missed) 
C. T cell leukemia
D. Cytomegalovirus infection
E. This is a normal laboratory finding.
A

C. T cell leukemia

31
Q

A 4-year-old child has atopic dermatitis due to severe allergies to dust animal dander, and many kinds of pollens. Mediators released from which cell type are responsible for the clinical manifestations immediately following exposure to these substances?

A. B cells
B. Macrophages
C. Mast cells
D. Th1 cells
E. Th2 cells
A

C. Mast cells

32
Q

Dendritic cells, macrophages, and what other cell types are considered “professional antigen presenting cells,” capable of antigen presentation to T helper cells?

A. B cells 
B. Basophils 
C. Eosinophils 
D. Mast cells 
E. Neutrophils
A

A. B cells

33
Q

In the setting of infectious diseases, antibody function refers to the biological effect that antibody has on a pathogen or its toxin. Antibodies can impact pathogens in the
setting of infectious diseases, antibody function refers to the biological effect that
presence or in the absence of effector cells or effector molecules. Which of the following statements about antibodies is NOT true?

A. They serve as membrane‐bound antigen receptors on the surface of B cells.
B. In secreted form, they serve as effector molecules that facilitate the elimination of microbes or toxins.
C. They are specific for proteins and polysaccharides exclusively.
D. They bind antigen with average higher affinity than do T cell receptors.
E. They are present in most biologic fluids in the body.

A

C. They are specific for proteins and polysaccharides exclusively.

34
Q

The MHC class I antigen presentation pathway plays an important role in immune mechanisms of host defenses. MHC class I molecules are expressed on the cell surface of all nucleated cells and present peptide fragments derived from intracellular proteins. Which of the following are functions of proteins encoded by of TAP-1 and -2 genes?

A. binding B2-microglobulin
B. preventing peptide binding to MHC molecules
C. a part of the proteasome
D. transport peptides into the endoplasmic reticulum for binding to MHC class I
E. transport peptides into the endoplasmic reticulum for binding to MHC class II

A

D. transport peptides into the endoplasmic reticulum for binding to MHC class I

35
Q

The various antibodies produced by plasma cells are classified by isotype, each of which differs in function and antigen responses primarily due to structure variability. The following properties of human IgG are true EXCEPT:

A. It can pass through the placenta.
B. It can be cleaved by pepsin and yet remain divalent.
C. Its half-life is approximately 23 days.
D. It is involved in allergic reactions.
E. It participates in the activation of complement.
F. It has the longest half-life of all Ig isotopes.

A

D. It is involved in allergic reactions.

36
Q

Which one of the following cell types is responsible for highly-specific Ag immune responses?

A. Neutrophils 
B. Lymphocytes 
C. Monocytes 
D. Basophils
E. Eosinophils
A

B. Lymphocytes

37
Q

The innate immune system provides first-line defenses in response to invading microorganisms and endogenous danger signals (damaged tissues) by triggering robust inflammatory and antimicrobial responses. Which of the following does not apply to innate immune mechanisms?

A. absence of specificity
B. activation by a stimulus
C. involvement of multiple cell types
D. a memory component
E. None of the above
A

D. a memory component

38
Q

Following an initial expansion of B cells in response to microbial peptides, a memory pool of B cells is generated and maintained in the individual in many cases throughout life. Upon re-challenge with the microbe, the patient is protected from infection. Which one of the following explanations accounts for this observation?

A. Memory B cells are actively producing antibodies in the absence of antigen
B. Memory B cells will produce antibodies, however, only upon encounter with the microbial antigen
C. Memory B cells will be activated and form plasma cells producing protective antibodies
D. Long-lived plasma cells will produce antibodies, however, only upon encounter with the microbial antigen
E. TLR signaling to memory B cells will induce a rapid production of antibodies in response to antigen

A

C. Memory B cells will be activated and form plasma cells producing protective
antibodies

39
Q

Lymphocyte antigen receptors, in the form of immunoglobulins on B cells and T-cell receptors on T cells are the means by which lymphocytes sense the presence of antigens in their environment. The receptors produced by each lymphocyte have a unique antigen specificity, which is determined by the structure of their antigen-binding site. Antigen receptors on T and B cells share which similar feature?

A. Affinity maturation occurs following antigen recognition for both receptor types
B. Interaction with MHC molecules is required for antigen recognition by both receptor types
C. The constant regions of both receptor types are identical
D. The specificity of both receptor types is determined following exposure of mature cells to antigen
E. The variable portions of both receptor types are generated by random recombination of genes

A

E. The variable portions of both receptor types are generated by random recombination of genes

40
Q

The TCR is composed of two different protein chains (a heterodimer). In humans, in 95% of T cells the TCR consists of α chain and a β chains. Which of the following are most variable parts of the T-cell receptor?

A. Vα and Cα
B. Vβ and Cβ
C. Cα and Cβ
D. Vα and Cβ
E. Vα and Vβ.
A

E. Vα and Vβ.

41
Q

Antibodies can come in different varieties known as isotypes or classes. In humans there are five antibody isotypes known as IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG and IgM. They differ in their biological properties, functional locations and ability to deal with different antigens. Which portion of an antibody defines its isotype?

A. The variable regions of the light chains
B. The variable regions of the heavy chains
C. The constant regions of the heavy chains
D. The J chain
E. The complementarity‐determining regions

A

C. The constant regions of the heavy chains

42
Q

The main function of MHC class II molecules is to present processed antigens, which are derived primarily from exogenous sources, to lymphocytes. MHC class II molecules thereby are critical for the initiation of the antigen-specific immune response. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning MHC class II molecules?

A. B cells may express different MHC class II molecules on their surface.
B. MHC class II is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum of professional APCs.
C. Genetically different individuals express different MHC class II alleles.
D. MHC class II molecules are associated with B2-microglobulin on the cell surface.
E. A peptide that does not bind to an MHC class II molecule will not trigger a CD4+ T cell response.
A

D. MHC class II molecules are associated with 2-microglobulin on the cell surface.

43
Q

It is well recognized that the primary immunoglobulin (Ig) of the newborn is the maternal IgG as this is the only Ig to cross the placental barrier. The first Ig synthesized by the newborn appears in the early postnatal period. Which of the following is the first Ig synthesized by the newborn?

A. IgA.
B. IgE.
C. IgG.
D. IgM.
E. None; the fetus does not synthesize immunoglobulins.
A

D. IgM.

44
Q

The lymphoid system is made up of a network of lymph fluid, lymphocytes, lymph vessels, lymph nodes and the lymphatic organs. These organs are the spleen, thymus, tonsils, adenoid and bone marrow. Lymphatic tissue is also found in other parts of the body, including the stomach, intestines and skin. Which of the following is the major function of the lymphoid system?

A. innate immunity 
B. inflammation 
C. phagocytosis 
D. acquired immunity 
E. None of the above
A

D. acquired immunity

45
Q

In the body exposure to pathogen for the first time, macrophages recognize microorganisms through the interaction of microbial substances with what type of receptors on macrophages?

A. histamine receptors
B. IL-1 receptor
C. Fc receptors
D. Membrane immunoglobulin
E. Pattern recognition receptors
A

E. Pattern recognition receptors

46
Q

A subset of which of the following immune cells undergoes differentiation within the thymus?

A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils 
C. Lymphocytes 
D. Monocytes 
E. Neutrophils
A

C. Lymphocytes

47
Q
MHC Class I molecules ubiquitously on all nucleated cells and present endogenous proteins to lymphocytes. MHC class I deficiency is a rare autosomal recessive disease
body exposure to pathogen for the first time, macrophages recognize also known as Bare lymphocyte syndrome type I. MHC class I molecules are important for which of the following?

A. binding to CD8 molecules on T cells
B. presenting exogenous antigen (e.g., bacterial protein) to B cells
C. presenting viral protein to antigen-presenting cells such as macrophages
D. binding to CD4 molecules on T cells
E. binding to Ig on B cells

A

A. binding to CD8 molecules on T cells

48
Q

Papain digestion of an IgG preparation of antibody specific for the antigen hen egg albumin (HEA) will

A. lose its antigen specificity.
B. precipitate with HEA.
C. lose all interchain disulfide bonds.
D. produce two Fab molecules and one Fc fragment.
E. None of the above.
A

D. produce two Fab molecules and one Fc fragment.

49
Q

Which immunoglobulin is transported most efficiently across mucosal epithelium?

A. IgA 
B. IgD 
C. IgE 
D. IgG 
E. IgM.
A

A. IgA

50
Q

Which of the following functions is associated primarily with neutrophils?

A. Acute response to bacteria and necrotic tissue
B. Chronic inflammatory response
C. Responses to viral infections
D. Initiating anaphylactic reactions
E. Generation of immunological memory
A

A. Acute response to bacteria and necrotic tissue

51
Q

The concept of adjuvants arose in the 1920s from observations that horses that developed an abscess at the inoculation site of diphtheria toxoid generated higher specific antibody titers. What is the major property of immunologic adjuvants?

A. They reduce the toxicity of the immunogen
B. They enhance the immunogenicity of haptens
C. They enhance hematopoiesis
D. They enhances the immune response against the immunogen
E. They enhance immunologic cross-reactivity

A

D. They enhances the immune response against the immunogen

52
Q

T helper cells interacting with antigen-presenting dendritic cells require signals generated by the molecular interactions of the T-cell receptor with the MHC-peptide complex. Additionally, costimulation is required to amplify the initial TCR signals provided through the T cell CD28 molecule interaction with which one of the following dendritic cell molecule(s)?

A. CD4
B. CD8
C. CD45
D. CD80/86 
E. CD152
A

D. CD80/86