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tri 6 - peds > Exam 1 General Content > Flashcards

Exam 1 General Content Flashcards

1
Q

Describe motor control

A

Control and organization process underlying movement
Milliseconds

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2
Q

Describe motor learning

A

Acquisition of skill through practice and experience
Hours, days, weeks

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3
Q

Describe motor development

A

Age related change in motor development
Months, years, decades

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4
Q

What is the normal pattern of kinesiological development

A

Physiological flexion
Antigravity extension
Antigravity flexion

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5
Q

Describe some normal newborn characteristics

A

Physiologic flexion
Flexor recoil with passive stretch
Hands lightly fisted
Head in midline
Visually alert
Moves head side to side to clear airway
Head and trunk are linked

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6
Q

Describe some premature newborn characteristics

A

Decreased physiologic flexion
Low muscle tone
Limited ability to self calm
Cannot lift head and neck to clear airway
Immature development of organ systems
Poor feeding skills

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7
Q

Describe the APGAR

A

Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration

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8
Q

Describe the scoring of the APGAR

A

10 is best
< 7 is high risk
5-7 oxygen and resuscitation may be needed
< 2 resuscitation required

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9
Q

Describe neonatal reflexes

A

Part of intrauterine development
Appear at end of second trimester
Integrated during first year of life
Deviations indicate abnormal neuromuscular development

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10
Q

When do equilibrium reactions begin to develop and when do they mature

A

4-6 months
4-6 years

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11
Q

What is the order of postural control

A

Prone
Supine
Side lying
Sitting
Quadruped
Kneeling
Standing

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12
Q

What is the etiology of brachial plexus injury in infants

A

Primarily due to difficult vaginal delivery

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13
Q

Describe erbs palsy

A

Injury to C5-C6
Shoulder EXR, IR, ADD
Elbow extension
Pronation
Wrist and finger flexion

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14
Q

Describe Klumke’s palsy

A

Injury to C8-T1
Postures in supintaion

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15
Q

Describe global palsy

A

Damage to C5-T1

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16
Q

What is a torch infection

A

Group of infections that can have serious impact on the fetus when the mother is infected during pregnancy or delivery

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17
Q

What are some examples of torch infections

A

Toxoplasmas
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes

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18
Q

Describe toxoplasmosis

A

From cat litter
Can cause, hydrocephalus, seizures, intellectual disability

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19
Q

Describe syphilis

A

rash
Hearing loss
Damage to teeth and eyes
MSk deformities
CNS involvement

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20
Q

Desceibe rubella

A

Rash
Cataracts
Liver damage

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21
Q

Describe cytomegalovirus

A

Transmitted in utero
Can cause Hearing loss, hypotonia, motor impairment

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22
Q

What is a high risk infant

A

Greater than average chance of morbidity or mortality

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23
Q

What defines a premature infant

A

37 weeks or younger

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24
Q

Describe low birth weights for infants

A

LBW - 3.3-3.5
VLBW 2.2-3.3
ELBW < 2.2

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25
Q

Describe the neonatal levels of care

A

1 - well baby nursery, stable normal infants
2 - special care nursery, 32+ weeks, 1500+ grams, feed tubes, supplemental O2
3 - NICU, < 32 weeks or <1500 grams, ventilators
4 - Regional NICU, most specialized care

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26
Q

Describe infant positioning early in the NICU

A

Midline head positioning and elevation at 30 for first 2 hours, this decreases incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage

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27
Q

Briefly describe respiratory distres syndrome

A

children issues with breathing
Treat with supplemental o2

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28
Q

Briefly describe BPD

A

results from using supplemental O2 for too long

29
Q

Briefly describe meconium aspiration syndrome

A

If infant has first bowel movement in utero it may be inhaled
Treat with antibiotics

30
Q

Briefly describe intraventricular hemorrhage

A

Swings in blood pressure can cause bleeding into the ventricles
1 - isolated germinal matrix hemorrhage
2 - IVH with normal sized ventricles
3 - IVH with dilated ventricles
4 - IVH into white matter

31
Q

Briefly describe periventricular leukomalacia

A

due to little or too much cerebellar blood flow

32
Q

Briefly describe hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

A

decreased oxygenation
Mild - requires resuscitation
Moderate - resuscitation and respiration assist
Severe - resuscitation and prolonged ventilation

33
Q

Briefly describe GER

A

stomach contents erupt into esophagus, normal in 2/3 of healthy infants

34
Q

How can you position to prevent infants from spitting up

A

30 upright sitting

35
Q

Briefly describe neonatal abstinence syndrome

A

withdrawal signs and neurobehavioral problems in infants
Occurs in 72 hours
Meds: methadone

36
Q

Briefly describe Necrotizing enterocolitis

A

acute inflammation of bowel
Results in intestinal hemorrhage

37
Q

Describe retinopathy of prematurity

A

immature part of retina

38
Q

Briefly describe hyperbilirubinemia

A

Jaundice
Sunlight exposure treatment

39
Q

Describe the various behavioral states children can occupy and which is the best for examination

A

Deep sleep
Light sleep
Drowsy
Quiet awake - best time for exam
Active awake
Crying

40
Q

What are infant vitals

A

120-180 BPM
40-60 RR
Costal retractions is sign of labored breathing

41
Q

What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Group of inflammatory diseases in children and adolescents that may cause joint or connective tissue damage through the body

42
Q

What are the subtypes of JIA

A

Systemic - most painful, SYMETRIC
OligoarthritiS - most common, asymmetrical
Polyarticular - 5 or more joints, SYMETRIC

43
Q

What are some Interventions for JIA

A

Cold modalities
ROM, gentle strengthening
Functional activities

44
Q

What is CMT

A

Torticollis
Unilateral shortening of SCM
Caused by nodule or tightening of upper trap

45
Q

Hoe can CMT develop

A

Prenatal - Ischemic injury, mispositioning in utero, muscle rupture
Perinatal - trauma from breech position
Positional - positional preference

46
Q

Describe the type of CMT

A

Postural - positional preference, full PROM
Muscular - unilateral SCM tightness, no nodule mass
SCM nodule - Most severe, fibrous band in SCM

47
Q

Describe CMY grading

A

1 - early mild - less than 15
2 - early moderate - 15-30
3 - early severe - more than 30
4 - late mild - 7-9 months, less than 15
5 - late moderate - 10-12 months, less than 15
6 - late severe - 7-12 more than 15
7 - late extreme - after months with nodule, more than 30

48
Q

Describe CMT prognosis

A

Good if referred less than 3 months

49
Q

What are some red flags associated with CMT

A

Poor visual tracking
Abnormal muscle tone
Extramacular mass
Other abnormal findings

50
Q

What is the difference between plagiocephaly and brachiocephaly

A

plagio - opposite corners are bulging
Brachio - flattening on back of skull

51
Q

How do you treat plagiocephaly and brachiocephaly

A

plagio - positioning opposite deformity, increased time in prone, orthotic at 4 months of age
Brachio - increased prone positioning to allow reshaping

52
Q

What is Osteogenisis imperfecta

A

Inherited collagen deficit disorder

53
Q

What are some major impairments resulting ftom OI

A

Diffuse osteoporosis with recurring fractures
Lax joints
Weak muscles
Blue sclera

54
Q

Describe type 1 OI

A

Most common
Blue sclrea
Short
Conductive hearing loss
Fragile bones

55
Q

Describe type 2 OI

A

not compatible with life

56
Q

Describe type 3 OI

A

severe
Progressive deformity of long bones, skull and spine
Very short stature
Respiratory comprimise

57
Q

Describe type 4 OI

A

mild to moderate deformity
Short stature post nataly
Ambulatory

58
Q

What are some intervention considerations for OI patients

A

No passive stretching
Do not overdress due to excessive sweating
Encourage weight bearing

59
Q

Describe AMC

A

Non-progressive neuromuscular disorder presenting with severe joint contracture in two or more body areas

60
Q

What is the etiology of AMC

A

Mostly unknown, mechanism seems to be fetal akinesia

61
Q

Described froglike AMC

A

Hips, ABD, ER
Knee, Flex
Club feet
Shoulders IR
Elbow extension
Wrist flexed
Ulnar deviation

62
Q

Describe jack knifed AMC

A

Hips flexed
Knees extended
Club feet
Shoulder s IR
Elbows flexed
Flexed wrists ulnar deviation

63
Q

What is the difference between version and Torsion

A

Version - position of femur
Torsion - makeup of bone

64
Q

Describe developmental dysplasia

A

Pathology where the hips are insecure

65
Q

Describe Barlow and Ortolani test

A

Barlow - Adduction of hip while pushing posterior, clunk indicates dislocation
Ortolani - abduction and traction to relocate

66
Q

What are the intervention steps of Developmental dysplasia by age

A

0-6 months - Pavlik harness, contra spina bifida
6 months to 2 years - Open or closed reduction, hip spica cast
> 2 years - more extensive surgery

67
Q

Describe how scoliosis is classified

A

More than 10 degrees cob angle
Named for Convex surface and level of apex

68
Q

Describe nonstructural vs structural scoliosis

A

NonStructural - corrects when side bending toward apex, no vertebral rotation
Structural - not passively or forcibly corrected, rotation of vertebrae toward the convexity, often fixed rib hump is present

69
Q

Describe congenital limb deficiency

A

child born without portion of UE or LE

tri 6 - peds (7 decks)

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