Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Exam 1 Flashcards > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is pharmacotherapeutics?

A

The use of drugs for the purpose of disease prevention, diagnosis and treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are therapeutic effects?

A

The beneficial responses to medication treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are adverse effects?

A

The serious side effects resulting from taking a medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are teratogens?

A

Drugs that cause birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the minimal effective concentration definition?

A

The amount of drug required to produce a therapeutic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a toxic concentration?

A

The amount of drug that results in serious adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F Preclinical trials are not regulated by the FDA.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F Preclinical trials are tested on animals or human microbial cells.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When do FDA regulations begin on drug approval?

A

When humans become involved as test subjects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens in Phase I of clinical trials?

A

The volunteers are all healthy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens in Phase II of clinical trials?

A

There is a larger number of volunteers who have the specific disease for the drug being tested.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens in Phase III of clinical trials?

A

The trials are wide scale, patient’s have multiple issues and they monitor drug interactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens in Phase IV of clinical trials?

A

The drug is in the public and adverse effects are reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long does it take for a drug to get approved for use?

A

12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Category X?

A

a drug that has demonstrated fetal abnormalities or adverse responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

How the body responds to a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the four phases of pharmacokinetics?

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens in the absorption phase?

A

The drug is absorbed and starts going places

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens in the distribution phase?

A

The drug travels to where it needs to go in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the metabolism phase?

A

the speed at which your body breaks down and excretes a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens in the excretion phase?

A

The speed at which your body rids the drug from your system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens in the excretion phase?

A

The speed at which your body rids the drug from your system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the primary factor that determines the onset and intensity of drug action?

A

Absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which routes do not go through the 1st pass effect?

A

Sublingual and buccal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the 1st pass effect?

A

Where the drug concentration is greatly reduced before reaching systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What kind of tablet takes longer to absorb?

A

enteric coated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What needs to be monitored in order to make sure the body can metabolize drugs?

A

liver function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where is the primary site of excretion in the body?

A

the neys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some considerations for a drug with a narrow therapeutic index?

A

Mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are some considerations for a drug with a narrow therapeutic index?

A

Monitor via labs, random serum drug levels, peak and trough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a peak?

A

When the drug is highest in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a trough?

A

The point where the drug serum level is lowest in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are factors influencing drug effects?

A

Weight, age, biological sex, pathologic, genetic, psychological, immunological factors and physiological factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What weight are drug recommended doses based off of?

A

150 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How can age affect drug effects?

A

Children metabolize drugs differently; metabolism can be faster or slower. Older adults may take longer to metabolize and have more CNS effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How can biological sex affect drug effects?

A

Men have more vascular muscle and women have more fat cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are 3 common drug classes that cause adverse effects?

A

Opioids, diuretics and anticoagulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where is the site of drug metabolism?

A

The liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index are more likely to cause serious consequences.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F Dietary supplements are controlled and tested by the FDA.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 94 states that

A

Medical claims cannot be on bottle however symptoms can.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are DMARDS?

A

Disease Modifying Antirheumatic Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F Early start of DMARDS reduces chances of long term complications.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F DMARDS take several months to reach max therapeutic effects; patients will take an NSAID with DMARD.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the prototypes of DMARDS I?

A

Methotrexate and hydroxychloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DMARDS are antimetabolite drugs, which means _____

A

they interfere with folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

An adverse effect of DMARDS I is putting you at risk for ___ blood cells

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

DMARDS I are contraindicated in those with visual field damage (methotrexate) because

A

they can cause more field damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

T/F A woman of childbearing age needs to be on contraception when taking DMARDS I because it is a category X medication.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T/F You cannot take DMARDS I & II together.

A

False; you can take these together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the MOA of DMARDS II?

A

The primary action for RA is immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T/F DMARDS II are tumor necrosis factor antagonists.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T/F Discontinue DMARDS II if a rash appears, this could be Steven Johnson’s syndrome.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the major reactions of DMARDS II?

A

Increased risk of infection, injection site reactions, severe skin reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the DMARDS II prototype?

A

etanercepts

56
Q

What is the black box warning of etanercept?

A

It can reactivate latent TB and increase risk of fatal infections

57
Q

T/F DMARDS II can completely wipe out the immune system if taken with chemo.

A

True

58
Q

DMARDS III include ____ compounds and are very toxic.

A

gold

59
Q

SERMS have a black box warning because of the risk of _____________

A

thromboembolisms

60
Q

SERMS are used for osteoporosis and activate _______ receptors in endometrial tissue and bones.

A

estrogen

61
Q

When taking Biphosphonates (alendronate) for osteoporosis, the black box warning states that _______

A

You need to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication and avoid drinking/eating anything other than water

62
Q

What does remaining upright for 30 minutes after taking biphosphonates (alendronate) prevent?

A

Esophagitis and erosion

63
Q

What does a nurse need to monitor for when giving biphosphonates (alendronate)?

A

esophagitis & GI effects

64
Q

What neurotransmitters are involved in PD?

A

dopamine and acetylcholine

65
Q

How do dopaminergic agents work?

A

They mimic dopamine by increasing dopamine levels

66
Q

How do anticholinergic agents work?

A

They blcok Ach to stop tremors

67
Q

PD dopaminergics only work when there are enough intact neurons; decline will happen when ________

A

dopamine levels decrease with age.

68
Q

What is the most effective prototype for dopaminergic agents?

A

levodopa/carbidopa

69
Q

levodopa works by ______

A

crossing the BBB & converts to dopamine

70
Q

Carbidopa works by ______

A

helping levodopa get into the CNS at a greater amount.

71
Q

What are the anticholinergic effects?

A

dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation and blurred vision

72
Q

T/F If adding carbidopa to levodopa, you must wait 12 hours or else levodopa will reach toxic effects.

A

True

73
Q

How long does it take for levidopa/carbidopa to start working?

A

2-3 weeks

74
Q

What medication helps with involuntary movements, tremors and twitching in the case of PD?

A

amantadine

75
Q

What foods should be avoided with levodopa?

A

High protein, fortified cereal or multivitamins

76
Q

What effect does Vitamin B6 and high protein meals have on levodopa?

A

They lower the effects

77
Q

What is the on/off syndrome?

A

the loss of drug effect in long term use that eventually maxes out

78
Q

What is the function of anticholinergic agents?

A

lowering the effects of acetylcholine

79
Q

What is the prototype for antocholinergics?

A

Benztropine

80
Q

What does benztropine provide the most benefit for?

A

tremors; less effective than levodopa

81
Q

How do anticholinergics (benztropine) work in the body?

A

They block ach receptors in the brain?

82
Q

What is a serious GI effect caused by benztropine?

A

Paralytic ileus, which is the lack of movement in digestive system

83
Q

What are contraindications for benztropine?

A

allergies, urinary obstruction and children under 3

84
Q

How long does it take for the anticholinergic (benztropine) to decrease symptoms associated with PD?

A

2-3 days

85
Q

What is the goal of immune modulators?

A

To modify the progression of MS

86
Q

What is the goal of high dose corticosteroid therapy?

A

To treat acute exacerbations of MS

87
Q

What are the goals of antianxiety, antidepressants and analgesics in MS?

A

To manage symptoms

88
Q

What drug offers a cure for MS?

A

There is no cure

89
Q

What is the prototype for immunomodulators?

A

Interferon Beta 1B

90
Q

What side effects are associated with Interferon 1B?

A

Flu like symptoms, bone marrow suppression & suicidal ideation

91
Q

What can prevent flu like symptoms with Interferon Beta 1B?

A

Pre-treatment with an NSAID or acetaminophen

92
Q

What is Interferon Beta 1B meant to treat?

A

relapsing forms of MS

93
Q

How does Interferon Beta 1B work?

A

It keeps leukocytes from crossing the BBB, which protects the myelin sheath from demyelinization

94
Q

What are other adverse effects related to Interferon Beta 1B?

A

Bone marrow suppression, injection site reactions and increased liver enzymes and liver toxicity

95
Q

What is an adjuvant analgesic?

A

A medication that is NOT a pain med and that is used for neuropathic pain

96
Q

What are the two indications for adjuvant analgesics?

A

Pain that is intractable and neuropathic pain

97
Q

What are analgesics?

A

Drugs that relieve pain without LOC

98
Q

What are corticosteroids used for?

A

severe or disabling inflammation

99
Q

What are NSAIDS used for?

A

mild to moderate pain, inflammation and fever

100
Q

What drugs are in the first major category of NSAIDS?

A

salicylates (aspirin) and ibuprofen

101
Q

What drug is in the second major category of NSAIDS?

A

Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX) inhibitors

102
Q

Which drug inhibits platelet aggregation?

A

ASA

103
Q

Which COX is responsible for the mediation of inflammation, pain and fever?

A

Cox 2

104
Q

Which COX is responsible for protecting gastric mucosa, promoting renal function and blood clotting?

A

Cox 1

105
Q

What happens when you block COX 2?

A

There is improvement in inflammation, pain and fever

106
Q

What happens if you block COX 1?

A

There is decreased renal fx, no protection of gastric mucosa and risk of bleeding

107
Q

What is the MOA of ASA?

A

Inhibiting COX-1 & 2

108
Q

What happens if you take ASA before vaccines?

A

the immune response is prohibited, which makes the vaccine less effective

109
Q

How does ASA affect the clotting system?

A

There is a risk of bleeding

110
Q

What are GI affects associated with ASA?

A

nausea, dyspepsia, heartburn and epigastric discomfort

111
Q

How does ASA affect platelets?

A

It affects platelets for the life of that platelet

112
Q

What are symptoms of salicylism?

A

levels of salicylate 200 mcg or above; tinnitus, confusion

113
Q

What is the antidote to salicylism?

A

stopping the medications

114
Q

What is the effect of Reye’s Syndrome?

A

Liver & brain damage in children 19 or younger if ASA is taken when the flu or chicken pox is present

115
Q

What is the prototype for 2nd generation NSAIDS?

A

Celecoxib

116
Q

T/F There is double the risk of MI or stroke with use of celecoxib.

A

True

117
Q

What is the only antidote for acute acetaminophen poisoning?

A

acetylcysteine

118
Q

opioid agonists activate _________

A

both mu and kappa receptors

119
Q

mixed opioid agonist-antagonists __________

A

are less potent, block one receptor and activate the other

120
Q

An example of an opioid antagonist is _______

A

naloxone

121
Q

What is the max dose of acetaminophen for adults?

A

4g for healthy adults, 3g for undernourished and 2g for alcoholics

122
Q

When should you hold opioids from being administered?

A

When respirations are less than 12

123
Q

When should you administer naloxone?

A

When respirations are less than 10

124
Q

What is the opioid agonist prototype?

A

Morphine

125
Q

When is morphine contraindicated?

A

In premature deliveries because preemies lungs aren’t fully developed

126
Q

What is the abstinence syndrome reaction for opioids?

A

yawning, runny nose, sweating, violent sneezing, weakness, GI issues, bone and muscle pain, spasms and kicking movements

127
Q

abstinence syndrome means

A

physical withdrawal

128
Q

What are the classic triad of symptoms from Morphine overdose?

A

pinpoint pupils, respiratory depression, unconsciousness

129
Q

What is the mixed agonist-antagonist medication for opioids?

A

pentazocine

130
Q

Why is pentazocine important?

A

It produces less respiratory depression

131
Q

what is the therapeutic use of pentazocine?

A

moderate to severe pain, anesthesia adjunct, and pain relief during labor/delivery

132
Q

T/F You cannot abruptly stop taking corticosteroids.

A

True; this will affect adrenal function and secretion.

133
Q

A person with osteoporosis should consume ____ and ____

A

Calcium and vitamin D

134
Q

Pay attention to behavioral changes with costicosteroids, especially _____

A

Nervousness

135
Q

What is the corticosteroid prototype?

A

Prednisone

136
Q

What makes up a corticosteroid?

A

Glucocorticoid and mineral corticoid

137
Q

T/F Keep corticosteroid amount low for maximum effects.

A

True

Pharmacology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions