Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medical Pharmacology Exam 1 > Exam 1 Drugs Compilation > Flashcards

Exam 1 Drugs Compilation Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Cimetidine

A

Imidazole
Inhibitor of CYP enzymes (Phase 1), competitive inhibitor of OCT
n/a for now
Decrease metabolism / increase drug level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Phenobarbital

A

Barbiturate
Activator of CYP enzymes (Phase 1)
n/a for now
Increase metabolism, decrease drug level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Probenecid

A

n/a
competitive inhibitor of OAT
n/a
Decreases secretion of anions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ethanol

A

n/a
Activator of CYP enzymes
Increase metabolism, decrease drug level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Proadifen

A

n/a
Only known role is as inhibitor of CYPs
Decrease metabolism / increase drug level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bethanechol

A 
Muscarinic Receptor Agonist 
Muscarinic receptor selective
Long acting 
Used to stimulate smooth muscle post-op
(Flushing, sweating, abdominal cramps, belching, bladder tightness, headache, salivation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Carbachol

A

Muscarinic Receptor Agonist
Long acting
Corneal Application for Wide Angle Glaucoma (Increase drainage)
(Flushing, sweating, abdominal cramps, belching, bladder tightness, headache, salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Methacholine

A

Muscarinic Receptor Agonist
Muscarinic receptor selective
Used to test muscarinic receptor function, slow HR and test bronchial hyperactivity
(Flushing, sweating, abdominal cramps, belching, bladder tightness, headache, salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Muscarine

A

Muscarinic Receptor Agonist
Muscarinic Receptor selective
(Flushing, sweating, abdominal cramps, belching, bladder tightness, headache, salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Muscarinic Receptor Agonist (Natural Alkaloid)
Corneal Application for Wide Angle Glaucoma (increase drainage)
Muscarinic Receptor selective, sweat glands sensitive
(Flushing, sweating, abdominal cramps, belching, bladder tightness, headache, salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nicotine

A

Nicotinic Receptor Agonist
Competitive Nicotinic Receptor Agonist
Can cause Autonomic hyperactivity (convulsions, coma, death, respiratory arrest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Varenicline

A

Nicotinic Receptor Agonist
Agonist
Used to quit smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ambemonium

A

Competitive AChE inhibitor
Used to treat myasthenia gravis
(Flushing, sweating, abdominal cramps, belching, bladder tightness, headache, salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Edrophonium

A

Quaternary Simple Alcohol
Competitive AChE inhibitor
Used to diagnose Myesthenia Gravis
(Flushing, sweating, abdominal cramps, belching, bladder tightness, headache, salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neostigmine

A

Carbamate
Competitive AChE inhibitor
Increases smooth muscle motility, treat paralytic ileus and atony of bladder, treatment and diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, reversal of neuromuscular block
** Used to compete off N2 receptor blockers **
(Flushing, sweating, abdominal cramps, belching, bladder tightness, headache, salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Physostigmine

A

Carbamate
Competitive AChE inhibitor
Topical treatment for wide angle glaucoma
(Flushing, sweating, abdominal cramps, belching, bladder tightness, headache, salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

Carbamate
Competitive AChE inhibitor
Treatment of myesthenia gravis, pretreatment for nerve gas exposure, reversal of neuromuscular blockade
(Flushing, sweating, abdominal cramps, belching, bladder tightness, headache, salivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

diisopropylfluorophosphate

A

Organophosphate Derivative
Non - Competitive AChE inhibitor
No clinical use
SLUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

echothiophate

A

Organophosphate Derivative
Non - Competitive AChE inhibitor
Treatment of glaucoma
SLUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Carbaryl

A

Insecticide Carbaryl
Non - Competitive AChE inhibitor
No clinical use
SLUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Malathion

A

Insecticide Organophosphate Derivative
Non - Competitive AChE inhibitor
Least toxic – used for head lice
SLUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Parathion

A

Organophosphate Derivative
Non - Competitive AChE inhibitor
No clinical use
SLUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tetraethylpyrophosphate

A

Insecticide Organophosphate Derivative
Non - Competitive AChE inhibitor
No clinical use
SLUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sarin

A

Nerve Gas - Organophosphate Derivative
Non - Competitive AChE inhibitor
No clinical use
SLUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Soman

A

Nerve Gas - Organophosphate Derivative
Non - Competitive AChE inhibitor
No clinical use
SLUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pralidoxime

A

AchE reactivator
Releases phosphoryl moiety to restore AChE activity
Needs to be admin with Atropine, before Aging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Atropine

A

Muscarinic (selective) Antagonist (Long lasting)
Treatment of insecticide poisoning, anti-parkinson, cause mydriasis and cycloplegia, anti-motion sickness, decreased bronchial secretions, slow smooth muscle, Increase HR, Preanesthetic
Can cause hallucinations and amnesia
Atropine fever, dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Homatropine

A

Muscarinic antagonist (Intermediate lasting)
Used to cause mydriasis and cycloplegia
Can cause hallucinations and amnesia, dry mouth, sedation / excitement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Scopolamine

A

Muscarinic antagonist
Anti-motion sickness, Amnesia before surgery
Can cause hallucinations and amnesia, dry mouth, sedation / excitement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Methscopolamine

A

Muscarinic antagonist

Slow GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Trihexyphenidyl

A

Muscarinic antagonist
Antiparkinson therapy, reduce uncoord. Movt.
Can cause hallucinations and amnesia, dry mouth, sedation / excitement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tropicamide

A 
Muscarinic antagonist (Short acting)
Used to cause mydriasis and cycloplegia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cyclopentolate

A

Muscarinic antagonist

Used to cause mydriasis and cycloplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ipratropium

A

Muscarinic antagonist (Quaternary)
Bronchodilation, Decreased bronchial secretions,
Shorter acting for COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tiotropium

A

Muscarinic antagonist (Quaternary)
Bronchodilation, Decreased bronchial secretions
Longer acting for COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Darifenacin

A

Muscarinic antagonist (M3 Specific)
Slow Smooth muscle, over active bladder (GI / Genitourinary)
Longer Duration of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Solifenacin

A

Muscarinic antagonist (M3 Specific)
Slow Smooth muscle, over active bladder (GI / Genitourinary)
Longer Duration of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tolterodine

A

Muscarinic antagonist (M3 Specific)
Slow Smooth muscle, over active bladder (GI / Genitourinary)
Longer Duration of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Mecamylamine

A

Ganglionic Blocker
Non-depolarizing competitive antagonist
Good GI absorption
Adjunct for peripheral vascular disease – relieve vasoconstriction and increase perfusion
CNS side effects including tremors, confusion, seizures, mania, depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Trimethaphan

A

Ganglionic Blocker
Non-depolarizing competitive antagonist
Used IV in OR to decrease BP to control bleeding, adjunct anti-hypotensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Succinylcholine

A

Non-Competitive Nicotinic N2 blocker
Depolarizing – Prevent Depolarization
Causes muscle relaxation, e.g. before surgery
Hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Curare (t-tubocurarine)

A

benzylisoquinolines
Competitive Nicotinic N2 blocker (N2 Specific)
Non-depolarizing – Prevent Depolarization
Causes muscle relaxation, e.g. before surgery
* Long acting *
Histamine Release (hypotension) is side effect
Reversed by edrophonium, neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Atracurium

A

benzylisoquinolines
Competitive Nicotinic N2 blocker (N2 Specific)
Non-depolarizing – Prevent Depolarization
Causes muscle relaxation, e.g. before surgery
* Intermediate acting *
Histamine Release (hypotension) is side effect
Reversed by edrophonium, neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Cisatracurium

A

benzylisoquinolines
Competitive Nicotinic N2 blocker (N2 Specific)
Non-depolarizing – Prevent Depolarization
Causes muscle relaxation, e.g. before surgery
* Intermediate acting *
Histamine Release (hypotension) is side effect
Reversed by edrophonium, neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Mivacurium

A

benzylisoquinolines
Competitive Nicotinic N2 blocker (N2 Specific)
Non-depolarizing – Prevent Depolarization
Causes muscle relaxation, e.g. before surgery
* Short acting *
Histamine Release (hypotension) is side effect
Reversed by edrophonium, neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Pancuronium

A

Ammonio Steroids
Competitive Nicotinic N2 blocker
Non-depolarizing – Prevent Depolarization
Causes muscle relaxation, e.g. before surgery
* Long acting *
Cross react with Muscarinic and N1 – Tachycardia
Reversed by edrophonium, neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Vecuronium

A

Ammonio Steroids
Competitive Nicotinic N2 blocker
Non-depolarizing – Prevent Depolarization
Causes muscle relaxation, e.g. before surgery
* Intermediate acting *
Cross react with Muscarinic and N1 – Tachycardia
Reversed by edrophonium, neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Metaraminol

A

Alpha-1 Selective Agonist
Long acting beta 1 and alpha 1 stimulant
Displaces NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Methoxamine

A

Alpha-1 Selective Agonist (less alpha 2)

treat hypotensive crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Phenylephrine

A

Alpha-1 Selective Agonist (less alpha 2)
Vasoconstriction, prevent shock, nasal decongestant, treat hypotensive crisis, reduce drug diffusion, reduce mucus membrane congestion, mydriasis
Long acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Alpha methyldopa

A

Alpha-2 Selective Agonist
Decrease NT in synapse – replaces DOPA in synthetic pathway to yield Alpha-methyl norepinephrine (false neurotransmitter)
Used to treat hypertension – acts at brainstem vasomotor center
Side effects diminish over time – sedation, xerostomia, anorexia, fluid retention, vivid dreams, impotence, CNS stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Clonidine

A

Alpha-2 Selective Agonist (less alpha 1)
Decrease NT in synapse (inhibit NE release)
Side effects diminish over time – sedation, xerostomia, anorexia, fluid retention, vivid dreams, CNS stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Guanabenz

A

Alpha-2 Selective Agonist
Decrease NT in synapse (inhibit NE release)
Side effects diminish over time – sedation, xerostomia, anorexia, fluid retention, vivid dreams, CNS stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Amphetamine

A 
Alpha and beta adrenergic agonist
Releasing agent (increases NE release), also releases intraneuronal NE – reverse transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Ephedrine

A

Alpha and beta adrenergic agonist
Releasing agent, Stimulant of most adrenergic receptors
Increase CO and arterial pressure, treat orthostatic hypotension, reduce mucus membrane congestion, stress incontinence
Long acting – Displaces NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Epinephrine

A

Alpha and beta adrenergic agonist
Binds all adrenergic receptors equally
Potent vasoconstrictor and cardiac stimulant, hemostasis during surgery, reduce drug diffusion, anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Alpha and beta adrenergic agonist (except beta 2)
IV infusion for shock, increase CO and cause vasoconstriction (increase BP, treat hypotensive crisis), reduce drug diffusion
Binds Beta-2 a lot less than all other adrenergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Dobutamine

A

Beta 1 Selective agonist (Less beta-2)

Cardiogenic shock, heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Isoproterenol

A

Beta 1 and 2 agonist

Used for relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle, also cardiac stimulation (potent vasodilator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Albuterol

A

Beta 2 Selective agonist (Less beta-1)

Bronchial asthma

61
Q

Metaproterenol

A

Beta 2 Selective agonist (Less beta-1)

Bronchial asthma

62
Q

Terbutaline

A

Beta 2 Selective agonist (Less beta-1)

Bronchial asthma, relax pregnant uterus

63
Q

Bromocriptine

A

Dopamine Agonist
Anti-parkinson agent (for its CNS effects)
Side effects – postural hypotension and cardiac arrhythmia

64
Q

Dopamine

A

Dopamine Agonist
IV for shock, vasoconstriction, increase CO and dilate renal arteries
Binds Alpha and Beta 1 at high concentrations
Enhance NE release (displaces it)

65
Q

Fenoldopam

A

Dopamine Agonist, DA-1 selective

Vasodilation of renal and mesenteric vessels

66
Q

Doxazosin

A

Alpha-1 Selective antagonist

Urinary obstruction from BPH

67
Q

Prazosin

A

Alpha-1 Selective antagonist (Highly selective)
Antihypertensive (mild / moderate), urinary obstruction from BPH
Little to no tachycardia because doesn’t bind beta receptors
Oral admin

68
Q

Tamsulosin

A

Alpha-1 Selective antagonist

Urinary obstruction from BPH

69
Q

Terazosin

A

Alpha-1 Selective antagonist

Urinary obstruction from BPH

70
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

Alpha-1 and Alpha-2 Selective antagonist
Non-competitive – alkylates alpha receptors (~24 hrs)
Can cause postural hypotension and tachycardia – due to decreased MAP
Used to treat hypertension associated with pheochromocytoma

71
Q

Phentolamine

A

Alpha-1 and Alpha-2 Selective antagonist
Competitive antagonist
Dirty drug, binds histamine and muscarinic receptors
Diagnostic for pheochromocytoma, also for its assoc. hypertension
Increases NE release, will cause tachycardia and increased CO

72
Q

Labetalol

A

Alpha and beta antagonist (more beta though)

73
Q

Atenolol

A

Beta-1 Selective antagonist
Antihypertensive, inhibit cardiac output
** better, but still careful with asthma / COPD patients **
Doesn’t cross CNS well

74
Q

Betaxolol

A

Beta-1 Selective antagonist
Major use – glaucoma
(antihypertensive, inhibit cardiac output – if it gets there)
** better, but still careful with asthma / COPD patients **

75
Q

Metoprolol

A

Beta-1 Selective antagonist
Antihypertensive, angina pectoris, inhibit cardiac output
Prevent recurrence of MI
** better, but still careful with asthma / COPD patients **
Side effect – Ataxia and dizziness

76
Q

Nadolol

A 
Beta-1 and beta-2 Selective antagonist
Very long acting, antihypertensive
Prevent recurrence of MI 
**Careful with asthma and COPD patients **
Doesn’t cross CNS well
77
Q

Pindolol

A

Beta-1 and beta-2 Selective antagonist
Antihypertensive
Prevent recurrence of MI
**Careful with asthma and COPD patients **

78
Q

Propranolol

A

Beta-1 and beta-2 Selective antagonist
Antihypertensive, anti arrhythmic, anti-migraine, for angina pectoris
Prevent recurrence of MI
**Careful with asthma and COPD patients **
Side effect – Ataxia and dizziness

79
Q

Timolol

A

Beta-1 and beta-2 Selective antagonist
Lower intraocular pressure, Antihypertensive, angina pectoris
Prevent recurrence of MI
**Careful with asthma and COPD patients **

80
Q

Guanethidine

A

Synaptic vesicle depleting agent / membrane stabilizer
Used for only the most severe cases of hypertension
Enters neurons via amine 1 transporter (drugs that interfere will block its actions)
Minimal CNS effects – doesn’t cross BBB

81
Q

Reserpine

A

Synaptic vesicle depleting agent
Blocks transport of NE into the vesicle, reduces amount released
Long duration of action
Side effects – Sedation, depression, Parkinsonism, increased GI motility (ulcers)

82
Q

Cocaine

A

Amine 1 transport inhibitor
No clinical use – vasoconstriction, mydriasis and tachycardia
Interferes with reserpine (Amine 1 transporter)

83
Q

DMI - desmethylimipramine

A

Tricyclic antidepressant
Amine 1 transport inhibitor
Increases NT in synapse

84
Q

Tyramine

A 
Releasing Agent (Displaces NE)
Enhance NE release via Amine 1 transporter
85
Q

Pseudoephedrine

A

Releasing Agent

Reduces congestion of mucus membranes

86
Q

Dipivefrin

A

Alpha and beta blocker

Used for eye, metabolized to epinephrine

87
Q

Apraclonidine

A

Alpha 2 selective agonist

88
Q

Carteolol

A

Beta 1 and 2 antagonist

Reduce aqueous humor production in eye

89
Q

Levobunolol

A

Beta 1 and 2 antagonist

Reduce aqueous humor production in eye

90
Q

Metipranolol

A

Beta 1 and 2 antagonist

Reduce aqueous humor production in eye

91
Q

Acetazolamide

A

Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitor

Reduce aqueous humor production in eye (via reducing HCO3 production)

92
Q

Dichlorphenamide

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

Reduce aqueous humor production in eye (via reducing HCO3 production)

93
Q

Dorzolamide

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

Reduce aqueous humor production in eye (via reducing HCO3 production)

94
Q

Botulinum toxin A

A

Muscle Relaxant

Long term – Inhibits NT release by destroying presynaptic SNAP25

95
Q

Azathioprine

A
  • General Growth Inhibitors
  • ## Metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine then 6 thioguanine (blocks purine synthesis). Also incorporates into DNA
  • Inactivated by xanthine oxidase
  • ## Myelosuppression, nausea, vomiting
  • Used for renal and other tissue transplantation, autoimmune disease
96
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

-General Growth Inhibitors
-Cross links DNA, kills all proliferating cells
-
-
- Myelosuppression, nausea, vomiting,
- Infertility
- Used for autoimmune diseases, bone marrow transplant

97
Q

Leflunomide

A
  • General Growth Inhibitors
  • ## Decreases pyrimidine synthesis-
  • ## Diarrhea, modest hepatotoxicity, reduced myelosuppresion
  • Used for Rheumatoid arthritis, some autoimmune disease
98
Q

Methotrexate

A

-General Growth Inhibitors
- Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, prevents thymidide and purine synthesis
-
-
- Causes nausea, mucosal ulcers, modest hepatotoxicity, reduced myelosuppression
-
- Rheumatoid arthritis, some autoimmune disease

99
Q

Mycophenolate Mofetil

A

-General Growth Inhibitors
- Prevents Purine synthesis
-
-
- Myelosuppression, nausea, vomiting
-
- Used for solid organ transplant (cyclosporine alternative) autoimmune disease

100
Q

Prednisone

A

-Glucocorticoid
-Upregulates / Downregulates expression of genes assoc. with inflammation and immunosuppression (e.g. IL2 and IFN-gamma)
- No serious bone marrow toxicity
-
-
- Cushings syndrome, osteoporosis, glucose intolerance, hypertension, susceptibility to infection
- Used for solid organ transplantation (first line), stem cell transplantation, autoimmune diseases, asthma, allergic reactions, systemic inflammation

101
Q

Sirolimus

A
  • mTOR inhibitor
  • ## Binds FKBP12 to form complex that inhibits IL2 activation
  • Antagonizes tacrolimus, synergistic with cyclosporine
  • Myelosuppression, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, edema, hepatotoxicity
  • Solid organ transplants, steroid resistant graft v. host disease
102
Q

Cyclosporin

A
  • Calcineurin inhibitor
  • ## Binds Cyclophilin to form complex that inhibits NFAT activation
  • Often combined with other immunosuppressant agents
  • Nephrotoxicity, hypertension, hyperglycemia, liver dysfunction.
  • Increased cancer incidence documented
  • Kidney, liver and cardiac transplants, inflammatory diseases (asthma)
103
Q

Tacrolimus

A
  • Calcineurin inhibitor
  • ## Binds FKBP12 to form complex that inhibits NFAT activation
  • 10-100 X more potent than cyclosporine
  • Nephrotoxicity, hypertension, hyperglycemia, liver dysfunction.
  • Increased cancer incidence documented
  • Kidney, liver and cardiac transplants, inflammatory diseases (asthma)
104
Q

Anti-T cell globulin

A
  • Antibody / Fusion Protein
  • Blocks T cell surface receptors and opsonizes T cells
  • Product of repeated injection of human T cells into animals
  • Cytokine release syndrome (reduce w/ pretreat. With acetaminophen and antihistamine, serum sickness
  • Anaphylaxis potential (with repeat use)
  • Prevent maternal (Rh-) from attacking fetus
105
Q

Alemtuzumab

A
  • Antibody / Fusion Protein
  • Depletes cells expressing CD25 (T and B cells, monocytes, macrophages, NK cells)
  • Prolonged depletion (1 yr) of T cells and other immunecells
  • Myelosuppresion, flu like symptoms
  • -
106
Q

Basiliximab (Anti CD25)

A
  • Antibody / Fusion Protein
  • Blocks and opsonizes alpha chain of IL-2 (CD25), found only on activated T cells
  • Depletes only antigen activated T cell , reduced incidence of infection and malignancy
  • Moderate effect relative to anti-T cell globulin
  • Well tolerated
  • -
107
Q

Rh(D) immune globulin

A
  • Antibody / Fusion Protein
  • ## Binds and clears up D-antigen, prevents mother’s immune rxn
  • Prevent maternal (Rh-) from attacking fetus
108
Q

Belatacept

A
  • Antibody / Fusion Protein
  • ## Binds and clears up D-antigen, prevents mother’s immune rxn
  • Comparable to calcineurin inhibitors in preventing transplant rejection
  • Anemia, neutropenia, peripheral edema
  • Increased risk of infection and malignancy, especially post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
  • Use for kidney transplant
109
Q

Interleukin-2

A
  • Cytokines
  • ## Increases proliferation of activated T cells, increases IFN-gamma and cytotoxic killer cell activity
  • Capillary leak syndrome, hypotension, reduced organ perfusion, can be fatal
  • Used to treat metastatic melanoma, renal cell carcinoma
110
Q

IFN-gamma

A
  • Cytokines
  • ## Stimulates activity of cytotoxic cells-
    -
    -
  • Severe recurrent infections
111
Q

BCG

A

-Adjuvant
- Increases APC activity by binding pattern recognition receptors
- Live attenuated bacillus calmette-guerin
- Can’t use systemically, will cause septic shock
-
-
- Used topically for bladder cancer

112
Q

Cetirizine

A
  • H1 antihistamines
  • Second generation antihistamine
  • Poor CNS Penetration
  • ## Increased selectivity at H1 receptors-
  • Antihistamine
113
Q

Cyclizine

A

H1 antihistamines
- First generation antihistamine
-CNS permeable
- Non-specific effects at adrenoreceptors, muscarinics, serotonin and sodium channels
- Drowsiness
-
- Anti-histamine (allergy, uticaria), motion sickness

114
Q

Dimenhydrinate

A

H1 antihistamines
- First generation antihistamine
- CNS permeable
-Non-specific effects at adrenoreceptors, muscarinics, serotonin and sodium channels
- Drowsiness
-
-Anti-histamine (allergy, uticaria), motion sickness

115
Q

Diphenhydramine

A

H1 antihistamines
- First generation antihistamine
- CNS permeable
- Non-specific effects at adrenoreceptors, muscarinics, serotonin and sodium channels
- Drowsiness
-
- Anti-histamine (allergy, uticaria), motion sickness

116
Q

Fexofenadine

A
  • H1 antihistamines
  • Second generation antihistamine
  • Poor CNS Penetration
  • ## Increased selectivity at H1 receptors-
  • Antihistamine
117
Q

Loratidine

A
  • H1 antihistamines
  • Second generation antihistamine
  • Poor CNS Penetration
  • ## Increased selectivity at H1 receptors-
  • Antihistamine
118
Q

Promethazine

A

H1 antihistamines
- First generation antihistamine
- CNS permeable
- Non-specific effects at adrenoreceptors, muscarinics, serotonin and sodium channels
- Drowsiness
-
- Anti-histamine (allergy, uticaria), antiemetic

119
Q

Adalimumab

A
  • anti-TNFalpha agent
  • Binds to TNFalpha, prevents it from binding to its receptor and reduces circulating levels
  • Human antibody to TNFalpha
  • Parenteral administration required
  • increased frequency of infections (upper
    respiratory, urinary)
    -
    -Rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn’s
120
Q

Etanercept

A
  • anti-TNFalpha agent
  • Binds to TNFalpha, prevents it from binding to its receptor and reduces circulating levels
  • Fusion protein containing the ligand binding domain of the
    TNFalpha receptor and the Fc domain of human IgG.
  • Parenteral administration required
  • increased frequency of infections (upper
    respiratory, urinary)
    -
    -Rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn’s
121
Q

Infliximab

A 
anti-TNFalpha agent
- Binds to TNFalpha, prevents it from binding to its receptor and reduces circulating levels
- Humanized antibody to TNFalpha
- Parenteral administration required
- increased frequency of infections (upper
respiratory, urinary)
-
-Rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn's
122
Q

Anakinra

A
  • Anti-IL1 agent
  • ## Competitive IL-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1Ra analog)
  • Short half-life, daily injection required
    Increased susceptibility to infection
    -
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis, possibly other inflammatory diseases
123
Q

Tofacitinib

A
  • Jak kinase inhibitor
  • Inhibits all activity of cytokines required for adaptive immunity (eg., IL-2, IL-4, etc.) and inhibits all activities for many inflammatory cytokines (eg., IL-6)
    Distinguishing Chem Characteristics (Unique or “weird” features)
  • oral administration; therapeutic doses chosen to produce incomplete Jak inhibition, because higher doses expected to produce potent
    immunosuppression AND adverse effects.
  • ## Anemia, neutropenia, general myelosuppression, increased risk of infection (especially Herpes Zoster)
  • RA: Currently second line therapy for those failing methotrexate
124
Q

Aspirin

A

Nonselective COX inhibitor
- Irreversible Acetylation of COX enzymes
- Long lasting block
-
-
-Increased bleeding, gastric ulcers, salicylism, Reye’s syndrome, dyspepsia, renal issues
- OTC analgesic / antipyretic, cardiovascular prophylaxis

125
Q

Diclofenac

A 
Nonselective COX inhibitor
- Reversible inhibition of COX
-
- Selectivity for COX 2 over COX 1 
-
- Increased bleeding, gastric ulcers, dyspepsia, renal issues, CV events
- RX for arthritis, anti-inflammatory
126
Q

Diclofenac with misoprostol

A 
Nonselective COX inhibitor
- Reversible inhibition of COX
-
- Selectivity for COX 2 over COX 1 
- Misoprostol should help GI symptoms 
- Increased bleeding, gastric ulcers, dyspepsia, renal issues, CV events
- RX for arthritis, anti-inflammatory
127
Q

Ibuprofen

A 
Nonselective COX inhibitor 
- Reversible inhibition of COX
-
-
-Increased bleeding, gastric ulcers. dyspepsia, renal issues, CV events
- 
-  OTC analgesic, antipyretic,
128
Q

Indomethacin

A

Nonselective COX inhibitor
- Reversible inhibition of COX
-
- Increased inhibition of COX 1 over COX 2
-
- High incidence of GI problems leading to intolerance
- RX for arthritis, anti inflammatory

129
Q

Ketorolac

A 
Nonselective COX inhibitor 
- Reversible inhibition of COX
-
- Increased inhibition of COX 1 over COX 2 
-
-
-Post surgical analgesic
130
Q

Naproxen

A

Nonselective COX inhibitor
- Reversible inhibition of COX
-
-
-Increased bleeding, gastric ulcers, dyspepsia, renal issues, CV events
-
- OTC analgesic, antipyretic, RX anti-inflammatory

131
Q

Acetaminophen

A 
Nonselective COX inhibitor 
-
-
-
-hepatotoxicity with overdose
-
-
132
Q

Celecoxib

A 
Cox-2 selective inhibitor 
-
-
-
-Renal toxicity, increased risk of cardiovascular events
-
-
133
Q

Rofecoxib

A 
Cox-2 selective inhibitor 
-
-
-
-Renal toxicity, increased risk of cardiovascular events 
-
-
134
Q

Albuterol

A

-Beta-2 agonist
-stim adenyl cyclase and cAMP–>relax bronch smooth m.
-
-short DOA
-tachycardia, muscle tremor, headache
-bronchodilate acute asthma

135
Q

Salmeterol

A

-Beta-2 agonist
-stim adenyl cyclase and cAMP–>relax bronch smooth m
-
-long DOA
-tachycardia, muscle tremor, headache
-bronchodilate

136
Q

Salmeterol with Fluticasone

A

-Beta-2 agonist with corticosteroid
-stim adenyl cyclase and cAMP–>relax bronch smooth m
-
-combination necessary in maintenance therapy
-
-maintenance bronchodilation

137
Q

Beclomethasome

A

-corticosteroid
-inhibit inflam. response system thru gene expression
-
-topical inhalation
-generally none
-long term asthma reduction

138
Q

Budenoside

A

-corticosteroid
-inhibit inflam. response system thru gene expression
-
-topical inhalation
-generally none
-long term asthma reduction

139
Q

Fluticasome

A

-corticosteroid
-inhibit inflam. response system thru gene expression
-
-topical inhalation
-generally none
-long term asthma reduction

140
Q

Prednisone

A

-corticosteroid
-inhibit inflam. response system thru gene expression
-
-oral or intravenous
- glucose metab.,Cushing’s, hypert, increased infection
-asthma

141
Q

Triamcinolone

A

-corticosteroid
-inhibit inflam. response system thru gene expression
-
-topical inhalation
-generally none
-long term asthma reduction

142
Q

Montelukast

A

-leukotriene modulator
-receptor antagonist of LTD4
-
-oral
-
-long-term controller of asthma

143
Q

Zafirlukast

A

-leukotriene modulator
-receptor antagonist of LTD4
-
-oral
-
- long term controller of asthma

144
Q

Zileuton

A

-leukotriene modulator
-inhibitor of 5-lipoxygenase inhibiting synthesis of LTB/D4
-
-oral
-liver toxicity, and inhibits some CYPs
-long term controller of asthma

145
Q

Cromolyn

A
  • degranulation inhibitor
  • possible inhibit of Ca channels in Mast cell degranulation
  • poorly soluble salt
  • Topical
  • well tolerated
  • long term prophylactic maintenance of asthma
146
Q

Nedocromil

A
  • degranulation inhibitor
  • possible inhibit of Ca channels in Mast cell degranulation
  • poorly soluble salt
  • Topical
  • well tolerated
  • long term prophylactic maintenance of asthma
147
Q

Ipratropium

A 
-muscarinic cholinergic antagonist
-
-quaternary ammonium
-shorter DOA, topical inhalant 
-tachycardia, decreased salivation
-bronchodilation and min. mucociliary clearance problems
148
Q

Theophylline

A
  • Misc. Bronchodilator
  • inhibit phosphodiesterase degradation of cAMP
  • methylxanthine
  • oral, LongDOA
  • tachycardia and CNS stimulation
  • long-term maintenance of asthma

Medical Pharmacology Exam 1 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions