Exam 1 Clin Path Flashcards

1
Q

Reticulocytes What are they? Why do we count them?

A

What are they? –Immature RBC that have lost their nuculus but still contain organelles. –These organelles clump and form reticulums that appear as blue clumps Why do we care? –to determine if the anemia is regenerative or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 main things that cause anemia

A
  1. blood loss (usually see with decrease in Total protein) 2. blood destruction 3. insufficient production by bone marrow (will NOT see increase reticulocytes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a leukogram?

A

part of a CBC that refers to leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Decreased lymphocytes is almost always associated with?

A

STRESS The endogenous cortisol release due to the stress of an animal being sick is cytotoxic to lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are some problems with machine leukogram counts?

A

–Cannot distinguish b/w nucleated RBC and WBC and thus NCC may be inaccurate –Cannot distinguish between band and mature neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does an increase in band neutrophils suggest?

A

Inflammation!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of Heinz Body formation in cats? What are other causes?

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Others:

Propylene Glycol (rare- but they used to put it in chapstick and cat food to soften it)

Ketosis- ketones cause oxidation of hemoglobun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is that on this RBC?

A

Heinz body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are Heinz bodies? and How do they cause anemia? What species is most susceptible?

A

Heinz bodies are composed of:

denatured hemoglobin

How do they cause anemia:

(1) decrease membrane flexibility –> more susceptible to breaking, especially in smaller capillaries
(2) change in RBC antigenicity –>
(a) destruction by macrophages
(b) antibody-antigen complex formation –> complement activation –> MAC –> intravasular lysis

Most susceptible species: Cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why do you see low Phosphorus when you have PU/PD and diabetes?

A

Phosphorus is removed via urine

Glucose causes osmotic diuresis and phosphorus is drawn out with the water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is the main cause of increased albumin?

A

Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What level does Total Bilirubin have to reach before the patient is “yellow”/incteric ?

Normal range is about 0- 0.3

A

2- 2.5 or higher

Increase T bili is caused by (1) increased RBC destruction (2) Liver dysfunction (3) bile duct obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some unmeasurable anions that increase the anion gap?

A

Ketones and Lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do you see in blood work of a cat when it is excited? vs stressed?

A

Excited: increase in epinephrine

  • increase in glucose as high as 450 mg/dL
  • INCREASE in lymphocyte count (up to 20,000 in CATS only)

Stressed: increased cortisol

  • mild increase in glucose
  • lymphoPENIA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the Mean Cell Volume (MCV) measure?

A

Average size of the RBC

Low MCV is the hallmark of iron defiiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)

A

Measures average Hg concentration in RBC

Useful in determining type of anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RDW

A

Distribution width of the rbc

calulated erythrocte indices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What would you see in Spenic hemangiosarcoma?

A

Common in old large breed dogs
Mass may rupture and generate a hemoabdomen–> anemia
If tumor seals over- the blood in the abdominal cavity is reabsorbed (protein and iron will be recycled)

See acanthocytes (RBC with projections) and schistocytes (fragmented RBC)

Confirm via aspirating abdominal fluid -or- U/S for mass

Blood loss indications- regenerative anemia (high retics & nucleated RBC), decrease Total Protein (may reabsorb and look normal), decrease platelets (consumption)

may see cortisol/stress induce decrease lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia

A

Most common cause of blood destruction anemia in dogs

Spherocytes! - ball shaped RBC due to the loss of plasma membrane while maintaining Hg concentrations

90% of dogs with IMHA have inflammatory leukograms (high band neutrophils and leukocytosis)- possibly due to necrosis associated with anemia or DIC or macrophage activation

May be accompanied by immune-mediated thrombocytopenia= Evans syndrome

Treatment: glucocorticosteroids to calm the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Evans Syndrome

A

Combo of IMHA and immune mediated thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

LOW MVC is hallmark- RBC belive to be smaller due to extra divisions

In nursing animals due to the low concentrations of iron in milk. This is quickly corrected once the animal is placed on a solid diet that is rich in iron.

In adult animals iron deficiency is due to either:

(1) decrease absorption
(2) Increase loss- such as in chronic blood loss (ie parasitic infetion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some things that only affect RBC production?

Ie if you have non-regenerative anemia

A

Usually external things

(1) Inflammaion= anemia of inflammatory disease (AIDs)=most common cause of non-regenerative anemia in domestic animals but is not very clinically significant because it corrects itself once the inflammation is removed and is not very severe. This will also have INCREASED storage iron and normocytic in most domestic animals (low MCV in humans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why would you see a higher PCV?

A

high elevation (in colorodo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How early will you see reticulocytes after blood loss/ blood destruction?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are some things that cause generalized bone marrow production problems

A
  • Chronic Ehrlichiosis –> pancytopenia by affecting bone marrow stem cells
  • chemicals
  • drugs
  • immune mediated disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Packed Cell Volume? vs Hematocrit?

A

Percentage of whole blood composed of erythrocytes
Called “hematocrit” when calculated by instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is within the Buffy Coat?

A

Leukocytes
• Nucleated erythrocytes
• Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are two causes of yellow plasma?

A
  1. Icterus
  2. Carotene pigments- associated with diet in large animals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What causes White/Opaque Plasma? Why is this a problem? and how do you avoid it?

A

lipemia (chylomicrons)

may be due to postprandial collection or diseases associated with abnormalities in lipid metabolism (ex. diabetes)

Interferes with biochemical profile reading

restrict food for 12 hours before blood is drawn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What makes plasma red?

What are two causes? how do you tell the causes apart?

A

Red discoloration is due to the presence of hemoglobin in plasma due to hemolysis

Causes:

(1) in vitro technique -destruction during sample collection
(2) Lipemia- induces RBC lysis in-vitro
(3) In- VIVO hemolytic anemia due to intravascular hemolysis

How do you tell them apart? normal PCV=in-vitro, decreased= in-vivo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Plasma protein by refractometry

A

Refractometers estimate the concentration of solute in fluid, since solute bends slight passing through the fluid proportionate to the solute concentration.

Assumes all solutes are proteins.

Serem T protein will be lower than plasma Total protein due to fibrinogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the difference b/w Serum and Plasma?

A

SERUM- NO anticoagulant in collection tube, thus coagulation proteins (fibrinogen) are not in fluid because they are in the blood clot

PLASMA- collected in EDTA tube - keeps coagulation protein within the fluid.

Plasma will have a slighly higher total protein than serum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What artificially increases the estimate of plasma proteins by refactometry?

A

Lipemia

Urea

Glucose

Cholesterol

Plasma will be higher than serum due to plasma still containing coagulation factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Total Leukocyte Concentration/ Total nucleated cell count

A

Detects all nuclei in solution in which the RBC have been removed by lysis

“Leukogram”

includes nucleated RBC in count if done mechanically

Used to CALCULATE the specific leukocyte types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Differential nucleated cell count

A

Classifies nucleated cells as:

Segmented neutrophils
Band neutrophils
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils
Nucleated RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do you convert % of each cell to absolute number?

ON EXAM

A

Multiply the total nucleated cell concentration by the percentage of each leukocyte type to yield the absolute concentration of each type of nucleated cell within the blood sample.

Eg, total nucleated cell count = 10,000 μl
80% of cells are segmented neutrophils
80% x 10,000 μl = 8,000 μl segs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a Macroplatelet?

A

young platelet that approaches the size of RBC

aka giant pletelet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many platelets should you see per oil immersion field?

A

6-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where should you look for clumped platelets on a blood film? What is the side effect of having high clumping?

Which species often has this?

A

Look for clumped platelets on the feathered edge

Clumping of platelets will make your platelet count erroneously low.

80% of cats have platelets that clump quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What doyou get with your automated hematologic instrumentation?

What are some problems?

A

Cell particle counting and sizing
• RBC count (x106/μl
• MCV (fl)
• Nucleated cell count (μl)
• Differential cell count (μl) - does not count neoplastic cells and does not recognize band neutrophils
• Platelet count (μl)
• Reticulocyte count and size (μl, fl)
Spectrophotometry
• Hemoglobin concentration (g/dl) (usually approx
1/3 of the PCV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What should the Hemoglobin concentration be compared to the PCV? (disregarding units)

A

Hemoglobin concentration is usually approx
1/3 of the PCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do you calculate the Hematocrit on automated instruments?

A

(MCV x RBC)/10 = HCT (PCV)

should match the manual PCV- if not there is an issue with MCV measurement or RBC count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How would you calculate MCV manually?

A

PCV/RBC x 10 = MCV

not done anymore. High errror

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do you calculate the MCHC?

A

[Hgb (g/dl) / PCV (%)] x 100 = MCHC (g/dl)

normally b/w 32 to 36 g/dl in all species EXCEPT camelids which are approx. 41-45 g/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What approxamatly is the normal MCHC?

A

32 -36 g/dl in all species EXCEPT camelids which are approx. 41-45 g/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What causes an increase in MCHC?

A

ARTIFACT!!!

Due to hemolysis, lipemia, or presence of
Heinz bodies (pieces of denatured hemoglobin as
a result of oxidation will break off and look more dense and interfere with reading).

RBC can only contain so much Hg, so it cannot naturally be high

Also be due to incorrect PCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What causes a decrease in MCHC?

A

(1) SEVERE iron deficency (does not always happen in animals)

(2) presence of many
reticulocytes that are still making hemoglobin,
usually associated with a regenerative anemia. Reticulocytes have the same Hg but they have more membrane and thus the concentration is lower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Size distribution curve

A

Established for each population of cells
(eg, leukocytes, erythrocytes, platelets).

Should be bell shaped curve

Species specific, thus sizing has to be adjusted for species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

MCV of RBC?

Dogs, cats, horses, cows. sheep, llama, goats, humans?

A

Dog: 60 - 72 fl - central pallor
Cat, horse, cow: 39 - 52 fl
Sheep: 25-35 fl
Llama: 21 - 29
Goat: 15-25
Human: 80 - 100 fl - central pallor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Red cell distribution width (RDW)

Why would the curve be wider?

A

Describes the relative width describes the relative width of the size distribution curve.
• It is the standard deviation of most of the erythrocytes divided by the MCV.

The tails of the erythrocyte distribution are usually excluded from this calculation.

Why would you have a wider curve?

(1) abnormal number of big cells (2) abnormal number of small cells (3) both (two cell populations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Why would you have two population of RBC?

A
  • recovering from iron deficiency anemia -or- recovered from chronic blood loss
    • blood transfusion
  • -mixing of dog and cat blood together…
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Polychromatic RBC

A

Reticulocytes are polychromatic RBCs when stained with Wrights stain

Look slightly blue but not clumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Reticulocyte concentration

A

Determined by Flow technology or manually (with special stain)

Immature erythrocytes (reticulocytes) still have organelles for protein synthesis and aerobic metabolism (ribosomes and mitochondria).
Certain stains cause these residual organelles to aggregate, resulting in clumped material that can be seen.

Do not bother to manually count the reticulocytes unless the dog has less than 30 PCV, and a cat with PCV less than 24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Reticulocyte count

A

Use New Methylene Blue or Brilliant cresyl blue to see clumped organelles

Multiply the % reticulocytes (from counting 1000 RBC) by the total RBC count to obtain an absolute reticulocyte concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are normal reticulocyte concentration in dogs, cats, cows and horses?

A

Dogs: 0 - 60,000/μl
Cats: 0 - 40,000/μl
Cows: 0, but release when regenerative anemia
Horses: Do not release reticulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

You have an anemic horse, should you order a reticulocyte count to determine if it is regenerative or not?

A

NO!!!!!!!!

They dont even release reticulocytes, silly!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What can you say about these reticulocyte ranges?

0 - 10,000μl
10,000 - 60,000 μl
60,000-200,000 μl
> 200,000 μl

A

Non regenerative anemia: 0 - 10,000μl
Poorly regenerative anemia: 10,000 - 60,000 μl
Mild to moderate regeneration: 60,000-200,000 μl
Maximal regeneration: > 200,000 μl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

So, tell me about reticulocyte maturation in dogs and cats?

A

Dogs - 24 -48 hours from release to maturation
Cats - Aggregate reticulocytes become punctate reticulocytes. Punctate forms are not polychromatophilic with Wrights stain, and are not counted in the reticulocyte count. Aggregates become punctates in approx 12 hours. Punctates persist for 12 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a punctate reticulocytes? What species has it? When do they form? and how long do they persist?

A

>^CATS^

Aggregate reticulocytes become punctate reticulocytes.

Punctate forms are not polychromatophilic with Wrights stain, and are not counted in the reticulocyte count.

Aggregates become punctates in approx 12 hours.

Punctates persist for 12 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does it mean is ALL of your cats RBC are punctate reticulocytes?

A

All your RBC are less than 12 days old (RBC lives about 70 days in cat)

Cat must be recovering from blood destruction or blood loss

(Ex. Cat is recovering from heinz body anemia!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is your MCV in regenerative anemia?

A

High!!

Macrocytic anemia- regenerative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In domestic animals, what kind of anemia do you have with Viramin B deficiency?

A

Normocytic Anemia!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a cause of microcytic anemia? what is your MCV?

A

Iron (Fe) deficiency anemia

LOW MCV!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

True or False:

You should ignore the feathered edge of a blood film

A

FALSE!!

You should always scan it to look for platelet clumps or other large things such as microfilaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are common causes of polychromasia?

A

Blood loss

Blood destriction

Recovering marrow (least common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which species will have hypochromasia in iron deficiency anemia?

A

Dogs and Llamas

Llamas will also have a thin membrane and folded RBC

Cats DO NOT get pale, if they do it is very subtle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How would you describe this?

Why would this happen?

A

“Punched out” or “Bowl” shaped RBC

NOT a true hypochromasia. Rim of RBC is wider and darker than a true hypochromasia

Happens due to a membrane disorder/defect in which the RBC do not “bounce back” after going through small cappilaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are Acanthocytes, Echinocytes and Keratocytes all classified as?

A

Spiculated RBC

They all have projection from their membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the arrows pointing to? What is this indication of?

A

Acanthocytes!!

They have few, unevenly distributed projection (usually larger than Echinocytes) due to changes in lipid concentration in the RBC membrane

Indicates:

Humans with liver disease
Cats with hepatic lipidosis
Dogs with any hemangiosarcoma (20% of the time)

Also just been seen in dogs in St. Kitts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are these? What are they called when they are formed in-vitro? Why do they form in-vivo?

A

Echinocytes!!

They have numerous, short spicules about the same shape. Does NOT affect polychromatic cells.

In-vitro= crenation = form due to pH changes during slow drying of film. Common in humid areas!

In-vivo formation:

  1. Electrolyte imbalances (eg. calve with diarrhea)
  2. Non-specific diseases (eg, kidney disease due to increase netrogenous waste)
  3. Rattlesnake envenomation= Type 3 echinocytes= diagnostic!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What will you see on a blood film of a dogs with Rattlesnake envenomation?

A

Type 3 Echinocytes with small needle like projections

Loss of central palor

Polychromatic cells are not affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What cells wont have echinocyte formation?

A

polychromatic cells!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are some causes of Schistocytes?

A
  1. Intravascular trauma (eg, DIC, vascular tumors)
    • If DIC, platelet count will be low
    • DIC causes fragmentation due to RBC being clothes-lined to fibrin strands of clots
  2. Iron Deficiency Anemia - fragmentation is secondary to shape change and membrane abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does the presence Spherocytes suggest?

A

IMHA!!!

Spherocytes are Erythrocytes that appear small and lack central
pallor. But the volume is normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is a Spherocyte?

A

Spherocytes are Erythrocytes that appear small and lack central
pallor. But the volume is normal.

Presence suggests IMHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the arrows pointing to? What our some nick names? When are these most commonly seen?

A

Keratocyte

RBC abnormality in which you have one ot two long spicules that form due to the fomration of a “bubble” within the membrane

May be called apple stem cells or purse cells

Seen in Iron deficincy anemia

Other things to notice with picture: Cats do not lose their central palor with iron deficiency anemia (unlike dogs). There are macroplatelets (50% of iron deficiency anemia also has thrombocytosis- possibly due to megakaryocyte response to EPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which species has a marked central palor increase with iron deficency anemia?

A

DOGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the arrows pointing to?

Describe them! What does it suggest? How are they formed?

A

Spherocytes!

RBC that appear small and lack central pallor. Volume is normal (MCV is normal)

Presence suggest IMHA

Formed by macrophages nibbling off peices of membrane due to Ab-Ag complexes and complement attachment.

Amount of Hg within the cell is the same, there is just less membrane so the cell becomes a “beach ball” instead of a biconcaved “frisbee”

May also see evidence of regeneration and agglutination (if IgM).

Difficult to see in cats, horses and cows due to their lack of central pallor and already small RBC. Good thing IMHA is most common in dogs!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are some things that can cause IMHA? What will you see?

A

IMHA can be caused by viruses, haptens, drugs, heinz bodies that cause changes in antigenicity, intracellular parasites.

See sphirocytes!

Also regeneration, normal MCV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

In addition to sphirocytes, what also can cause RBC to look smaller?

A

Aging

This may be the cause of smaller looking RBC if there are very few present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What type of antibody cause agglitination of RBC?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is is called when an entire RBC is phagocytosed by a macrophage? Where does this usually occur?

A

Extracellular hemolysis

Occurs in the sinosoids of the spleen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

When does intravascular hemolysis occur?

A

Occurs when there is high Ab-Ag complex formation or high complement activation that leads to completion of the complement cascade with a MAC complex

The pores formed by the MAC complex cause spilling of hemoglobin into the blood, and subsequently the urine.

Patients with intravascular hemolysis may also have increased bilirubin levels due to incread RBC destruction (Pre-hepatic cause of icterus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the arrow pointing to? What is the most common cause of this in dogs?

A

Eccentrocytes - shifting of hemoglobin to one side of the cell that results in a clear zone outlined by membrane.

Caused by oxidative damages to hemoglobin.

Ingestion of Onions is the most common cause of eccentrocytes in dogs.

Often seen in conjunction with Heinz body formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is a torocyte?

A

bowl-shaped erythrocyte

Do not mistake for hypochromasia cells

Occurs due to membrane abnormality that causes the cells not to bounce back after shape change while passing through small capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is a leptocyte?

A

Leptocytes are thin RBC

Not diagnostic/clinically significant

Sometimes caused by iron deficienct anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the arrows pointing too? Is it diagnostic for anything?

A

Target Cells

Target cells are RBC that have a “glob” of dense hemoglobin within the area of their central pallor.

Not signifigant- it is not diagnostic for anything

Sometimes seen in animals with high cholesterol, but also seen in normal animals so, again, not significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are these RBC called? Which breeds are predisposed? Our they significant?

A

Stomatocytes

Very rare RBC morphology change in which the central pallor is wide and narrow and looks like a mouth.

Not significant, especially if very few are present.

If abaundant, it due to genetetic predisposition

Common in:

Dwarf Alaskan Malamutes

Miniature Schnauzers (normal)

Drentse partrijshond (with inherited GI disorder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are 6 causes of Heinz Body Anemia in small animals? Which species are each of them in?

A
  • *ACETAMINOPHEN** (CATS)
  • *PROPYLENE GLYCOL** (CATS)
  • *ILLNESS** (CATS)- lymphoma, hyperthyroidism, diabetes= ketotic
  • *ONIONS** (ALL SPECIES), garlic powder
  • *CEPHALOSPORINS** (DOGS)
  • *Zinc toxicosis** (penny ingestion)- cause fatal anemia in puppies

Use New methlene blue stain to see (always preform if anemic cat). Often not obvious on wright stain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are causes of heinz bodies in horses, cattle and sheep?

A

Horses:
Phenothiazine
Wilted red maple leaves** Most common**

Cattle:
Kale
Onions

Sheep:
Copper toxicosis- will store Copper in liver and then release it when stressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Basophilic stippling

What is it? when does it occur?

A

Basophilic stippling are abnormal aggregation of ribosomes that form in-vivo and appear a small basophilic granules with a simple wright stain.

NORMAL in ruminats- especially within polychromatophilic cells

Small animals may have them if very regenerative anemia or lead poisening

Lead poisoning also has neuro and GI signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are four causes of Nucleated RBCs/ Howell Jolly Bodies

A

4 causes:

(1) Regnerative anemia
(2) Non-functional spleen or splenectomy - loss/decrease of macrophages to uptake nucleated RBC
(3) Increased corticosteroids - endogenous or exogenous - inhibit macrophage function

(4) Lead poisening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are blood indications that you should check lead levels for lead poisening?

A

Basophilic Stippling

Nucleated RBC/ Howell-Jolly bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Where will you find distemper inclusion bodies? What do they look like?

A

Distempter inclusion bodies are within erythrocytes and leukocytes

They are rare and only present in the early stages of the disease (not good for diagnosis)

The color depend on the stain you are using

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is this RBC arrangement? When does it occur? What is a way to differentiate it?

A

Rouleaux formation

Normal in horses
Suggests increased globulin in small animals

To differentiate, add isotonic saline to drop of blood.
If rouleaux, disperses. If agglutination, persists.

May look clumped if severe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

How do you differentiate agglutination from Rouleaux formation?

A

Add isotonic saline to drop of blood.

If rouleaux, disperses. If agglutination, persists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does agglutination suggest?

A

IgM attachment to RBC (IMHA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are some obvious clinical sign differences of patients with acute anemia disorders, compaired to those with chronic anemia disorders?

A

Patients with acute anemia disroders will be weak at a higher PCV.

Patients with chronic anemia disorders have had time to compensate and still will be walking into the clinic at very low PCV.

Cats can ahve PCV as low as 6% and still appear healthy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

After preforming a protein electrophoresis, what does monoclonal gammopathy suggest?

A

Monoclonal gammopathy= Neoplasm of plasma cell or B-cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

After preforming a protein electrophoresis, what does polyclonal gammopathy suggest?

A

polyclonal gammopathy= infection (non-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are three ways to measure Red Cell Mass

A

Hematocrit - calculated

PCV- # 1 if manual

hemoglobin concentration - direcly measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are clincial signs of anemia? What are things that can be associated with it?

A

Pale mucous membranes
Lethargy, reduced exercise tolerance
Increased respiratory rate, dyspnea
Increased heart rate
Murmurs if

Polyuris and Polydypsia (In renal failure, also low EPO)

Splenomegaly (blood destruction)

Icterus (blood destruction)

Hemoglobinuria (blood destruction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Why is splenomegaly associated with blood destruction anemia?

A

(1) M0 in the spleen uptake RBC
(2) Spleen is an organ of RBC production, if anemia is severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

When trying to diagnose anemia, what are the top 4 test to look at?

A

Red blood cell mass (PCV)
Mean cell volume
Reticulocyte count (except in horses)
Total protein (usually only in acute blood loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is a cytogram?

A

dot graph

Large cells are on top

Hypochrome cells to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What could your cat have if it has (1) hypochromic cells and (2) low reticulocyte count?

A

FeLV

you should do further diagnostic tests to confirm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What could cause periodic episodes of weakness in a large breed dog?

A

Hemangiosarcoma

Also see acanthocyes and schistocytes.

If rupture, you may see acanthocytes in hemoabdomen fluid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

When do you see anemia and PU/PD?

A

Renal Failure

The kidney produced EPO, which is essential for RBC formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What will you see in your blood work in acute blood loss?

A

(1) Decrease total protein (return to normal in one week, maybe faster if internal blood loss)
(2) Decrease PCV
(3) Normal erthrocyte morphology (Except in hemangiosarcoma- 25% will have acanthocytes and schistocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are examples of acute blood loss (name 5)

A

TRAUMA

SURGERY
COAGULATION DISORDERS
BLEEDING TUMORS
THROMBOCYTOPENIA (if

** Blood loss does not cause thrombocytopenia- it will maybe only bring platelets down to 90,000 to 100,000**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are common examples of chronic blood loss?

A

GI Ulcers, Bleeding GI tumors = LOSS VIA THE INTESTINES IS MOST COMMON

Blood consuming parasites (hookworms)

Less commonly- blood in urine, epistasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the most common causes of iron deficiency anemia in young and adult animals?

A

young= Physiological anemia= due to inadequate iron in milk (may have failure to thrive)

adults = chronic blood loss

Also could be due to malabsorption of iron, cooper deficiency in large animals, peridoxine in large animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What do you see in Iron deficiency anemia? (13 things..)

A
  1. Microcytosis = GOLD STANDARD
  2. Low PCV
  3. Low Reticulocyte MCV (only thing that causes this)
  4. Increased RDW (unless chronic)
  5. normal MCHC (unlike humans)
  6. Keratocyte and decreased central pallor on blood film
  7. Regenerative (unless AIDs or all iron stores depleted)
  8. Thrombocytosis (may be as large as RBC)
  9. Decreased Serum iron concentrations
  10. decrease transferring saturation
  11. decrease storage iron (ferritin or hemosiderin)
  12. Normal total iron binding capacity in cats and dogs (increased in other species)- determines how much transferrin the animals liver is making, most animals (other than cats and dogs) compensate for iron deficiency by increasing ferritin.
  13. Folding RBC (in llamas)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Should you give a adult dog iron supplements to corrects its iron deficiency anemia?

A

NO!!

Unless the dog is starving, commercial dog food is very very high in iron (to a point where all iron receptors are saturated in the gut) so iron supplements would be useless

YOU SHOULD LOOK FOR THE CAUSE OF BLOOD LOSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Why is is better to give injectable iron to neonates?

A

oral iron can be toxic to immature livers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are differential diagnosis for mictocytosis?

A
  1. Iron deficiency anemia
  2. portosystemic shunts (young animals)
  3. breed predisposition (asian breeds)
  4. anemia of inflammatory disease (decreased MCV with AID common in humans, rare in dogs).
    • Usually normocytic in dogs.
    • Can differentiate, because anemia of inflammatory disease will have increased storage iron.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

If you have a very high reticulocyte count, what would you expect your MCV to be?

A

Slightly raised. Reticulocytes are larger than normal RBC and may alter your measurement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Would bleeding into the abdominal cavity cause Iron deficiency anemia?

A

Nope, the blood (and its iron) is reabsorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are two reasons you would have an increase in nucleated RBC?

A

Regenerative anemia

Spleen dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Solutes that will interfere (artificially ↑ TP):

A

‒Lipemia: chylomicrons, lipids
‒Urea
‒Glucose
‒Cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

If the PCV and TP are proportionally increased, then the patient is….

A

dehydrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

If the PCV and TP are proportionally decreased, then the patient has….

A

blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

2 major constituents of the “total protein”?

A

1) Albumin (ALB)
2) Globulin (GLOB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

How can you tell if an increased total protein is due to dehydration or inflammation/neoplasia?

A

↑ALB and↑ GLOB (dehydration)

↑GLOB (inflammation, neoplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How can you use ALB and GLOB to determine what causes a decreased TP?

A

↓ALB and ↓GLOB =blood loss, PLE
↓ALB =PLN, liver failure, vasculitis)
↓GLOB =FPT, SCIDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What do you usually/routinely stain blood films with?

A

Wright Stain
Wright-Giemsa Stain
Modified Wright Stains = “Diff-Quick”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What should you do if you have to do a blood film for an anemic patient?

A

Increase angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are signs of toxic change?

A

Basophilia
Foamy cytoplasm (soap bubbles)
Döhle bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Red top tube

A

no anticoagulant
Blood is expected to clot
Serum used for biochemical profile and many other tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Red/Black top tube

” Tiger-top, Marble-top”

A

Serum separator
Gel that promotes blood clot formation and separates cells from serum

Uses:
‒Chemistry analysis
‒Serology

Not recommended for drug levels, hormones, or toxin analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

purple top tube

A

Ethlenediaminetetraaceticacid (EDTA) with a K+ salt
Anticoagulant, Ca2+ chelator (acts on platelets)
Preserves cell morphology

Uses:
‒CBC
‒Fibrinogen
‒Reticulocyte count
‒Buffy coat analysis
‒Fluid analysis
‒Blood banks
‒Coombs test
‒PCR
‒Endogenous ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is wrong if you have extremly/non-compatible with life K levels and decreased Ca2+ levels?

A

Cross contamination of EDTA!

EDTA contains K+ salt and calcium chelators!

******KNOW THIS*****

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Green top tube

A

Heparin!

Heparin is an anticoagulant, inhibits thrombin
Contains fibrinogen

Uses:
‒Chemistry panels
‒Avian/reptile CBC and chemistry panel
‒Plasma colloid oncotic pressure (COPs)
‒Measurement of electrolytes
‒Specific tests (i.e. lead conc, ammonia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Blue top tube

A

Citrate

Anticoagulant, Ca2+ chelator

Uses:
‒Coagulation tests: PT, aPTT, FDP
‒PIVKA
‒Antithrombin
‒Coagulation factor analysis
‒Von Willebrand’s Factor analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Grey top tube

A

sodium fluoride oxalate
Contains Anticoagulant, Ca2+ chelator
Inhibits glucose metabolism b/c fluoride inhibits glycolysis

Uses:
‒Plasma for serial glucose, lactate and pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How much blood do you typically need or CBC and biochemical profiles?

A

~5 ml

varies by analyzer and pediatric tubes are available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What happens to your blood if you have tissue contamination or traumatic phlebotomy ?

A

Platelet activation!

‒clot formation
‒erroneously low platelet count (and WBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What size needle should you ideally use for filling blood tubes?

A

Use a 20 G needle or larger for filling.

Don’t force blood into tube
Tubes are vacuum tubes -can utilize the vacuum or can actually take the stopper off and fill.

If using syringe to collect blood and then filling tubes

  • work quickly
  • Fill tubes that contain anticoagulant first
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

In vaccum tubes, how do you know how much blood to put in?

A

Ratio of blood to anticoagulant is designed to be appropriate by amount of vacuum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What happens if you do not put enough blood into a purple top tube?

A

excess EDTA –>erythrocytes shrink (due to salts)
‒erroneous decrease in PCV
‒erroneous decrease in MCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

When should you analyze your blood for CBC?

A

Analyze within one hour- or - Make blood film and refrigerate tube.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Should you refrigerate blood films?

A

NOOOOO!!

Do not refrigerate blood film, condensation causes cells lysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Should you freeze your blood sample for a CBC?

A

NOOO!!

Do not freeze the sample; freezing causes cell lysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What happens if you let blood set for 24 hours at room temperature?

A

erythrocytes swell, resulting in increase in MCV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

How long should you allow blood to clot for a biochemical profile? What happens if you wait too long?

A

15 to 30 minutes

Too long= lowers glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What the procedure for sampling and processing blood for biochemical profiles?

A
  1. Blood allowed to clot for 15 to 30 minutes
  2. Centrifuge
  3. Separate serum from clot using pipette
  4. Refrigerate harvested serum until analyzed

(freeze if can’t analyze within two days)

147
Q

When should you freeze harvested serum for biochem profiles?

A

freeze if can’t analyze within two days

148
Q

What is a healthy animal in vet med considered?

A

Has both:

(1) Absence of Disease (in history, PE, and diagnostics)
(2) Well-being (preventatives and husbandry)

149
Q

What is a reference interval?

A

Describes fluctuations within a healthy populations

Ideally should be based on > 120 animals (but anything over 20 is OK)

It is between 2 reference limits/standards deviations from the mean- includes 95% of population.

~5% of healthy animals will naturally be outside this interval

150
Q

How can you define a population for a referance interval? (2 types of criteria)

A

(1) Biological Criteria - species, breed, age

( 2)Geographical Criteria- location, climate season

151
Q

What are the 3 phases where errors can occur with data interpretation

A

Pre-Analytical (Most common)

Analytical

Post-analytical

152
Q

What are the two major categories of Pre-Analytical Factors

A
  1. Technical effects- due to sampling technique and specimen management
    • Ex. choice of anticoagulant, needle, shipment, labeling, test ordered
  2. Biologic factors - inherent with the animal samples
    • Ex. Age, Sex, Breed, Pregnancy, Lactation, Medications, time of day, fasted/non-fasted, exercise, physical/chemical restraint
153
Q

What are things that could reduce error in the analytical phase?

A

Improve instrument function by using calibration and quality control

Improve personnel knowledge and training on instruments

Follow manuals of standard operation procedures (SOPs)

154
Q

What are erros that occur in the post-analytical phase?

A

Errors in transcription
Misinterpretation/misreading of results

155
Q

Sensitivity

A

SNOUT = SeNsitive tests rule-OUT a disease when the result is negative

156
Q

Specificity

A

SPIN= SPecific tests rule-IN a disease when positive

157
Q

What are the two most ideal tests to determine if a dog has pancreatitis?

a. serum amylase
b. serum lipase
c. Spec cPLI
b) SNAP cPLI

A

c. Spec cPLI - 100% specific, but only 21% sensitive for mild disease. Will provide you with a quantitiative value, which is good for monitoring. Have to send out to special lab.
d. SNAP cPLI - point-of-care test. 93% sensitive and 75% specific

Serum lipase and amylase are useless due to the 50% specificity/sensitivity

158
Q

Accuaracy

A

How close the results is to the true value

159
Q

Precision

A

how repeatablethe result is when assaying the same sample

160
Q

Quality Control (QC)

A

Assues both accuracy and precision

Can monitor internally or externally

161
Q

What does internal monitoring of quality include?

A

‒Assessment of electronic safety
‒Monitoring water quality
‒Maintenance
‒Calibration (the more sample the better)
‒Performance log

162
Q

What are external monitoring of quality control?

A

Proficiency testing and inspections by accrediting organization

For instruments and humans

163
Q

Which GI tumor is common in older cats?

A

Adenocarcinoma

164
Q

Causes of IMHA?

A

Often secondary to other disorders (you often never learn the trigger)

Infection (clostridial in horses, Mycoplasma haemofelis and FELV in cats)

Modifiec live virus vaccine (very low risk, if any)

Neoplasm - especially lymphomas (production of faulty Ab)

Drugs (penicillin family)

165
Q

Common causes of IMHA in horses?

A

penicillin

clostridial infections

neoplasms

166
Q

Common causes of IMHA in cats?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

FeLV

Neoplasia

167
Q

What dog breed/sex is most likely to get IMHA?

A

Cocker spanials

Also poodles and collies

Females> males

Middle aged/ Old > young

168
Q

Coombs Test

A

Species specific test for antibodies on RBC via Ab directed towards IgG that will cause agglutination

Preform to confirm IMHA diagnosis

DO NOT PREFORM IF ALREADY HAVE AGGLUTINATION

Not a great test due to the high amounts of both false positives and false negatives

169
Q

IMHA Lab Findings

A

Thrombocytopenia may be present

  • May be immune-mediated (Evan’s syndrome)
  • DIC common with IMHA (also pulmonary thrombi)

Leukogram almost always inflammatory

  • Cytokines from activated macrophages?
  • Inflammation secondary to necrosis?

May be azotemic

  • (increased creatinine, BUN)
  • prerenal (hypoxia) or renal (hemoglobinuria is nephrotoxic)

Increase Monocytes

170
Q

6 DDx for Spherocytes

A
  1. Previous mismatched blood transfusion- either due to (1) Ab within the serum of transfused blood (fast) -or- (2) generation of Ab to transfused blood (slow)
  2. Rattlesnake evenomation in dogs
    • may remain after echinocytic changes have reversed
  3. Heinz body anemia in horses
    • can look like spherocytes due to (1) membrane collapase after eccentrocyte formation -or- (2) Heinz body formation results in band 3 clustering with 2nd Ab attachment
  4. Zinc toxicosis (changes antigenicity)- induces band 3 clustering
  5. Bee stings - contains mellitin and band 3 clustering which induces Ab attachment
  6. Clostridial infection in horses
    • see spherocytes, spheroechinocytes and type 3 echinocytes.
    • Related to phospholipase hydrolyzing RBC membrane phospholipids, producing lysolecithin, which is echinogenic.
171
Q

Prognosis of IMHA?

A

25-50% Mortality - depends on therapy

Usually die of thromboembolism

Recurrance common- it is important to identify the trigger

172
Q

Therapy for IMHA

A

GOLD STANDARD - Glucocosteroids to decrease Ab production, T-cell activity and M0 function

Also can provide immunosuppresive drugs- BUT have to be careful you do not Rx one that also inhibits erythropoiesis

Fluid therapy (increase perfusion and wash out hemoglobin)

Correct acidosis

NO blood transfusion (unless life threatening anemia)

NO splenectomy (produce some RBC and poor candidated for surgery)

Do something about DIC

173
Q

What is the most likely cause of this bump in a cocker spaniel with IMHA?

A

Agglutination of RBC

174
Q

What is Band 3?

A

Protein that exchanges bicarbonate ion for chloride ion in erythrocytes, thus greatly increasing capacity of blood to carry CO2.

Also important in maintaining cell shape.

If absent, spherocytosis and hemolytic anemia. (Japanese black cattle, knockout mice)

175
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis

A

Maternal antibodies against the neonates blood group antigen attach to the neonate’s RBCs, with subsequent RBC hemolysis.
Most common in horse and mule foals.

Foal Become weak and anemic after ingesting colostrum. Also may be hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly. Thrombocytopenia and DIC may be present.

176
Q

What is the best way to diagnos blood parasites?

A

PCR!!

Not blood film due to them sometimes being to small. in too low numbers, or sporadically shed in blood.

177
Q

What are the 7 Haemotrophic mycoplasmas?

A
  • Mycoplasma haemofelis
  • M. haemominutum
  • M. haemocanis
  • M. wenyonii
  • M. haemosuis
  • M. haemolamae
  • M ovis
178
Q

Cat

What are the arrows pointing on the left? the right?

A

Left= Mycoplasma haemofelis

Right= Water Artifact- spects will be refractile. Occurs when you do not fully dry the slide

179
Q

Mycoplasma haemofelis

Transmission? Diagnosis? Clinical Signs? Therapy?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis = Common, serious cause of severe anemia

Transmitted through (1) infected blood by blood feeding arthropods, (2) **cat bites **, and (3) iatrogenic exposure/blood transfusions (4) vertically

Diagnosis: blood film exam (parasitemia intermittent) or PCR.

Clinical Signs: anemia, splenomegly, fever, lethargy, sometimes icterus. Regenerative (unless underlysing disease -FeLV- or inflammation)

  • Usually associated with concurret disease (FeLV, FIV) or predisposing condition (immunosuppression, splenectomy, cat bite abcess)

Therapy- blood transfusion, +/- prednisone to supress RBC destruction, Doxycycline/Enrofloxacin.

  • CATS LIKELY REMAIN CARRIERS after treatment.
180
Q

Dog

A

Mycoplasma haemocanis
Opportunist
, usually only in splenectomized or severely immunosuppressed dogs.
Clinical signs anemia, may look like IMHA, icterus occasionally
Treat with doxycycline

VERY VERY RARE

181
Q

Bovine. What are the arrows pointing to?

Who is susceptible? What are the clinical signs?

A

Mycoplasma wenyonii
Severe anemia only if splenectomized (for research) or immunosuppressed cattle
Iatrogenic transmission common
May cause dependent edema (of mammary glands, scrotum, distal limbs) and lymphadenopathy without anemia

182
Q

Sheep

A

Arrow= Mycoplasma ovis

arrow head= basophilic stippling

(normal in ruminants, lead poisenin in small animals)

183
Q

Llama

A

Mycoplasma haemolamae
Opportunist
Causes mild anemia

184
Q

Mycoplasma haemosuis

A

Causes severe anemia in baby pigs
In adults, usually associated with poor weight gain.
Baby pigs usually treated with a single dose of long acting oxytetracycline.

185
Q

Ruminant

A

Arrow head= normal basophilic stippling

Arrow = Anaplasma marginale or A. centrale
• Very common tick-borne rickettsial infection - world wide.
• Can cause fatal hemolytic anemia, esp in older animals
• Probably immune mediated destruction
• Diagnose blood film, PCR
• Vaccine available, rx w/ tetracycline

(Compared to Howell-jolly bodies- Anaplasma will be more numerous)

186
Q

What are the babesia species found in dogs, cattle, horses, and cats?

A

B. canis (large) & B. gibsoni in dogs
B. bovis & B. bigemina in cattle
B. equi & B. caballi in horses
(Usually called piroplasmosis in horses)
B. cati & B. felis in cats

187
Q

Deer. What are the arrows pointing to?

A

Theileriosis
Protozoan that causes hemolytic anemia in ruminants.
Theileria parva - East Coast Fever
Less pathogenic forms infect deer in U.S.
Stage of organisms within RBCs is a merozoite (piroplasm). Other stage is within macrophages which will lead to proliferation and may occlude blood vessels

Sickle cell in deer is a common in-vitro change

Arrow head = basophilic stippling due to regenerative response

188
Q

Dog

A

Babesia gibsoni

Transmitted by ticks, blood transfusions, vertically.
Causes severe disease and hemolytic anemia.
B. gibsoni becoming important in U.S. in dogs ( since 1999) East of Mississippi
May be mistaken for IMHA

Most common in pitbull (breed? or fighting?)

189
Q

Dog

A

Babesia canis - larger, usually 3-8 per a cell

Transmitted by ticks, blood transfusions, vertically.
Causes severe disease and hemolytic anemia.
May be mistaken for IMHA

190
Q

Cat

A

Feline cytauxzoonosis
Protozoan
RBC phase (piroplasms) and tissue phase (schizonts in macrophages).
First described in U.S. in 1976
Transmitted by ticks, most common in Missouri.
Almost always fatal due to tissue phase

Rx with diproprionate or diminazine aceturate.

191
Q

What are drugs and chemicals that cause heinz body formation?

A
  • Acetaminophen (paracetamol)
  • Propylene glycol ( not ethylene!)
  • Zinc
  • Copper Selenium deficiency
  • Methylene blue
  • Crude oil
  • Naphthalene (moth balls)
  • Skunk spray
192
Q

Heinz body formation?

A
  1. Hemichrome formation due to oxidative damage. Irreversible hemichromes aggregate into bits of denatured hemoglobin.
  2. Sulfhydral groups are susceptible to oxidative damage. (Cats have 8 sulfhydral groups, Dogs have 4, Humans have 2)
  3. Hemichromes form complexes with protein band 3, resulting in clustering of protein band 3, which creates a recognition site for auto-antibodies.
  4. Animals with clustering of protein band 3 may then also have spherocytosis (zinc toxicosis, wilted red maple leaf toxicosis)
  5. Spectrin-hemoglobin cross linking occurs, increasing membrane rigidity and decreasing deformability of RBC, making them more susceptible to removal by macrophages, or actual lysis.
193
Q

Causes and clinical signs of Methemoglobinemia?

A

Methemoglobinemia- iron is in a ferric state and is incapable of carrying oxygen.

Causes:

  • Acetaminophen toxicity in cats
  • Nitrite poisoning in cows (rumen bacteria reduce nitrates to nitrites)
  • Red maple leaf ingestion in horses
  • congenital deficiency of NADHmethemoglobin reductase

Clinical Signs:

  • Chocolate brown blood and mucous membranes with blood is 30% methemoglobin
  • Death at 90% methemoglobinemia

Rx: Methylene blue to reduce methemoglobin to deoxyhemoglobin (activates methemoglobin reductase)

194
Q

What happens when you have copper toxicosis?

A

It accumulates in the liver and then when an animal gets stressed it is released. Sheep are most susceptible.

HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA
HEMOGLOBINEMIA
HEMOGLOBINURIA
HEINZ BODY FORMATION
Oxidative damage, dec G-6-PD, PK

195
Q

Causes of hemolysis due to hypophosphatemia

A

Low P –> decrease glycolysis –> unable to maintain shape

Associated with:

Post-paturient hemoglobinuria in cattle- hemolysis can be due to both low P and ketonemia (–> heinz body)

Diabetes mellitus in cats - polyuria –> low P (also ketotic)

Enteral alimentation in cats

196
Q

What are 3 bacterial causes of anemia?

A
  1. Leptospira in calves and lambs (rarely dogs)
  2. Clostridium perfringins Type A - hemolytic anemia in lambs and calves –> “yellow lamb disease”
  3. Clostridium haemolyticum - cattle- “bacillary hemoglobinuria” “red water disease”. Associated with liver fluke migration. Anemia, arched back, bloody D, fever, dyspneae

Clostridium spp. produce lechinthinase which breaks down an important component of the RBC cell membrane

197
Q

Water intoxication

A

Occurs in cattle (usually calves) that have unlimited access to water following its unavailability
Decreased osmolality of plasma leads to hemolysis
May be more severe in animals with iron deficiency anemia (calves).

198
Q

What are 4 inherited RBC membrane defects?

A
  1. Hereditary spherocytosis (band 3 defic)- Japanese black cattle
  2. Hereditary elliptocytosis (no anemia)
  3. Hereditary stomatocytosis (do you remember the 3 breeds)
  4. Hereditary membrane transport defects (transport defects in amino acids involved in glutathione metabolism) (develop Heinz body anemias when exposed to oxidants)
199
Q

What are 4 enzyme deficiencies that cause hemolytic anemias?

A

glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase
• pyruvate kinase deficiency- dogs and cats
phosphofructokinase deficiency- english springer spaniels
• uroporphyrinogen III co-synthetase- cattle, pigs, cats(no anemia)

200
Q

What breeds of dogs are likely to have pyruvate kinase deficiency? what will their blood work look like?

A

basenji, beagle, West Highland white terrier, Cairn terrier

Moderate to marked anemia (15 - 25%PCV)
Marked reticulocytosis (15 - 50%)
Myelofibrosis, sclerosis, death by age 4 (run out of stem cells)

Pyruvate kinase deficiency results in impaired energy metabolism which results in increased RBC destruction due to the RBC inability to maintain its shape.

201
Q

What breeds of cats are likely to have pyruvate kinase deficiency? what is their prognosis?

A

Abyssinian, Somali, DSH

Good prognosis: No ultimate osteosclerosis thus Can live to old age

202
Q

What enzyme deficiency do only english springer spaniel dogs get that causes hemolytis anemias?

A

Phosphofructokinase deficiency

Will have a low normal PCV

Undergo hemolytic crisis after respiratory alkilosis/ when alkalemic

203
Q

What happen in cattle with a deficiency of uroporphyrinogen III co-synthetase?

A

Porphyria

deficiency of uroporphyrinogen III co-synthetase –> Inability to synthesize hemoglobin, with accumulation of uroporphyrin and coproporphyrin in bones, teeth, etc.
Pigmented fluorescent teeth and bones
Photosensitivity –> dermatitis
Decreased RBC survival

204
Q

What happens in pigs and cats with a deficiency of uroporphyrinogen III co-synthetase?

A

Porphyria (very rare)

Pigs- no photosensitization, autosomal dominant

Cats-autosomal dominant, NO anemia

205
Q

How long does it generally take to see evidence of regeneration after the start of blood loss/destruction?

A

48 hours

It takes time for the animal to be hypoxic enough to stimulate increase EPO production. In addition it takes time for the bone marrow to start producing and releasing RBC early.

206
Q

What is one of the only cases in which you will see a macrocytic non-regenerative anemia?

A

FeLV induced macrocytosis

FeLV may induce neoplastic changes (larger cells) or distrupt RBC maturation (Mylodysplasia)

207
Q

What 2 diseases, that cause non-regeneratice anemia, can you look at the biochemical profile to help diagnose?

A

Anemia of Renal Disease

Hypothyrpoid Dogs

208
Q

What are 3 causes of generalized marrow suppression (aka aplastic anemia in human med)?

A
  1. Infectious agent (Ehrlichia (end stage), EIA, or FeLV)
  2. Immune-mediated destruction
  3. Drugs and Chemicals (ie estrogen, antineoplastics)
209
Q

Estrogen overdose in dogs and ferrets.

Why does it cause bone marrow suppresion?

A

Causes: iatrogenic (stop pregnanct, incontinance), estrogen producing tumor (granulosa cell, sertoli cell), unspayed female ferret

Mechanism: mediated by the thymus (not seen if you remove thymus…)

…in other animals (not ferrets and dogs) the animal becomes hepatotoxic before seeing bone marrow problems

210
Q

What are 2 causes of erythroid aplasia?

A
  1. Immune mediated destruction of only RBC precursors
  2. Specific strains of Feline Leukemia virus that only target RBC precursors

Pure RBC splasia is RARE

211
Q

What are 3 intrinsic causes of erythroid hypoplasia?

A
  1. Myelodysplasia
    • ​​something has gone wrong with RBC production.
      • May be due to antineoplastic drugs, be preleukemic (in people) or due to FeLV in cats
  2. Leukemia
  3. Immune mediated destruction of erythroid precursors
212
Q

What are extrinsic causes of erythroid hypoplasia?

A

Chronic renal disease (especially in dogs)

Endocrine disroders (hypothyroidism in dogs)

Inflammatory Disease (most common cause of mild cases)

213
Q

Why is there anemia in renal disease?

A

Insufficent EPO

other minor thing

uremic toxins may interfere with RBC life span

excess parathyroid hormone

hypocalcemia ( vitamin D is activated in the kidney)

bleeding tendencies (due to vascular defect, not lack of platelets)

Anemia will not cause death, renal failure will. Can treat anemia of renal failure by supplementing EPO.

214
Q

Anemia of Inflammatory Disease/ Anemia of Chronic Disease

What will you see? What is the mechanism of anemia?

A

Blood work signs:

  • Alone causes only a mild to moderate anemia (may be a bigger issue if AID is paired with blood destruction)
  • Low serum iron BUT increased storage iron (In Iron deficiency anemia, both will be low)
  • Normocytic
  • Inflammatory leukogram
  • Bone marrow aspirate: macrophages with increase hemodiderin

Anemia may be due to

  • the unavailability of iron and/or inflammatory cytokines which limit iron available for erythropoiesis
  • increased Hepcidin & LPS - inhibits release of iron from macrophages
  • IL- 10 increases uptake of iron by macrophages by increasing tranferrin receptors
215
Q

Why does hypothyroidism cause anemia?

A

Hypothyroidism causes a mild anemai (usually 30%) in dogs due to a decrease in metabolic rate.

Due to the decrease metabolic rate, the body simply does not need as much oxygen and will thus not produce less RBC.

216
Q

Why does hypoadrenocorticism/addisons disease cause anemia? why will the anemia sometime be masked?

A

Mechanism unclear =( - maybe interferes with EPO release or acts on marrow stem cells? lack of cortisol?

It is masked due to dehydration (increase PCV). Once rehydrated the mild anemia will be evident

217
Q

What is an acceptable max increase of MCV due to reticulocytes in cats? What should you consider if the MCV is over that?

A

If above, it may be due to agglutination. You should look at the histogram.

You should also consider FeLV- it causes a macrocytic anemia in cats.

218
Q

Which neutrophil precursors are proliferative?

A

Myeloblast

Progranulocyte

Myelocyte

219
Q

In the bone marrow, for every myeloblast, you should have _____ neutrophils

A

16-32

220
Q

What pools of neutrophils do you have in the blood?

A

Circulating Pool

Marginating Pool

221
Q

What is the normal transit time of a neutrophil? How does this change if there is inflammation?

A

Normal- 7-10 days

Inflammation ~3-4 days

222
Q

What is the circulating half-life of neutrophils?

A

6-10 hours

223
Q

increase concentration of immature neutrophils in the blood (usually bands) is AKA?

A

“left shift”

224
Q

The conctration of each cell increases with the degree of maturity if there is a ______ maturation

A

orderly

225
Q

When will you see a disorderly maturation of neutrophils?

A

(1) Severe consumption
(2) neoplastic process-leukemia
(3) Ruminant with acute inflammation

226
Q

________ = presence of neoplastic cells in the blood or bone marrow

A

Leukemia

227
Q

If I see these cells in my peripheral blood, I have a _______ leukemia

A

granulocytic

228
Q

These cells (at the feathered edge) are characteristic of ________ leukemia

A

Megakaryoblastic

229
Q

What 3 things will you see in “toxic” change neutrophils? Why does this occur?

A
  1. Increase basophilia of cytoplasm
  2. Dohle bodies
  3. cytoplasmic vaculation

Occurs due to accelerated rate of production seen with inflammation, which results in persistence of ribosomes

230
Q

What is up with this neutrophil? When does this occur?

A

Neutrophil hypersegmentation

Result of normal aging that can occur due to:

(1) In vivo- when neutrophils circulate longer, usually as a result of corticosteroids
(2) in vitro- due to againg prior to making blood film

this appearance is “kinda normal” in horses

231
Q

neutrophil degeneration is _____ to see in peripheral blood

A

rare

It is seen ini neutrophils not in circulation (from cytologic samples, such as an abscess, airway cytology, body cavity effusion) that have marked cytopasmic vacuolation and nuclear swelling, leading to cell lysis.

Can be due to septicemia, presence of bacteria in effusions, or just in old samples

232
Q

What two things do you see in neutrophil degeneration?

A

Cytoplasmic vacuolation

Neutrophil swelling

…leads to cell lysis

It is seen in neutrophils not in circulation (from cytologic samples, such as an abscess, airway cytology, body cavity effusion)

Can be due to septicemia, presence of bacteria in effusions, or just in old samples

233
Q

_________-______ Anomaly is an heterozygous inheritied neutrophil abnormality in which the neutrophils nucleus fails to segment. This makes all neutrophils look like band neutrophils.

A

Pelger-Huet

It has no clinical significance, just makes blood work hard to interpret.

Eosinophil nucleus also fails to segment, which may be another way to diagnose the anomaly (band eosinophils are VERY rare to normally see)

234
Q

What abnormality should you suspect if you have a healthy cat with marked granulocytes in its neutrophils, but completely normal lymphocyes

A

Birman Cat Neutrophil Granulation Anomaly

235
Q

What abnormalities do you see in Chediak-Higashi Syndrome?

A

Pink structes within 1/3 of neutrophils (due to lysosome fusion –> decrease function)

Abnormal platelet abnormalities –> bleeding tendencies

Melanin granule fusion –> weird silver/grey hair coat

Rare, but most commmon in persian cats

236
Q

What clinical and blood signs are seen in Mucopolysaccharidosis VI lysosomal Storage Disease?

A

Granulation in BOTH neutrophils and lymphocytes

Skeletal Abnormaltites –> arthritis, chewing & walking problems

Cloudy eyes

237
Q

Inherited lymphocyte abnormalities _____ and _____ gangliosidosis may result in cytoplasmic granulation or vaculation

A

MPS (with skeletal abnormalities) and GM2 (with neuro abnormalities)

238
Q

What is wrong with this lymphocyte? what other clinical signs will you commonly see with this?

A

Lysosomal storage disease

Common to see with severe progressive neurological disease

(except and MPS and acid lipasedeficiency)

239
Q

Ingestion of plants containing ___________ (such as _______) will result in inhibition of lysosomal enzymes, resulting in acquired lysosomal storage disease –> neurological signs in large animals.

A

swainsonine (such as locoweed)

240
Q

What blood work changes will you see in a excited cat? Why does this happen?

A

2x fold increase in leukocyte concentrations (lymphocytes and neutrophils)

Increase blood glucose

The release of epinephrine causes a Fight or flight”response =increased blood flow through microcirculation results in shift of leukocytes from marginated pool to the circulating pool.

Also lymphoctes can go up due to splenic contraction or throacic dut dumping.

241
Q

What will you see on a stress leukogram?

A

Neutrophilia (

LymphoPENIA

EosinoPENIA

242
Q

Causes of stress/steroid leukogram?

A

illness, pain, metabolic disturbances,
treatment with corticosteroids (anti-inflam and chemo)
corticosteroid producing tumors (cushings)

243
Q

If you see no evidence of a stress leukogram in a sick animal, what should you consider?

A

consider a hypoadrenocorticism (additions)

244
Q

3 causes of Neutrophilia?

A
  1. Inflammation - bands and/or >2x upper referance range
  2. Excitement (no left shift, with lymphocytosis in cats)
  3. Stress (no left shift, with lymphoPENIA)
245
Q

Cause of lymphocytosis

A
  1. Excitement (CATS ONLY)
  2. Neoplastic lymphoproliferative disorders ( ie lymphocytic leukemia)
    • change in morphology, PCR, high magnitute (>35,000), immature stages
  3. Antigen stimulation- in cows and young puppies after vaccination
    • rare in cats/dogs/horses
  4. Ehrlichiosis - will also probably see large granular lymphocytes & gammopathy
246
Q

Causes of Neutropenia?

A
  1. Consumption - in severe inflammation (peritonitis or septicemia) or in ruminant inflammation
  2. Immune mediated destruction (Dx of exclusion)
  3. Lack of production by bone marrow (usually not producing other things)
    1. reversible damage: K9 Parvo, Feline Panleukopenia, Chemo
      • see neutrophil change first, due to short half life
      • should take vaccine history
    2. irreversible injury: FeLV, chemical and radiation damage
247
Q

What are examples of etiologies for reverible (3) and irriversible (3) damage to the bone marrow?

A
  1. reversible damage: K9 Parvo, Feline Panleukopenia, Chemo
    • see neutrophil change first, due to short half life
    • should take vaccine history
  2. irreversible injury: FeLV, chemical and radiation damage
248
Q

Causes of Lymphopenia?

A

Steroids/Stress (exogenous, endogenous)

Acute viral infection

Immunodeficiency (rare)

249
Q

Causes of monocytosis?

A

Inflammation & Stress

250
Q

Causes of Eosinophilia/Basophilia

A
  1. Parasitism (the ones that migrate through tissues, not blood parasites)
  2. Hypersensitivity
  3. Lesions producing eosinophil chemoattractants, such as mast cell tumor

Specific examples: heart worms, hook worms, dermatitis, asthma, etc.

Basophilia usually accompanies eosinophilia

251
Q

What is a common cause of basophilia WITHOUT eosinophilia?

A

Stress/Steroids

Steroids inhibit the eosinophils, but usually do not effect the basophils

252
Q

What are the 5 types of leukogram?

A
  1. Normal
  2. Inflammatory - high neutrophilia (>2x), immature bands, monocytosis
  3. Excitement- lymphocytosis (CAT), neutrophilia
  4. Stress/Steroid - neutrophilia, lymphopenia, monocytosis, eosinopenia
  5. Leukemia - high magnitude lymphocytosis (>35,000), disorderly maturation, abnormal morphology, presence of immature cells
253
Q

Ddx for cat with high metamyelocytes (20,000), increased bands (5, 000) and normal segs (10,000) and the presence of progranulocytes in circulation?

A

Disorderly matturation

Granulocytic Leukemia

254
Q

What is the prognosis for a dog with an increased bands, but a marked neutropenia?

A

BAD =(

may be consumptive neutropenia= peritonitis or septicemia

UNLESS you know the animal is recovering from a parvo virus inflection

255
Q

What would you expect if a dog had an extremely high neutrophilia (ie 70,000) and high bands, metamyelocytes, monocytosis and toxic neutrophils?

also mild non-regenerative anemia?

A

Pyometra

have production of cytokines, thus neutrophils are being produced at a higher rate, but the uterus is at max capacity and thus they remain in circulation

Anemia may be due to Anemia of inflammatory disease

256
Q

Ddx for non-regenerative anemic animal with very high nucleated RBC (all the way back to prorubrycytes) and increased MCV?

A

Red Cell Leukemia

257
Q

What would you expect to see in a parvo patient?

A

Severe Neutrophenia (parvo replicates in bone marrow)

Lymphopenia (stress)

slightly anemic (AID), regenerative

Toxic neutrophils

–is reversible, will see an increase in neutrophils following treatment/recovery

258
Q

unexplained non-regenerative anemias, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, suspected neoplasi or monoclonal gammopathy and to better classify leukemias are all indications for what?

A

Bone marrow aspirates/core biopsy

259
Q

Where would you take bone marrow aspirates in small animals vs large animals?

A

Small= trochanteric fossa, proximal humerus

Large= sternum or rib

260
Q

True or False

You can use any needle (16-22 g) to preform a bone marrow aspirate

A

FALSE

You have to use a special bone marrow aspirate needle

261
Q

True or False

You should use EDTA or make your slides within 30 seconds to prevent clotting of bone marrow aspirates

A
262
Q

What are the pros/cons of a core biopsy?

A

Pro= determine cellularity & organization/architecture

Con= difficult to tell certain cells apart (compared to aspirate)

263
Q

How much bone marrow should you draw up during your aspirate? What happens if you take too much?

A

Stop when you have 2-3 drops

too much= dilution of bone marrow with peripheral blood

If peripheral blood in aspirate, you can squirt the fluid into a dish and pick out the clumps to put on slide. Bone marrow cells are clumped with shiny fat and are easy to see.

264
Q

True or False

You make bone marrow smears the same way you make blood smears

A

False

Bone marrow cells are fragile, and the way you make blood smears (pulling back and pushing) will break the cells =(

265
Q

True or False

When you put a drop of marrow on a slide and place another slide gently on top, the peripheral blood will stay in the center and the hematopoetic cells will move to the outside

A

False

Peripheral blood will go to the periphery

Hematopoeitic cells & fat will stay in the center

266
Q

How many megakaryocytes should you see in a normal animals marrow film? what if the animal is thrombocytopenic?

A

normal = 7-10 per film (probably will see more)

thrombocytopenia= should have more

267
Q

Which are better to determine bone marrow cellularity;

aspirate or core biopsy?

A

core biopsy

aspirates can be contaminated with peripheral blood.

268
Q

Is there adequate or inadequate cellularity?

A

inadequate

increased fat

269
Q

____________ maturation sequence

A

Erythroid

270
Q

___________ precursors/maturation sequence

A

Myeloid

271
Q

How do you calculate the Myeloid:Erythroid (M:E) Ratio

A

You can either:

(1) Count 1000 nucleated cells -or-
(2) Guestimate by randomly counting cells throughout

After you get your ratio:

  • Make E=1
  • Compare to RECENT Blood work (blood work should be preformed when bone marrow aspirate is taken, neutrophils can change within hours)
272
Q

What is considered a normal M:E Ratio?

A

1:1 to 1:3

273
Q

What could a increased M:E ratio mean?

A

ERYTHROID HYPOPLASIA or APLASIA

and/or
GRANULOCYTIC HYPERPLASIA
GRANULOCYTIC LEUKEMIA

*** Must use recent CBC to interpret***

274
Q

What could a decrease M:E Ratio mean?

A

REGENERATIVE ANEMIA
ERYTHROID LEUKEMIA
Lack of production of neutrophils

** Must compare to recent CBC***

275
Q

What kind of cells are the arrows pointing to?

A

Plasma cell

276
Q

What kind of cells are the arrow heads pointing to?

A

Mast cells

277
Q

What microorganism is within these cells?

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

278
Q

What microorganism are present (Arrow heads)?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

279
Q

Name the microorganism

A

Leishmania donovani

“two dot” = nucleus & kinetoplast

280
Q

what are th two main umbrella causes of thrombus formation?

A

procoagulant activity or fibrinolysis

Ex. pulmonary thromboembolism in cushing patients due to hypercoagability

281
Q

What fraction of platelet mass is in the spleen?

A

1/3

282
Q

What is the average lifespan of a platelet?

A

~5-10 days (shorter in cats)

283
Q

Macroplatelets and/or an increase MPV suggest…?

A

increased platelet production

284
Q

How many nuclei can a megakaryocyte have?

A

8-64

increase ploidy suggest increases in TPO

285
Q

Megakaryoblast to platelet release takes ___ days

A

4-5

286
Q

What is produced by many tissues (liver, BM, edothelium etc) and, when not bound to platelets , activates megakaryocyte production and differentiation?

A

Thrombopoietin(TPO)

287
Q

When free in plasma, what causes:

↑ #, size, and ploidyof megakaryocytes
↓ megakaryocyte maturation time

A

TPO

288
Q

How long does it take for a primary hemostatic plug to form?

A

~3-5 patients

289
Q

3 major steps of primary hemostasis?

A

Adhesion →Activation→Aggregation

290
Q

________ binds to GP1b on platelets (PLT) and creates a bridge between the PLT and collagen

A

vWF

291
Q

Adhesion requires what 4 things?

A
  1. von Willebrand Factor (vWF)
  2. Ca2+
  3. ADP
  4. Serotonin
292
Q

Shape change, flipping of membranes, and secretion of granules are part of what stage of primary hemostasis?

A

activation

293
Q

Aggregation is a (reversible/irriversible) process in which fibrinogen binds activated platelets to adajent plates. Thie process requires ____

A

Irreversible, Ca

294
Q

__ _____occurs via actinomyosin filaments and filitates wound closure and vessel patency

A

Clot retraction

295
Q

What tube should you use to measure PLT concentration?

A

Purple top/ EDTA

296
Q

How many platelets should you see in a 100x field of a blood smear?

A

min. 7-10 PLTs
◦Horses: minimum of 4-7

297
Q

which two species have platelets that clump easily?

A

Cats and Cattle

298
Q

At what platelet concentration will you be concerned about spontaneous hemorrhage?

A
299
Q

Abnormal/prolonged bleeding test indicates.. (2 things)?

*** NEED TO KNOW***

A

1)Decreased platelet function
and/or
2)Decreased platelet numbers

300
Q

True or False

Bleeding test determine the ablility to form a fibrin plug

A

FALSE!!!

Tests the ability of PLTs to form a platelet plug

301
Q

Which platelet function test requires a standerized incision on the mucous membranes?

A

Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT)

_____

Dogs: 1 -5 minutes
Cats:1 -3.5 minutes
Horses/Cattle:8 -10 minutes

302
Q

Which platelet function test requires the use of a guillotine clipper and severing of the apex of a nail?

A

Cuticle (toenail) bleeding time

——-

Dog: 2-8 minutes (longer than the BMBT)

303
Q

What are two main reason you will have a prolonged Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT)?

A

(1) Decrease Platelet Function
(2) Thrombocytopenia

*** WILL BE ON THIS EXAM OR FINAL****

304
Q

The following are clinical signs of what disorder?

  • Mucosal bleeding
  • Petechiation/Ecchymosis
  • Spontaneous hemorrhage: PLT count
  • +/-Hemorrhagic anemia
A

Thrombocytopenia

___

Will also see clinical signs associated with the primary disease

305
Q

What are the clinical features of thrombocytopenia?

A

Mucosal bleeding
Petechiation
Ecchymosis
Spontaneous hemorrhage if PLT +/-Hemorrhagic anemia

306
Q

What are the mechanisms of thrmobocytopenia? (she made us stand up and say it a billion times)

A

Production , Destruction, Sequestration, Loss or Consumption

(and Pseudothrombocytopenia)

307
Q

True or False

Thrombocytopenia due to loss/hemorrhage commonly occurs

A

FALSE

It is rare and only occurs when there is SEVERE Hemorrage

Ex. acute severe hemorrhage may result in mild thrombocytopenia

308
Q

DIC, Vascullitis and Viral infection can cause what kind of thrombocytopenia?

A

mild to moderate, due to consumption

309
Q

What is the most common cause of platelet destruction?

A

Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (ITP)

the platelet count will be SEVERELY low

310
Q

What thrombocytopenia occurs when a pig/foal ingest antiplatelet antibodies (produced by its dam) in the colostrum?

A

Alloimmune thrombocytopenia

This causes a high mortality rate form hemorrhage in piglets

311
Q

How long should you avoid doing surgery after giving a modified-live virus vaccination (ie Distemper)?

A

atleast 10 days

Modified-live virus vaccination may induce an immune response against the PLT –> MILD thrombocytopenia
Occurs 3-10 days post-vaccination

312
Q

ITP causes a ______ thrombocytopenia

A

SEVERE

313
Q

What will you see in a bone marrow aspirate of a patient with ITP?

A

Increased megakaryocytes (immature & mature) and increased ploidy

314
Q

True or False: Decrease production of platelets is due to organ failure and the lack of TPO production

A

FALSE

Single organ dysfunction will not lead to enough of a decrease in TPO because TPO is produced by ALOT of tissues, ALL the time.

Thrombocytopenia due to decrease production is due to bone marrow issues

315
Q

Bone marrow hypoplasia, Neoplasia (primary leukemia and metastatic), toxins (chemo or estrogen toxicity) and myelonecrosis or myelofibrosis may cause what?

A

Thrombocytopenia due to decreased production

Degree of thrombocytopenia: depends on extent of bone marrow disease

316
Q

True or False: Degree of thrombocytopenia due to decrease production: depends on extent of bone marrow disease

A

TRUE

***IMPORTANT***

317
Q

Splenomegaly, splenic torsion, neoplasia, Hepatomegaly, portal hypertension, Vasodilation in endotoxic shock and Severe hypothermia can cause thrombocytopenia via what mechanism?

A

Abnormal distribution/Sequestration of platelets in large vascular beds

causes a mild to moderate thrombocytopenia

318
Q

What type of thrombocytopenia is occuring if the analyzer does not measure the platelets due to size or clumping?

A

Pseudothrombocytopenia

___

should look at blood smear feather edge, common in cats due to high reactivity of platelets

319
Q

**Chronic inflammatory disease**, iron deficiency anemia, chronic hemorrhage, IMHA, and some neoplasms are disease associated with what finding?

A

Secondary or reactive thromboCYTOSIS

___

Due to either cytokines stimulating platelet production (in Chronic inflammatory disease) or cross talk of EPO with the other conditions

320
Q

These situations are assciated with what change in platelets:

  • Rebound from thrombocytopenia
  • Response to some drugs (vincristine)
  • Post-splenectomy
  • Excitement and exercise (epinephrine)
  • Splenic contraction
A

ThromboCYTOSIS

____

  • Rebound from thrombocytopenia- cells stimulated by TPO during thrombocytopenia are still super active
  • Response to some drugs (vincristine= chemo drug that increased the RELEASE of platelets from MK)
  • Post-splenectomy
  • Excitement and exercise (epinephrine)- causes splenic contraction (1/3 of platelets are stored in the spleen)
321
Q

What disorder would you suspect in an animal with:

  1. Clinical signs of thrombocytopenia
  2. Normal platelet count
A

Qualitative Platelet Disorders

(Acquired or inherited)

322
Q

Uremia, Drugs (asprin, Ca blockers), FDP, and paraproteins cause what kind a platelet disorders?

A

Acquired Qualitative Disorders

_______

uremia- messes with platelet functions

Drugs- prevent platelet aggregation

FDP- inhibit PLT function, occurs in DIC

Paraproteins- produced in plasma cell myeloma –> increase globulins coating PLT surface and inhibits function

323
Q

What is the most common inherited platelet qualitative disorder?

A

vWD- decreased platelet adhesions

___

Others: Absence of glycoprotein receptors, Absence or reduction in platelet granules, Signal transduction defects

324
Q

What are the two types of vWD?

A

(1) Quantiative deficiency (typ1 - mild, type 3- severe)
(2) Qualitative abnormality (Type 2)

325
Q

What will SEVERE vWD lead to?

**** NEED TO KNOW!****

A

****Factor VIII deficiency ***

—-

vWF is a carrier for factor VIII, if less than 50% of vWF –> prolonged PPT

326
Q

What disease would you suspect if you see:

  • PLT: normal
  • BMBT: prolonged
  • PTT/ACT usually normal, but can be prolonged if Factor VIII deficiency is pronounced
A

vWD

**NEED TO KNOW***

327
Q

Caogulation cascade?

A

Intrinsic= 12, 11, 9, 8

Extrinsic= 7

common= 10, 5, 2, 1

End result= Fibrin

328
Q

What are the 3 important enzyme co factors for the coagulation cascade?

A

3 (Tissue Factor), 5a, 8a

329
Q

Which of the following is false about the platelets function in secondary hemostasis?

  1. The Ca , secreted in the platelets granules, bind to the platelet membrane to form a positivelty charged platelet
  2. the platelet secretes a Va binding site
  3. the positive charge of the platelet draws the negatively charged coagulatiom factors (1927)
  4. the platelet recruits fibrinogen. which is later turned into fibrin by thrombin.
  5. none of the above
A

None of the above

330
Q

______ _______ is required for INITIATION of secondary hemostasis with wounds

A

Tissue Factor/TF/ Factor III

331
Q

What is the key factor that promotes amplification of secondary hemostasis?

***IMPORTANT****

A

Thrombin

332
Q

True or False: Inflammatory mediators (HMWK, PK) can initiate the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade?

A

True!

333
Q

What the 4 K-dependent cofactors?

A

10, 9, 7, 2 (1972)

___

They are carboxylated in the liver by Vit-K-dependent carboxylase to have a high density negative charge

Vitamin K should be recycled (is not with warfarin toxicosis)

334
Q

What inhibits Thrombin, IXa, Xa?

A

Anrithrombin (AT)

335
Q

What binds to antithrombin (AT) and caises a conformational change that exposes the thrombin binding site?

A

Heparin!!!!

____

When thrombin binds to AT it forms the TAT complex and heprin will detach. This TAT complex is cleared by the phagocytic system

336
Q

What will happen if all antithrombin is consumed?

A

there is an excess thrombin (factor IIA) which will lead to an increase in activation of fibrinogen to fibrin –> schistocytes

337
Q

What converts plasminogen to plasmin?

A

TPA- Tissue plasminogen Activator

___

Plasminogen is produced by the surrounding healthy cells

338
Q

What breaks down fibrinogen and soluable fibrin into FDP, and cross-linked fibrin into D-dimers?

A

Plasmin

339
Q

What 3 components contribute to coagulation efficiency?

A

Ca, platelet membrane and factor V (cofactor)

340
Q

What cofactor is required for antithrombin to inactivate thrombin?

A
341
Q

What are the two major end-products of fibrinolysis?

A
  1. Fibrin Degradation Products (FDPs)
  2. D-dimers
342
Q

“Clean stick”, Avoid collection from a heparinized catheter and a Sodium citrate tube are necessary for what test?

A

Platelet /Coagulationtests

343
Q

How does citrated plasma different from blood?

A
No RBCs, no WBCs, no PLTs
Decreased calcium (chelated by citrate)
344
Q

ACT and aPTT test the ________ coagulation pathways

A

Intrinic/common

345
Q

What is the the signifigance of a prolonged aPTT and ACT test?

A
  • 1)Deficiency or inhibition of any intrinsic or common pathway factor
  • 2)Heparin therapy
346
Q

Which two tests require a 70% deficiency of factors before prolongation is detected?

A

aPPT and TP

347
Q

What test Measures time for fibrin clot formation in non anticoagulated whole blood collected into specialized tube containing a contact activator?

A

Activated Clotting Time (ACT)

* requires 95% deficiency

*

348
Q

What two tests require citrated plasma?

A

aPTT and TP

349
Q

What is the signifigance of a prolonged TP?

A

1) Factor VII deficiency (Good screening test for Vitamin K deficiency because of the short t ½ life of Factor VII) - extrinsic pathway
2) Deficiency or inhibition of common pathway factor

350
Q

Which test Measures time for fibrin clot formation in citrated plasma + thrombin?

A

Thrombin Time (TT)

351
Q

What is the signifigance of a prolonged TT?

A
  • Quantitative or qualitative abnormalities of fibrinogen
  • Inhibitors of fibrin formation (e.g. heparin, FDPs)
352
Q

What is the significance of a increased fibrinogen concentration?

A
  • Inflammation (activates the intrinic pathway)
  • Relative increase with dehydration
353
Q

What is the signifigance of a decreased (

A
  • Consumption due to hypercoagulation (excessive conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin)
  • Decreased production by the liver
354
Q

Increased fibrinolysis, Severe internal hemorrhage with fibrinolysis and Decreased clearance of FDP by the liver and DIC can cause an increase in which product?

A

Fibrin Degradation Products (FDP) and D-Dimers

355
Q

True or False:

FDPs inhibit platelet function and fibrin polymerization

A

True BUT only when FDPs are pathologicallyincreased(e.g. DIC).

NOT a “normal” control mechanism

356
Q

What should you suspect if you have:

Bleeding (blood in thoracic cavity)

Regenerative anemia

PT prolonged
aPTT, ACT prolonged
PIVKA positive
Platelet Count: normal to increased (reactive thrombocytosis)

A

Vitamin K deficiency/Warfarin Toxicosis

____

Treatment: decontamination, supplement Vit K, plasma/blood transfusion

357
Q

How does Vitamin K antagonism/warfarin work?

A

Vitamin K dependent factors lose their negative charge and are not recruited to sites of injury due to warfarin preventing the recycling of/reduction of the vitamin-K-dependent carboxylase.

358
Q

What ate 4 causes of DIC?

A
  1. Induction or exposure of tissue factor or other activators of coagulation (ie Sepsis, Tissue necrosis, Neoplasia)
  2. Endothelial damage exposing collagen
  3. Proteolytic enzymes (Snake venoms, Trypsin released during pancreatitis)
  4. Stagnant blood flow
359
Q

What are the two phases of DIC?

A

Hypercoagable phase and Consumptive phase

360
Q

What shoudl you suspect if you have:

  • mild-moderate thrombocytopenia
  • prolonged PT & aPTT
  • Decreased fibrinogen concentration
  • Increased FDP and D-dimers
  • Decreased antithrombin (AT)
  • Hemorrhagic anemia
  • Schistocytes
A

consumptive phase of DIC

361
Q

How does liver disease cause coagulopathy?

A
  • Decreased synthesis of coagulation factors
  • Production of dysfunctional factors (failure to metabolize/reduceVitamin K)
362
Q

True or False: Hemophilia A is a deficiency of factor VIII that occurs in dogs, cats, horses and cattles and causes a wide range of bleeding issues (mild, moderate, or severe) with these findings:

Platelet count and bleeding times are normal
aPTT and ACT are prolonged (if severe enough)
PT is normal (factor 7 is intact)

A

True!!!

363
Q

True or False: Hemophilia B has the same signs as Hemophilia A, EXCEPT it occurs in dog and cats and is a deficiency of factor 9

A

True

364
Q

True or false: Factor XII deficiency (Hageman’s Disease) is Seen in cats and is associated with severe bleeding

A

False:

it is NOT associated with bleeding, but there may be a prolonged PTT