Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathophysiology > Exam #1 ( Ch. 9, 11, 26, 27, 29, & 31 ) > Flashcards

Exam #1 ( Ch. 9, 11, 26, 27, 29, & 31 ) Flashcards

1
Q

incision

A

cutting or sharp instrument; wound edges in close approximation & aligned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

contusion

A

blunt instrument, overlying skin remains intact, with injury to underlying soft tissue; possible resultant bruising and/or hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

abrasion

A

friction; rubbing or scraping epidermal layers of skin; top layer of skin abraded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

laceration

A

tearing of skin & tissue with blunt or irregular instrument; tissue not aligned, often with loose flaps of skin & tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

puncture

A

blunt or sharp instrument puncturing the skin; intentional ( such as venipuncture ) or accidental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

penetrating

A

foreign object entering the skin or mucous membrane & lodging in underlying tissue; fragments scattering throughout tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

avulsion

A

tearing a structure from normal anatomic position; possible damage to blood vessels, nerves, & other structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

chemical

A

toxic agents such as drugs, alcohols, metals & substances released from cellular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

thermal

A

high or low temperatures; cellular necrosis as a possible result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

irradiation

A

ultraviolet light or radiation exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tissue repair

A

a response to tissue injury & represents an attempt to maintain normal body structure & region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

tissue regeneration

A

replacement of injured tissue with cells of the same type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

fibrous tissue repair

A

repair by replacement with connective tissue & scar formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

granulation tissue

A
  • glistening red, moist connective tissue that contains newly formed capillaries, proliferating fibroblasts, & residual inflammatory cells
  • scar formation builds on the granulation tissue framework of new vessels & loose ECM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1st stage of wound healing

A

inflammatory phase: begins at the time of injury; blood clot forms, migration of phagocytic WBCs into the wound site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2nd stage of wound healing

A

proliferative phase: new tissue fills the wound
➡️ fibroblasts: a connective tissue that synthesizes & secretes collagen, proteoglycans, & glycoproteins needed for wound healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3rd stage of wound healing

A

wound contraction & remodeling phase: about 3 weeks after injury; fibrous scar develops; remodeling of scar tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

causes of impaired wound healing:

A
  • malnutrition
  • impaired blood flow & oxygen delivery
  • impaired inflammation & immune responses
  • infection
  • wound separation
  • foreign bodies
  • age effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

serous

A

watery fluid low in protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

hemorrhagic

A

leakage of RBCs from the capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

fibrinous

A

large amounts of fibrinogen, forms a thick & sticky meshwork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

membranous

A

develops on mucous membranes surfaces & are composed of necrotic cells enmeshed in fibro-purulent exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

abscess

A

localized area of inflammation containing purulent exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ulceration

A

epithelial surface becomes necrotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

bone marrow

A

b cells are produced & develop then migrate to lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

thymus

A

located in the mediastinum, secretes hormones enabling lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

lymph nodes

A

distributed along lymphatic vessels to filter fluids, which drains from the body & returns to the blood as plasma
➡️ removes bacteria & toxins from the circulatory system
➡️ spleen is the largest lymphoid organs ( macrophages clear cellular debris & produce hemoglobin )
➡️ tonsils consist of lymphoid tissue & produces lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

immune response

A

the collective, coordinated responses of the cells & molecules of the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

types of immune defenses

A

innate or nonspecific immunity: the natural resistance with which a person is born with
adaptive or specific immunity: the second line of defense, responding less rapidly than innate immunity but more effectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

active immunity

A

specific protection induced following exposure to antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

passive immunity

A

specific production induced through transfer of protective antibodies against an antigen; transferred from another source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

lymphocytes

A

cells that specifically recognize & respond to foreign antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

accessory cells

A

macrophages & dendritic cells ( function as antigen-presenting cells by the processing of a complex antigen into epitopes required for the activation of lymphocytes )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

myeloid phagocytic cells ( innate immunity )

A

macrophages/monocytes, granulocytes, & dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

lymphoid & natural killer cells

A

b lymphocyte cells: produce antibodies
t lymphocyte cells: cell-mediated immunity
➡️ helper t cells: helps b lymphocytes produces antibodies
➡️ cytotoxic t cells: kill or lyse intracellular microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

functions of innate immunity ( natural immunity )

A
  • first line of defense
  • able to distinguish self from non-self
  • does not distinguish between different microbes
  • response is rapid
  • prevents establishment of infection & deeper tissue penetration
  • major components includes:
    ➡️ skin & mucous membrane
    ➡️ phagocytic leukocytes ( neutrophils & macrophages )
    ➡️ plasma proteins
    ➡️ natural killer cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Complement System of Immunity

A
  • found in the blood
  • essential for the activity of antibodies
  • mediator of the inflammatory response
  • inflammation is caused by increasing:
    ➡️ vascular permeability
    ➡️ chemotaxis
    ➡️ phagocytosis
    ➡️ foreign cell lysis
  • activated components destroy pathogens directly
    ➡️ increases bacterial aggregation, which increases suspectibility to phagocytosis
    -
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

complement cascade

A

activation after antigen-antibody reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Adaptive immunity

A
  • attacks specific microbes ( antigens )
  • develops after exposure to specific antigen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

humoral immunity

A

antibodies produced from B lymphocyte cells * antibodies are secreted into the circulation & mucosal fluid & neutralize or eliminate microbes *

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

cell-mediated immunity

A

t cells ( protect against viruses )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

cytokines

A

soluble proteins secreted by cells of both the innate & adaptive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

chemokines

A

cytokines that stimulate the migration & activation of immune & inflammatory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

colony-stimulating factors

A

stimulate the growth & differentiation of bone marrow progenitors of immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Two types of immune cells

A

regulatory cells: assist in orchestrating & controlling the immune response
effector cells: accomplish the final stages of the immune response with the elimination of the antigen
➡️ activated t lymphocytes, mononuclear phagocytes, & other leukocytes function as effector cells in different immune responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

antigens

A

substances foreign to the host that can stimulate an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

antibodies

A

recognize antigens ( receptors on immune cells; secreted proteins )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

types of antigens

A

bacteria, fungi, viruses, protozoa, parasites, antimicrobial agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Antigen Presentation

A
  • macrophages & dendritic cells process & present antigen peptides to CD4+ helper t cells
  • capture antigens & then enable their recognition by t cells
  • initation of adaptive immunity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what immunity are b cells?

A

humoral immunity, memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what immunity are t cells?

A

cell-mediated immunity, memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

functions of t lymphocytes

A
  • activation of t cells & b cells
  • control of intracellular viral infections
  • rejection of foreign tissue grafts
  • delayed hypersensitivity reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

IgG

A

displays antiviral, antitoxin, & antibacterial properties, responsible for protection of newborn; activates complement, & binds to macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

IgA

A

predominant Ig in body secretions; protects mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

IgM

A

forms natural antibodies; prominent in early immune responses, activates complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

IgD

A

found on b lymphocytes, needed for maturation of B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

IgE

A

binds to mast cells & basophils; involved in parasitic infections, allergic & hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Elderly Immune System

A
  • declining ability to adapt to environmental stresses
    ➡️ decline in immune responsiveness
    ➡️ decrease in size of the thymus glands
    ➡️ biological block in t cells
    ➡️ altered responses of the immune cells to antigen stimulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

People who have chronic high blood pressure have disruptions in homeostasis related the activation of?

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Steps in renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

A
  1. renin is released to the bloodstream by the kidneys
  2. angiotensin to angiotensin I
  3. angiotensin I to angiotensin II
  4. vasconstriction occurs in the lungs due to angiotensin II
  5. arteriolar constriction
  6. angiotensin II causes arteriolar constriction in adrenal glands
  7. aldosterone is secreted by adrenal glands
  8. aldosterone causes sodium & water retention
  9. retained sodium & water leads to increased volume
  10. arteriolar constriction increases peripheral vascular resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Steps in arterial blood flow development in hypertension

A
  1. non-modifiable & modifiable risk factors
  2. alternating dilation & constriction
  3. intra-arterial pressure is increased
  4. angiotensin constricts endothelial wall
  5. plasma leaks from endothelium
  6. macrophages migrate to the damaged area
  7. necrosis due to plasma deposits
  8. plaque formation
  9. atherosclerosis
  10. increased peripheral resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are specific umbrella terms to describe CV disease?

A
  • heart & blood vessel disease
  • heart attack ( MI )
  • stroke ( CVA )
  • R & L heart failure
  • arrhythmia ( disrhythmia )
  • heart valve disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Stage 1 Hypertension

A

systolic rate: 130-139
diastolic rate: 80-89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Stage 2 Hypertension

A

systolic rate: 140 or higher
diastolic rate: 90 or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Hypertensive Crisis

A

systolic rate: higher than 180
diastolic rate: higher than 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What causes hypertension?

A
  • increased cardiac output ( ⬆️ SV & ⬆️ HR )
  • increased peripheral resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Non-modifiable risk factors

A

age, sex, race/ethnicity, family history, genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Modifiable risk factors

A

diet ( dyslipidemia & obesity ), physical activity, tobacco, metabolic considerations, obstructive sleep apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is primary hypertension?

A

a possible genetic deficit; no causative clinical condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is secondary hypertension?

A

related to another clinical condition
- illicit drugs: stimulants
- sympathomimetic amines: drugs that speed up HR; also causes HTN
- kidney disease
- adrenal disease
- oral contraceptive agents

71
Q

What are hypertension consequences in certain target organ diseases?

A
  • increased perfusion pressure
  • vascular endothelial damage
  • cardiac hypertrophy
  • ischemic heart disease
  • CV accident ( stroke )
  • end-stage renal disease
  • dementia
  • cognitive impairment
  • visual impairment
72
Q

What two neural mechanisms monitor & regulate blood pressure?

A

baroreceptors & chemoreceptors

73
Q

Baroreceptors

A
  • monitors BP through changes in pressure
  • signals sent to medulla oblongata or vagus nerve
  • sympathetic & parasympathetic nervous system
74
Q

Chemoreceptors

A
  • monitors chemicals
  • changes in low oxygen, high carbon dioxide, acidosis
  • sympathetic stimulation of arterioles & veins
  • located in carotid sinus & aortic arch
75
Q

What is an antidiuretic hormone that involves a short term effect with being a vasoconstrictor?

A

vasopressin

76
Q

What is a specific vasoconstrictor that causes increased amount of activity in the heart?

A
  • epinephrine/norepinephrine
    ➡️ increased SNS activity
    ➡️ increased vasoconstriction
    ➡️ increased HR
    ➡️ increased cardiac contractility
77
Q

Diseases of the arterial system

A

dyslipidemia & atherosclerosis

78
Q

Dyslipidemia

A

imbalance of lipids
➡️ imbalanced amount of triglycerides: >150
➡️ imbalanced amount of lipoproteins: >130
➡️ imbalanced amount of HDL: <45
➡️ imbalanced amount of cholesterol: >200

79
Q

Primary dyslipidemia

A
  • familial hypercholesterolemia
    ➡️ deficient LDL receptor
    ➡️ high cholesterol
    ➡️ xanthomas: yellow deposits of cholesterol in tendons & soft tissues
    ➡️ atherosclerosis in childhood
80
Q

Secondary dyslipidemia

A

➡️ poor diet ( high fat, low fiber )
➡️ obesity ( high trig, high LDL, low HDL )
➡️ metabolic disease

81
Q

What are thin, yellow intimal discolorations that progressively enlarge over time & stick to the lumen vessels?

A

fatty streaks

82
Q

What is the accumulation of intracellular & extracellular lipids, proliferation of vascular smooth muscle cells, & formation of scar tissue?

A

fibrous atheromatous plaque

83
Q

What is hemorrhaging, ulceration, & scar tissue that develops?

A

complicated lesions

84
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

build up of fats, cholesterol, & other substances in & out of the artery walls

85
Q

Major Risk Factors for Atherosclerosis

A
  • hypercholesterolemia
  • HDL cholesterol < 40mg/dL
  • cigarette smoking
  • hypertension
  • family history of premature CVD in a first degree relative
  • age: men over 45 years & women over 55 years
  • CRP levels
  • homocysteine levels
86
Q

Major Complications for Atherosclerosis

A
  • ischemic heart disease
  • stroke
  • peripheral vascular disease
  • signs & symptoms:
    ➡️ narrowing of the vessel & resulting ischemia
    ➡️ vessel obstruction due to plaque hemorrhage or rupture
    ➡️ aneurysm formation
87
Q

Which vessels have the important complications of thrombus formation & weakening of the vessel wall?

A

large vessels

88
Q

In which arteries are ischemia & infraction due to vessel occlusion is more common in?

A

medium-sized arteries

89
Q

Ischemia plays a role in?

A

atherosclerosis & microvascular dysfunction

90
Q

Coronary Heart Disease

A

occurs when the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart get blocked by layers of fatty streaks building up

91
Q

Two classifications for CAD

A

chronic ischemic heart disease & acute coronary syndrome

92
Q

Basis techniques for diagnosis

A
  • pain severity & presenting symptoms
  • hemodynamic stability
  • ECG ( EKG ) findings
  • serum cardiac markers
93
Q

angina

A

chest pain, discomfort, or tightness that occurs when an area of the heart muscle is not receiving enough blood oxygen

94
Q

Stable angina

A
  • fixed coronary obstruction
  • disparity between coronary blood flow & myocardial metabolic demands
  • initial manifestation of ischemic heart disease
95
Q

Unstable angina

A
  • more persistent & severe course
    ➡️ occurs at rest
    ➡️ > 20 minutes
    ➡️ severe
    ➡️ new onset
    ➡️ more severe, longer duration or more frequent than most previous
96
Q

Causes of unstable angina

A
  • atherosclerotic plaque disruption
  • platelet aggregation
  • secondary cardiomyopathy
97
Q

Cardiomyopathy

A

disease of the heart muscle that makes it harder for the heart to pump blood to the rest of the body which causes the heart muscle to be enlarged, thick or rigid
➡️ can lead to valve disorders, arrhythmias, or heart failure

98
Q

Disorders of the heart valves include?

A
  • trauma
  • ischemic damage
  • degenerative changes
  • inflammation
  • congenital defects ( in new borns )
99
Q

stenosis

A

narrowing of the valve opening
➡️ flaps can be stiff or thick
➡️ does not open properly
➡️ decreased blood flow

100
Q

mitral & aortic valve stenosis

A

causes a reduce of blood flow with narrow opening

101
Q

mitral valve prolapse

A

valve flaps bulge ( prolapse ) into upper left atrium during each heartbeat
➡️ can cause blood to leak backwards ( regurgitation )

102
Q

mitral & aortic valve regurgitation

A

valves do not close properly
➡️ backflow of blood in the left ventricle

103
Q

Definition of aortic valve disorders

A
  • valve between left ventricle & aorta narrows
  • cannot open fully
  • reduces or blocks blood flow to the aorta & the rest of the body
104
Q

Potential Complications of Aortic Valve Disorders

A
  • heart failure
  • stroke
  • blood clots
  • heart rhythm abnormalities
  • death
105
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy

A

enlarged ventricles

106
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

enlarged stiff septum; enlarged myocardium
➡️ causes the heart chambers to become smaller

107
Q

restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

walls of the ventricles become stiff

108
Q

primary cardiomyopathy

A

genetic & mixed cardiomyopathy

109
Q

secondary cardiomyopathy

A

caused by a systemic disease

110
Q

When determining the extent of infract, always remember…

A
  • location & extent of occlusion
  • amount of heart tissue supplied by the vessel
  • duration of the occlusion
  • metabolic needs of the affected tissue
  • extent of collateral circulation
  • heart rate, blood pressure, cardiac rhythm
111
Q

Who are at risk for myocardial infractions?

A
  • people who are asymptomatic without other evidence of CAD
  • people who have a history of previous MI & continued episodes of silent ischemia
  • people who have angina & who also have silent ischemia
112
Q

Signs & Symptoms of MI

A

➡️ radiation to other areas: left arm or both arms, shoulders, neck, jaw, lower back or abdomen
➡️ angina ( stable or unstable )
➡️ heart palpatations ( racing or skipping )
➡️ shortness of breath
➡️ anxiety
➡️ sweating
➡️ nausea
➡️ stomach discomfort
➡️ feeling lightheaded, dizzy, or fainting
➡️ weakness ( r/o hypotension )

113
Q

vasculitis

A
  • inflammation of the blood vessel wall resulting in vascular injury & necrosis
    ➡️ the inflammatory process may be initiated by direct injury, infectious agents or immune processes
114
Q

Signs & Symptoms of vasculitis

A

fever, myalgia, arthralgia, malaise

115
Q

atherosclerotic occulsive disease

A

sudden event that interrupts arterial flow to the affected tissues or organs
➡️ fatty deposits, like in atherosclerosis
➡️ narrowed arteries reduce blood flow to the arms or legs

116
Q

thromboangiitis obliterans

A

inflammatory arterial disorder that causes thrombus formation

117
Q

raynaud disease & phenomenon

A
  • intense vasospasm of the arteries & arterioles in the fingers, less often, the toes
    ➡️ risk factors: women more than men, colder climates
    ➡️ signs & symptoms: cold fingers or toes, color change in skin in response to cold or stress numbness or stinging pain upon warming or stress relief
118
Q

seven “ p’s “ of acute arterial embolism

A
  • pistol shot ( acute onset )
  • pallor
  • polar ( cold )
  • pulselessness
  • pain
  • paresthesia ( numbness )
  • paralysis
119
Q

thrombus

A

stationary blood clot

120
Q

emboli

A

a blood clot that moves freely in the arteries

121
Q

berry aneurysm

A

most often found in the circle of willis in the brain circulation, containing a small, spherical vessel dilation

122
Q

fusiform & saccular aneurysm

A

most often found in the thoracic & abdominal aorta

123
Q

aortic dissection ( dissecting aneurysm )

A

acute, life-threatening condition that involves the hemorrhaging into the vessel wall with longitudinal leaking of the vessel wall to form a blood-filled channel

124
Q

venous circulation

A
  • one way valves in large veins
  • limited contractility
  • decreased driving pressure
  • thin-walled vessel
125
Q

Disorders of the venous circulation

A
  • produce congestion of the affected tissues
  • predispose to clot formation because of stagnation of flow & activation of the clotting system
    ➡️ primary & secondary varicose veins
126
Q

thrombophlebitis

A
  • causes a blood clot to form in the veins of the legs
  • signs & symptoms: warmth, tenderness & pain, redness, swelling
127
Q

Virchow’s Triad associated with venous thrombosis

A

stasis of blood, increased blood coagulability, & vessel wall injury

128
Q

Risk factors for venous stasis

A

bed rest & immobility

129
Q

deep vein thrombosis ( DVT )

A

causes deformity of the valves leaflets

130
Q

valvular incompetence

A

loss of unidirectional blood flow

131
Q

stasis dermatitis

A

chronic inflammation state in the legs due to poor circulation; itchy

132
Q

venous ulcers

A

pooling of blood causing increased pressure in veins

133
Q

primary function of the respiratory system

A
  • gas exchange
  • moves oxygen into blood
  • removes carbon dioxide
  • barrier defense between external & internal environment *
    ➡️ regulates vasoconstricting substances: bradykinin, angiotensin II, heparin
134
Q

ventilation

A

movement of air into & out of the lungs

135
Q

perfusion

A

movement of blood through the lungs

136
Q

respiration

A

diffusion of gases between the lungs & the blood

137
Q

purpose of conducting airways

A

warms & humidifies air & traps inhaled particles

138
Q

type I alveolar cells

A

flat squamous epithelial for gas exchange

139
Q

type II alveolar cells

A

produces surfactant, a lipoprotein that decreases the surface tension in the alveoli & allows ease for lung inflation

140
Q

pulmonary circulation

A

starts at the pulmonary artery ( gas exchange function of the lungs )

141
Q

bronchial circulation

A

starts at the thoracic aorta * circulatory system of the lungs *
- supplies at the lungs & lung structures with oxygen
- distributes blood to the conducting airways
- warms & humidifies incoming air

142
Q

phrenic nerve

A

specifically in the diaphragm ( controls the dilation & constriction )

143
Q

Automatic regulation of ventilation

A

chemoreceptors: monitors blood levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide & adjust ventilation to meet the changing metabolic needs
lung receptors: monitor breathing patterns & lung function

144
Q

Voluntary regulation of ventilation

A
  • integrates breathing with voluntary acts such as speaking, blowing & singing
  • causes a temporary suspension of automatic breathing
145
Q

inspiration

A

air is drawn into the lungs as the respiratory muscles expand the chest activity

146
Q

expiration

A

air moves out of the lungs as the chest muscle recoil, & the chest cavity becomes smaller

147
Q

Ventilation factors

A

➡️ pulmonary ventilation: total exchange of gasses between the atmosphere & lungs
➡️ alveolar: ventilation in the gas exchange portion of the lungs
➡️ distribution: varies with lung volume & body position
➡️ dead air space: air that is moved with each breath but does not participate in gas exchange

148
Q

Perfusion factors

A

➡️ distribution of blood flow: affected by body position & gravity
➡️ hypoxia: induced vasoconstriction
➡️ shunt: blood that moves from the right to the left side of circulation without being oxygenated

149
Q

lung compliance

A

how easily lungs can be inflated depends on:
- elastic & collagen factors
- water content
- surface tension
- decreases with conditions that reduce natural lung elasticity or block the bronchi or smaller airways

150
Q

signs of dry cough

A
  • asthma
  • cold
  • GERD
  • sleep apnea
  • vocal cord dysfunction
  • allergies
  • COVID
151
Q

signs of wet cough

A
  • cold
  • flu
  • lung infection
  • cystic fibrosos
  • acute bronchitis
  • bronchiectasis
152
Q

Cheyne-Stokes

A

abnormal pattern of breathing
➡️ oscillation of ventilation between apnea & hyperpnea
➡️ compensate for changing pressures ( can also occur if there is some serious diseases in the lungs )

153
Q

What are the diffusion disorders of the respiratory system?

A

hypoxemia & hypercapnia

154
Q

Hypoxemia

A

abnormally low blood oxygen levels
➡️ causes: inadequate oxygen in the air, respiratory system disease, neurological system dysfunction, changes in circulatory function, mismatching of ventilation & perfusion
➡️ signs & symptoms: hypoventilation, impaired gas diffusion, inadequate pulmonary capillary circulation

155
Q

Hypercapnia

A

elevation in the arterial carbon dioxide
➡️ causes: decreased or shallow respiration, low level of consciousness, high muscle contraction, low nerve firing, high respiration
➡️ signs & symptoms: vasodilation, headache, conjunctival hyperemia, warm flushed skin

156
Q

Types of Hypoxemia

A
  • mild hypoxemia:
    ➡️ increased HR
    ➡️ peripheral vasoconstriction
    ➡️ diaphoresis
    ➡️ increase in BP
    ➡️ slight mental performance impairment
  • chronic hypoxemia:
    ➡️ insidious onset
    ➡️ can attributed to other causes
    ➡️ high ventilation
    ➡️ pulmonary vasoconstriction
    ➡️ high production of red blood cells
    ➡️ cyanosis
157
Q

pleural effusion

A

abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity

158
Q

hemothorax

A

blood in the pleural cavity

159
Q

pneumothorax

A

accumulation of air in the pleural cavity that causes partial or complete collapse of the lungs

160
Q

pleuritis

A

inflammation of the pleura * pain common symptom *

161
Q

Atelectasis

A

incomplete expansion of the lung or the portion of the lung
➡️ causes: airway obstruction, lung compression, increased recoil of lung
➡️ signs & symptoms: tachypnea, tachycardia, dyspnea, cyanosis, decreased & absent breath sounds

162
Q

Asthma

A

chronic disorders of airways
➡️ causes of diffuse airway inflammation: bronchoconstriction, edema & swelling, airway hyperreactivity, airway remodeling
➡️ causes: genetics, IgE response to allergens, family history, smoking, pollution, environmental toxins, reflux disease
➡️ signs & symptoms: dyspnea, chest tightness, cough & audible wheezing, tachypnea, tachycardia, shortness of breath

163
Q

triggers of asthma

A
  • environmental or occupation allergens
  • cold, dry air
  • infections
  • exercise
  • inhaled irritants
  • stress
  • aspirin & other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents ( NSAIDS )
  • gastroesophageal reflux disease ( GERD )
164
Q

COPD

A

airflow limitation caused by inflammatory response to inhaled toxins, often cigarette smoke
➡️ other causes in non-smokers: alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency & occupational exposure
➡️ signs & symptoms: productive cough & dyspnea that develops over years, decreased breath sounds, prolonged expiratory phase of respiration, coughing & wheezing; barrel-like chest, fatigue, chest tightness; phelgm
➡️ in severe cases: weight loss, pneumothroax, frequent acute decompensation episodes, right heart failure, and/or respiratory failure ( acute or onset )

165
Q

emphysema

A
  • destruction of lung parenchyma
  • loss of elastic recoil
  • loss of alveolar shape & structure
  • high tendency for airway collapse
  • complications: lung hyperinflation, airflow limitation, & air trapping
  • airspaces enlarge & may eventually develop blebs or bullae
166
Q

chronic bronchitis

A
  • productive cough on most days of the week for at least 3 months total duration in 2 successive years ( periods of excerbations with increased thick mucus often result in viral & bacterial infections )
  • chronic productive cough, wheezing, & partially reversible airflow obstruction
  • more common in smokers with history of asthma
167
Q

bronchiectasis

A

permanent dilation of the bronchi & bronchioles secondary to persisting infection or obstruction
➡️ signs & symptoms: atelectasis, obstruction of smaller airways, diffuse bronchitis, recurrent bronchopulmonary infection, cough, copious amounts of foul-smelling & purulent sputum, hemoptysis * weight loss & anemia are common *

168
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

an autosomal recessive disorder involving fluid secretion in the exocrine glands & the epithelial lining of the respiratory, gastrointestinal, & reproductive tracts
➡️ causes: genetic inherit disorder

169
Q

pulmonary embolism

A

substance from bloodstream lodges in branch of pulmonary artery & obstructs blood flow
➡️ thrombus: blood clot
➡️ air: blood clot from IV
➡️ fat: blood clot from fracture
➡️ anmiotic fluid
➡️ causes: conditions that impair venous return, i.e. DVT; conditions that cause endothelial injury or dysfunction, i.e. dyslipidemia, & blood clotting disorders
➡️ signs & symptoms: dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, lightheadedness, tachypnea, tachycardia, syncope, hypotension or cardiorespiratory arrest

170
Q

pulmonary hypertension

A
  • increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation
    ➡️ increased pulmonary vascular resistance
    ➡️ increased pulmonary venous pressure
    ➡️ increased pulmonary venous flow due to congenital heart disease
  • pulmonary vessels become constricted, shriveled, lost, and/or obstructed * if severe ➡️ leads to R ventricular overload & failure *
    ➡️ signs & symptoms: exertional dyspnea, fatigue, chest discomfort, & lightheadedness or syncope
    ➡️ most common caused by: left HF, diastolic dysfunction or chronic hypoxia
171
Q

cor pulmonale

A

right-sided heart failure secondary to respiratory disease:
➡️ decreased lung ventilation
➡️ pulmonary vasoconstriction
➡️ increased workload on the right heart
➡️ decreased oxygenation
➡️ kidney releases ➡️ erythropoietin ➡️ more red blood cells made ( renin system )
➡️ polycythemia makes blood more viscous
➡️ increased workload of heart

172
Q

manifestations of cor pulmonale

A

signs & symptoms of primary lung disease & signs of right-sided heart failure

173
Q

acute respiratory distress syndrome

A
  • more severe form of acute lung injury
  • severe hypoxemia ( PaO2 < 60 mmHg ) without hypercapnia
    ➡️ pathologic lung changes: diffuse epithelial cell injury with increased permeability of the alveolar ( capillary membrane )
    ➡️ causes: pneumonia, sepsis, drowing, fat embolism, burns, severe COVID-19
    ➡️ signs & symptoms: dyspnea, restlessness, anxiety, confusion or alternation of consciousness, cyanosis, tachypnea, tachycardia, & diaphoresis ( sweating ) * cardiac arrhythmias & coma can result *
174
Q

acute respiratory failure

A
  • life-threatening
  • impairment of oxygenation, carbon dioxide elimination or both
  • may result from impaired gas exchange, decreased ventilation, or both
    ➡️ signs & symptoms: dyspnea, use of accessory muscles of respiration, tachypnea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, cyanosis, altered consciousness, & eventually obtundation, respiratory arrest & death

Pathophysiology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions