Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is dynamic constancy

A

levels change over short periods of time but remain relatively constant over long periods of time

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2
Q

Is steady state or equilibrium more similar to homeostasis?

A

Steady state

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3
Q

What do paracrines target?

A

Local cells

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4
Q

What do autocrines target?

A

The same cell that secreted them

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5
Q

What determines the amplitude of normal range?

A

Threshold Stimulus (sensitivity)

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6
Q

What is the biggest difference in the homeostatic processes of the nervous system and endocrine system?

A

The endocrine system does not have an afferent pathway because the reflex receptor is already at the integrating center.

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7
Q

What is the effector in a systemic homeostatic process?

A

Any cell affected by the efferent pathway.

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8
Q

Is negative feedback or positive feedback part of homeostasis?

A

Negative feedback (maintains normal range)

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9
Q

Is hemostasis positive or negative feedback?

A

Positive (clotting cascade)

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10
Q

What part of the jaw unloading reflex involved negative feedback?

A

Shutting off the periodontal receptors once the pressure is off the teeth.

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11
Q

Are hydrophobic or hydrophilic substances permeable to phospholipid membranes?

A

hydrophobic (like lipids) (also water)

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12
Q

What levels of protein structure does denaturation and covalent/allosteric modulation affect?

A

2, 3, 4

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13
Q

As Kd increases, affinity

A

decreases

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14
Q

Cell junctions that prevent intercellular flow

A

Tight junctions

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15
Q

Cell junctions that provide structural support

A

Desmosomes

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16
Q

Substances with high intracellular [conc]

A

K+, Mg2+, PO3, Amino acids, proteins

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17
Q

Substances with high extracellular [conc]

A

Na+, Ca2+, Cl-, HCO3-, Glucose

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18
Q

Does bulk vesicular transport require energy input?

A

Yes

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19
Q

Is facilitated or simple diffusion rate decreased by resistance and distance?

A

Simple diffusion is slowed (cannot be selectively regulated)

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20
Q

Osmosis is determined by…

A

concentrations of impermeable solutes

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21
Q

Osmolarity is determined by…

A

concentrations of all permeable and impermeable solutes

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22
Q

Tonicity is determined by…

A

all impermeable solutes

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23
Q

Blood plasma is ___% of body water.
Interstitial fluid is ___% of body water.
Intracellular fluid is ___% of body water.

A

Blood plasma: 5%
Interstitial fluid: 15%
Intracellular fluid: 40%

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24
Q

What is primary active transport?

A

energy comes directly from breakdown of ATP

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25
Q

What is secondary active transport?

A

energy comes movement of a substance down a gradient. Used to PUMP a second substance up a gradient.

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26
Q

How does a cell modify the composition of its plasma membrane?

A

Endo and exocytosis

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27
Q

The dorsal and spinothalamic tracts both contain what kind of neurons?

A

ascending sensory axons

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28
Q

The corticospinal tract contains what kind of neurons?

A

descending motor neurons

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29
Q

What are the 4 specialized areas in the Frontal lobe?

A

Premotor, primary motor, prefrontal, broca’s area (speech)

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30
Q

What are the 2 specialized areas in the parietal lobe?

A

Primary sensory, primary gustatory

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31
Q

What are the 3 specialized areas in the temporal lobe?

A

Primary auditory, primary olfactory, wernicke’s area

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32
Q

What is the 1 specialized area in the occipital lobe?

A

primary visual

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33
Q

A person has a severed corpus callosum, their right ear hears a word. What happens?

A

They cannot understand the word because it can’t cross over to the general interpretive area.

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34
Q

A person who cannot localize pain or various cutaneous stimuli likely has a lesion on what lobe of the brain?

A

Parietal

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35
Q

A person experiencing visual hallucinations likely has a lesion on what lobe?

A

Occipital

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36
Q

A person experiencing auditory hallucinations or hearing loss likely has a lesion on what lobe?

A

Temporal

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37
Q

A person experience seizures with twitching and spreads to contralateral paresis or paralysis likely has a lesion on what lobe?

A

Frontal

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38
Q

Trace the neural pathway from reading a word to speaking that word.

A

Primary visual cortex in occipital lobe -> wernicke’s area to understand language -> Broca’s area to produce speech -> prefrontal motor cortex to speak the word

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39
Q

Trace the neural pathway from hearing a word to speaking that word.

A

Primary auditory cortex in temporal lobe -> wernicke’s area to process language -> broca’s area to produce speech -> prefrontal motor cortex to speak the word.

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40
Q

The basal nuclei are considered an accessory _________ system as they function in close association with the _____ lobe and the __________ pathway.

A
  • motor
  • frontal
  • corticospinal
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41
Q

What are the 4 nuclei that make up the basal nuclei?

A
  1. Caudate Nucleus
  2. Putamen
  3. Globus pallidus
  4. Subthalamic Nucleus
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42
Q

In what ways do the basal nuclei modulate movement?

A

Direct pathway: increases cortical excitation to promote movement
Indirect pathway: inhibits cortical activity to inhibit movement

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43
Q

Parkinson’s Disease is an example of damage to the ______ pathway of the basal nuclei.

A

Direct

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44
Q

The thalamus performs sensory relay for information for the _____________.

A

cerebral cortex

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45
Q

The hypothalamus is involved in ______________. It impacts the _______, ________, and _________ systems.

A
  • maintaining homeostasis
  • autonomic
  • endocrine
  • limbic
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46
Q

What part of the diencephalon is responsible for reg of circadian rhythms

A

epithalamus

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47
Q

What part of the diencephalon is involved with the basal nuclei to control voluntary movement?

A

Subthalamus

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48
Q

The limbic system is responsible for….

A

emotions and memories

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49
Q

The midbrain is made up of what three parts?

A
  1. Centers for motore control
  2. Nuclei of the Reticular Formation
  3. Periaqueductal Gray Region (PAG)
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50
Q

What are the 3 centers for motor control in the midbrain?

A
  1. Substantia nigra (dopamine)
  2. Red Nucleus (rubrospinal?)
  3. Superior and Inferior Colliculi (head turning)
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51
Q

The PAG is part of a _______ pathway that releases endogenous _______ on afferent neurons in the _______ horn.

A
  • descending
  • endorphins
  • dorsal
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52
Q

What four parts make up the Pons?

A
  1. pneumotaxic center
  2. nuclei of reticular formation
  3. pontine reticular and vestibular nuclei (motor control)
  4. swallowing center
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53
Q

What are the 5 parts of the medulla obogata?

A
  1. Autonomic control centers (cardio, resp, swallow, vomit)
  2. Nucleus Raphe Magnus and Rostral Ventromedial Medulla (endogenous endorphins)
  3. Medullary Reticular Nuclei
  4. Pyramids (axons of corticospinal tract)
  5. Nuclei for Reticular Formation (consciousness)
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54
Q

What is the one sense that does not go through the RAS?

A

smell

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55
Q

Where are the raphe nuclei located and what function are they associated with?

A

Midbrain and medulla oblongata, dampening ascending nociceptive signals

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56
Q

What physiologic processes are under dopaminergic control?

A
  1. reward
  2. emotion
  3. cognition
  4. memory
  5. motor function
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57
Q

Neurons in the substantia nigra project to the _______. How is this related to Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • basal nuclei

- the basal nuclei modulate motor control

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58
Q

The Ventral Tegmental Area is associated with dopaminergic projections. Where does those projections lead?

A
  • prefrontal cortex

- dysfunction in this pathway leads to schizophrenia, and psychoses

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59
Q

Noradrenergic projections involve ______ areas of the brain and lead to ________ and ___________.

A
  • all
  • attention
  • arousal
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60
Q

Extrapyramidal/Indirect pathways originate in the _____________ and direct ________ muscle tone. Where do these pathways decussate?

A
  • brainstem
  • unconscious
  • do not decussate
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61
Q

UMNs in the pyramidal/direct pathway originate in the _________ and direct __________ movement. Where do these pathways decussate?

A
  • cerebral cortex
  • voluntary
  • In the medulla (pyramids)
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62
Q

Damage to UMN leads to _____ paralysis whereas damage to LMN leads to ______ paralysis.

A
  • spastic

- flaccid

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63
Q

Axons from the corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts originate in what two regions?

A
  • supplementary motor cortex

- primary motor cortex

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64
Q

The lateral corticospinal pathway decussates in the _______.

A

-medulla

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65
Q

The anterior corticospinal tract decussates in the _______.

A

-spinal cord

66
Q

The cotricobulbar tract UMNs terminate in the _____. The LMN in this tract innervate skeletal muscles in the ____________.

A
  • brainstem

- head and neck

67
Q

The rubrospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal, and reticulospinal tracts all regulate _____________ control of skeletal muscles. Which two decussate and where?

A
  • subconscious

- rubrospinal and tectospinal decussate in the midbrain

68
Q

Describe the rubrospinal pathway

  • starts?
  • function?
  • decussates?
A
  • red nucleus involved in upper limb muscle tone and movement
  • red nucleus gives rise to rubrospinal tract and crosses in brain stem to travel alongside corticospinal tract
69
Q

Describe the tectospinal pathway

  • starts?
  • function?
  • decussate?
A
  • arises from superior (vision) and inferior (auditory) colliculi in brainstem
  • controls head and neck movement to stimuli
  • crosses over in midbrain
70
Q

Describe the vestibulospinal pathway

  • starts?
  • action?
  • decussate?
A
  • originates in vestibular nuclei in pons and medulla oblongata
  • sends excitatory signals to antigravity muscles in legs and neck to maintain balance.
  • DO NOT DECUSSATE
71
Q

Describe the reticulospinal pathway

  • two parts?
  • functions?
  • decussate?
A
  • medial (pontine) is Pontine RS pathway and activates axial muscles
  • lateral (medullary) is medullary RS pathway and is antagonist to pontine rs pathway.
  • DO NOT DECUSSATE
72
Q

The basal nuclei modulate UMN signals via the …..

A

thalamus

73
Q

Effects of dopamine and ACH in the basal nuclei?

A

Dopamine: activates direct pathway to increase excitability of primary motor cortex neurons
ACH: is inhibitory in brain so it activates the indirect pathway to decrease excitability of primary motor cortex

74
Q

The basal nuclei are located in the….

A

midbrain

75
Q

What are the functional zones of the cerebellum?

A
  1. Spinocerebellum
  2. Vestibulocerebellum
  3. Cerebrocerebellum
76
Q

Function of spinocerebellum?

A

coordination of body and limb movement, maintenance of muscle tone

77
Q

Function of vestibulocerebellum

A

balance and eye movement

78
Q

Function of cerebrocerebellum

A

planning and execution of movements, coordinating complex sequential movements

79
Q

Do any cerebellar diseases result in paralysis?

A

No, only uncoordinated movements

80
Q

The spinocerebellum receives input from _______ and does what with that information?

A
  • muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs

- initiates reflex responses to adjust motor activity as needed (think knee cap reflex)

81
Q

The vestibulocerebellum receives sensory info from what three things and does what with that information?

A
  1. Vestibular Apparatus
  2. Superior colliculi
  3. Visual cortex

-adjusts activity of vestibular and reticular nuclei/tracts to reg position of eyes, head limbs and axial muscles.

82
Q

The cerebrocerebellum receives input from ______ and uses that information to ___________ motor activity.

A
  • cerebral cortex

- plan, organize, and coordinate

83
Q

Draw the integrated motor control pathway diagram

A

draw it Lecture 1.5

84
Q

CNS Autonomic control is located in the…..

A

brainstem and hypothalamus

85
Q

What are the neurotransmitters for the SNS?

A
  • NE and EPI

- ***acetylcholine from pre to post ganglionic neurons

86
Q

What are the neurotransmitters for the PNS?

A

-acetylcholine

87
Q

What receptors does Ach bind to in the pre/post ganglionic synapse of the ANS?

A

ach binds to nicotinic receptors (Type Nn)

88
Q

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors are ________ ion channels that are selective to ______ and ______ making them _________?

A
  • ligand gated
  • Na+ and K+
  • excitatory
89
Q

Almost all sympathetic postganglionic nerve terminals release….. which activates ____ and ____ receptors.

A
  • norepinephrine
  • alpha
  • beta
90
Q

Chromaffin cells secrete 80% _____ and 20% _____.

A
  • 80% epinephrine

- 20% NE

91
Q

Do alpha or beta receptors have higher affinity for catecholamines?

A

beta

92
Q

Alpha 1 Receptors

  • location
  • function
A
  • smooth muscle, glands

- incr Ca2+, sm muscle contraction, secretion

93
Q

Alpha 2 Receptors

  • location
  • function
A
  • nerve endings, some sm muscles

- decrease NT release, muscle contraction

94
Q

Beta 1 Receptors

  • location
  • function
A
  • cardiac muscle, juxtaglomerular apparatus

- incr HR, incr renin release

95
Q

Beta 2 Receptors

  • location
  • function
A
  • smooth muscle, liver, heart

- relax smooth muscle, dilation, incr HR and force

96
Q

Beta 3 Receptors

  • location
  • function
A
  • adipose cells

- incr lipolysis

97
Q

Dopamine Receptors

  • location
  • function
A
  • smooth muscle

- relax renal vascular smooth muscle

98
Q

Which receptor’s second messenger decreases cAMP?

A

Alpha 2

99
Q

How does cocaine have an excitatory effect?

A

-prevents reuptake of NE

100
Q

How do preganglionic PNS axons compare to SNS preganglionic axons?

A

longer

101
Q

Muscarinic receptors are metabotrophic/GPCR? T or F

A

True

102
Q

What do muscarinic receptors do?

A
  • contract smooth muscle
  • relax sphincters
  • stimulate glandular secretions

(everything needed for digestion)

103
Q

What are the Gq coupled muscarinic receptors? What is their common trait?

A
  • M1 (stomach and salivary glands), M3 (exocrine glands, smooth muscle), M5 (sweat glands)
  • all related to sm muscle contraction and secretions
104
Q

What are the Gi coupled muscarinic receptors.

A
  • M2: smooth muscle, myocardium, cardiac autorhythmic cells, CNS
  • M4: CNS, vagal nerve
105
Q

What affect do M2 receptors have on heart rate? (PNS)

A

keep it low

106
Q

What affect do B1 receptors have on heart rate and blood flow? (SNS)

A

Increase HR and increase coronary blood flow via vasodilation.

107
Q

What affect do M3 receptors have on the lungs? (PNS)

A

constricts bronchial smooth muscle

108
Q

What affect do B2 receptors have on the lungs? (SNS)

A

relaxes bronchial smooth muscle (dilation)

109
Q

The primary somatosensory cortex is in what lobe?

A

Parietal

110
Q

How many neurons are in a sensory afferent pathway?

A

Three

111
Q

The dorsal column pathway is responsible for carrying what kind of sensory signals?

A

Touch, Pressure, and Proprioception

112
Q

The spinothalamic tract is responsible for carrying what kind fo sensory signals?

A

Pain and temperature

113
Q

Mechanoreceptors are triggered by…

A

compression and stretch

114
Q

Chemoreceptors are triggered by…

A

ligands

115
Q

Thermoreceptors are triggered by…

A

cold/warm

116
Q

Nociceptor are triggered by…

A

damage (feel pain)

117
Q

Photoreceptors are triggered by…

A

light (electromagnetic receptors)

118
Q

Does activation of a sensory receptor cause an action potential or a graded potential?

A

Graded potential (it changes membrane potential of the neuron)

119
Q

What two factors determine stimulus strength?

A

Frequency of action potentials and total number of receptors activated

120
Q

What kind of receptor helps differentiate stimulus intensity?

A

Tonic Receptors

121
Q

What kind of receptor helps differentiate stimulus duration?

A

Phasic Receptors

122
Q

What kind of effect does a pin point stimulus have on lateral neurons?

A

IPSP

123
Q

Free nerve endings can be mechanoreceptors that detect __4things_____. These are ______ to adapt and (tonic or phasic)

A
  • Touch, temp, pressure and pain
  • slow
  • tonic
124
Q

Pacinian Corpuscles are mechanoreceptors that detect __2things____ in subq tissue, viscera, and joints. These are _____ to adapt and (tonic or phasic)

A
  • deep pressure and vibration
  • quick
  • phasic
125
Q

What pathway detects vibration?

A

Dorsal column pathway

126
Q

Meissner’s Corpuscles are mechanoreceptors that detect __3things___ in hairless skin. These are ____ to adapt and are (tonic or phasic).

A
  • light touch, pressure, vibration
  • quick
  • phasic
127
Q

Merkel’s Disks are mechanoreceptors that _______. These are ____ to adapt and are (tonic or phasic)

A
  • localize continuous pressure and sense texture
  • slow
  • tonic
128
Q

Why would an edentulous pt have trouble determining how hard to bite down on food?

A

-They don’t have the ruffini endings in their PDL that detect pressure.

129
Q

Are hair end organs rapid or slow to adapt? Tonic or phasic?

A
  • Rapid

- Phasic

130
Q

Meissner’s, Merkel, Pacinian, and Ruffini. Which ones are superficial and which ones are deep?

A

Superficial:

  • Meissners (phasic)
  • Merkel (tonic)

Deep:

  • Pacinian (phasic)
  • Ruffini (tonic)
131
Q

What mechanoreceptor is not found in the cutaneous ro mucosal tissue of the face/mouth?

A

Pacinian

132
Q

TR1 and TR2 taste receptor genes are responsible for what three tasts?

A

Sweet, bitter, umami

133
Q

Sour and salty are detected by what kind of receptors?

A

Ion channel linked

134
Q

Which taste is strongly linked to salivation and contraction of facial muscles?

A

sour

135
Q

What two taste proteins make a dimer that is G-protein linked? What taste is it linked to?

A
  • T1R2 and T1R3

- sweet

136
Q

Which taste has the lowest threshold for perception?

A

Bitter (protective)

137
Q

What are the bitter taste stimuli?

A

K+, denatonium, caffeine, quinine, nicotine, broccoli

138
Q

What taste family are the bitter receptors?

A

TR2

139
Q

ENaC receptors detect what taste?

A

salt and sour

140
Q

ENaC and HCN detect what taste?

A

sour

141
Q

T1R2 and T1R3 detect what taste?

A

sweet

142
Q

T2R family of receptors detect what taste?

A

bitter

143
Q

mGluR4 detect what taste?

A

Umami

144
Q

What are the metabotropic taste receptor flavors?

A

sweet, bitter, umami

145
Q

In the taste signaling cascade, where does the Ca2+ come from?

A

Intracellularly, from ER

146
Q

What kind of receptors are located on the taste sensory nerve fiber?

A

Purinergic, react to ATP released by pannexin channel of epithelial taste cell

147
Q

Does taste specificity improve with lower or higher ligand concentrations?

A

Lower

148
Q

Supertasters not only have more taste buds but also have more ______ than the average taster.

A

gustatory neurons

149
Q

What sensation would be affected by a lesion on the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve?

A

taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

150
Q

How many neurons are involved in the gustatory pathway?

A
  • 3
  • primary from taste bud
  • secondary from nucleus tractus solitarii in medulla
  • tertiary from thalamus
151
Q

In olfaction, the glomeruli are where what two cells meet?

A
  • primary olfacory receptor cell axons

- secondary mitral cell dendrites

152
Q

Do olfactory neurons have similar cross inhibitory connections as other sensory neurons?

A

Yes (periglomerular)

153
Q

Golf receptors are coupled to adenyl cyclase. Describe the process of an odorant binding to a receptor to the firing of a primary olfactory neuron.

A

Odorant binds -> G-protein triggers adenyl cyclase to convert ATP to cAMP -> cAMP triggers ion channel to open and let in Na+ to depolarize cell

154
Q

At what temperature do heat/pain fibers activate?

A

45 C

155
Q

At what temperature do cold/pain fibers activate?

A

15 C

156
Q

Are thermoreceptors tonic or phasic?

A

phasic (slow) (C fibers)

157
Q

Why is it difficult to detect the temperature of a pin point?

A

thermoreceptors are better able to detect temp change if more receptors are activated (need larger area)

158
Q

Does capsaicin activate vanilloid receptors?

A

No, only makes them more exciteable to lower temperatures. (EPSP)

159
Q

What is a TRPV1 receptor?

A

Vanilloid

160
Q

What does it mean that pain is polymodal?

A

A person can feel pain through activation of more than just nociceptors

161
Q

What is a theory for referred pain?

A

Second order senory neurons in dorsal horn may be shared by two different primary sensory neurons.