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Histopathology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Cleft lips start forming in what stage?

A

Embryonic stage 3-8 wks

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2
Q

Cleft palates start forming in what stage?

A

Fetal development stage 9+ wks

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3
Q

Zygote -> blastomere -> ?

A

Morula (> or = 32 blastomeres)

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4
Q

What forms in a blastocyst and why is it a “cyst”?

A

At 64 cell stage it forms a hollow center. Cysts are hollow fluid filled pouches surrounded by tissue.

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5
Q

What differentiates a blastocyst and an embryoblast.

A

Once blastocyst has inner cell mass it is an embyoblast.

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6
Q

When does implantation occur? And what is the stage called?

A

Week 4. Embryoblast

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7
Q

What is formed by the enlargement of the amniotic cavity and migration of cells out of the hypoblast?

A

Heuser’s Membrane

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8
Q

The ectoderm is formerly the….

A

epiblast

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9
Q

The mesoderm is formerly the…

A

epiblast

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10
Q

The endoderm is formerly the…

A

hypoblast

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11
Q

What marks the beginning of the formation of the notochord?

A

The primitive streak

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12
Q

The notochord is derived from the …

A

ectoderm

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13
Q

Mesothelial membranes covering peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities are derived from…

A

Parietal mesoderm (from lateral plate mesoderm)

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14
Q

Somites are derived from…

A

Paraxial mesoderm

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15
Q

GI tract epithelium and associated glands come from what germ layer

A

endoderm

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16
Q

Spina bifida and meningocele are mild, moderate, or severe?

A

Mild

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17
Q

Meningomyelocele is mild, moderate, or severe

A

moderate

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18
Q

Meningohydroencephalocele is mild, mod, severe?

A

severe

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19
Q

Anencephaly is mild, moderate, severe, fatal?

A

Fatal

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20
Q

What portion of the body is formed from pharyngeal arches?

A

Neck up to the ears

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21
Q

1st branchial groove ->

A

external auditory canal

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22
Q

1st branchial pouch ->

A

eustachian tube

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23
Q

2nd branchial pouch ->

A

palatine tonsils

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24
Q

3rd branchial pouch ->

A

inferior parathyroids/thymus

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25
Q

4th branchial pouch ->

A

superior parathyroids/ultimobranchial body

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26
Q

At what stage does the head size begin shrinking relative to the rest of the body?

A

Beginning of fetal development stage (9 weeks)

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27
Q

Cleft lip is caused by failed fusion of what two things and usually occurs 5-6 weeks of development?

A

Failed fusion of the medial nasal process and the maxillary process.

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28
Q

When does a cleft palate form?

A

8-12 weeks

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29
Q

In what direction does the palatal shelves fuse?

A

Anterior to posterior (4 ossification centers)

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30
Q

Is cleft lip genetically linked?

A

Yes, if one child has it 40% next child will

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31
Q

What do these have in common?
Ethanol, tetracycline, dilantin, lithium, methotrexate, warfarin, thalidomide, androgens, progesterone, retinoic acid, methylmercury, polychlorinated biphenyls, high levels of ionizing radiation

A

teratogens involved in congenital malformations

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32
Q

Where do nasopalatine duct cysts usually form?

A

line of fusion between palatine shelves and primary plate

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33
Q

What happens when the cervical sinus remains after the 7th week of development? And where is it found?

A

Turns into cervical cyst found along sternocleidomastoid muscle.

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34
Q

Where does the thyroid gland come from?

A

Thyroid tissue invaginates through foramen cecum on posterior of tongue and descends.

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35
Q

The tongue develops from the ________ pharyngeal arch.

A

1st

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36
Q

The trigeminal nerve innervates what pharyngeal arch?

A

1

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37
Q

The facial nerve innervates what pharyngeal arch?

A

2

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38
Q

The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates what pharyngeal arch?

A

3

39
Q

The vegus nerve innervates what pharyngeal arch?

A

4

40
Q

The hypoglossal nerve innervates what pharyngeal arch?

A

6

41
Q

The trigeminal nerves innervates what part of the tongue?

A

sensory to anterior 2/3

42
Q

The facial nerve innervates what part of the tongue?

A

taste to anterior 2/3 (via chorda tympani)

43
Q

The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates what part of the tongue?

A

sensory to posterior 1/3

44
Q

The vagus nerve innervates what part of the tongue?

A

sensory to extreme posterior 1/3 via superior laryngeal branch

45
Q

The hypoglossal nerve innervates what part of the tongue?

A

motor to all tongue muscles

46
Q

Median rhomboid glossitis was originally thought to be an artifact of what pharyngeal arch? (Now considered result of fungal infection)

A

Branchial arch II (tuberculum impar)

47
Q

What kind of cyst is always located along the midline of the neck?

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst

48
Q

Which two arches form the ear bones?

A

1 and 2

49
Q

The hyoid bone is formed by what two arches?

A

2 and 3

50
Q

Thyroid cartilage is formed in what arch?

A

4

51
Q

Cricoid cartilage is formed in what arch?

A

5

52
Q

How many auricular hillocks form the ear?

A

6

53
Q

Merkel’s Cartilage is from what arch and forms what bones?

A

Maleus, Incus, Mandible

54
Q

Reichart’s Cartilage is from what arch and forms what ear bone?

A

Stapes

55
Q

Enamel is derived from what germ layer?

A

Ectoderm

56
Q

Neural crest cells are responsible for what parts of tooth development?

A

dentin, pulp, periodontal ligament, cementum, and alveolar bone proper

57
Q

What is thixotropy?

A

Ability to flow under pressure (amelogenin)

58
Q

What is the largest enamel matrix protein?

A

Enamelin

59
Q

What are the 5 stages of tooth development?

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Bed Stage (proliferation)
  3. Cap Stage (prolif, differentiation, morphogen)
  4. Bell Stage (differentiation completed)
  5. Apposition (mineralization)
  6. Maturation (calcification)
60
Q

The neural plate structures and enamel organ differentiate from what germ layer?

A

Ectoderm

61
Q

What is the dental lamina?

A

invagination of ectoderm (oral epithelium) into the mesenchyme

62
Q

The dental lamina forms during what tooth development stage?

A

induction stage

63
Q

On a prepared slide, an early dental lamina looks like…

A

a line of cells

64
Q

What helps hold the shape of the enamel organ during the early cap stage?

A

stellate reticulum

65
Q

The cells of the dental papilla end up making the…

A

Pulp and odontoblasts

66
Q

The dental follicle (dental sac) ends up making the…

A

PDL, cementum, and alveolar bone

67
Q

What is the first stage where ALL of the layers of the enamel organ can be differentiated?

A

Bell Stage

68
Q

Outer Enamel Epithelium: cells and function

A

cuboidal cells, protective barrier

69
Q

Inner Enamel Epithelium: cells and function

A

cuboidal cells, differentiate into ameloblasts

70
Q

Stellate Reticulum: function

A

supportive function in enamel production

71
Q

Stratum intermedium: cells and function

A

compress layer of flat cuboidal cells, supportive function

72
Q

Dental Sac: structure and differentiates into what?

A

collagen fibers around enamel organ, diff into cementum, PDL, and alveolar bone

73
Q

Dental Papilla: function

A

outer cells diff into odontoblasts, inner cells diff into pulp tissue

74
Q

What does the cervical loop turn into in adult teeth?

A

The CEJ

75
Q

What are the four parts of the enamel epithelium?

A

OEE, Stellate Reticulum, Stratum Intermedium, IEE

76
Q

What structure determines the outline of the root dentin and # of roots.

A

Hertwig’s Root Sheath (fusion and extension of OEE and IEE)

77
Q

In teeth with multiple roots, Hertwig’s Root Sheath creates ______ that divide the pulpal tissue into multiple roots.

A

septa

78
Q

Why is calcification uniform in enamel but not in dentin?

A

Alkaline phosphatase calcifies enamel matrix as it is secreted from ameloblasts. Alkaline phosphatase is released from odontoblast tubules to calcify matrix but it is done unevenly.

79
Q

What is the origin of ameloblasts?

A

inner enamel epithelial cells

80
Q

What stimulates ameloblasts to begin secreting enamel matrix?

A

Mantle dentin

81
Q

What kinds of collagen are found in the mantle dentin?

A

Type I and Type III

82
Q

What makes up the Primary Cuticle?

A

reduced ameloblasts and remaining cells of the outer enamel epithelium, stellate reticulum and stratum intermedium

83
Q

Difference between adodontia, hypodontia, and oligodontia

A

Adontia: no tooth development
Hypodontia: lack of development of one or more teeth
Oligodontia: lack of development of six or more teeth

84
Q

What is the most common manifestation of supernumerary teeth?

A

Mesodens: in between 8 and 9

85
Q

What is odontoma? When does it start?

A

small fragments of tooth structure consisting of dentin, enamel and cementum. Starts in initiation stage

86
Q

What is compound odontoma?

A

multiple small tooth like structures

87
Q

What is dilaceration?

A

abnormal angulation or bend in root

88
Q

Difference between gemination and fusion?

A

Gemination: supernumerary tooth fused with a normal tooth.
Fusion: normal tooth fused with normal tooth

89
Q

When does gemination start?

A

cap stage

90
Q

What is concrescence? When does it start?

A

union of teeth via cementum. Occurs during the apposition stage

91
Q

When does tubercle formation begin?

A

During cap stage. Gives tooth an extra cusp

92
Q

What is a Dentigerous Cyst?

A

separation of dental follicle from crown of unerupted tooth. Occurs during enamel organ formation. **Know it is a dentigerous cyst b/c it is attached at CEJ

20% of all jaw cysts

93
Q

What is the most common neoplastic lesion arising from odontogenic epithelium?

A

Ameloblastoma

94
Q

What is the best form of treatment for an ameloblastoma?

A

Surgery. They are are radio-resistant

Histopathology (3 decks)

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