Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

function of spinal cord

A

receives sensory information and control movements of limbs and trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

function of medulla oblongata

A

contains centers of autonomic function (digestion, breathing, heart rate, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

function of pons

A

relays info about movemnt from cerebrum to cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

function of midbrain

A

relays motor impulses from cerebral cortex to pons and spinal cord and relays sensory impulses from spinal cord to thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what makes up the brainstem

A

midbrain, Pons, and medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

function of cerebellum

A

controls movement, learning motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what makes up the diencephalon

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

function of thalamus

A

controls most info going to the cerebral cortex from the rest of the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

function of hypothalamus

A

regulates autonomic, endocrine, and visceral output functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

function of cerebral cortex

A

information processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

function of hippocampus

A

learning and memory

part of temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

function of basal ganglia

A

involved in motor control, cognition, and reward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

function of amygdala

A

autonomic and endocrine response to emotional states

part of temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

parts of limbic system

A

hippocampus, amygdala, hypothalamus, anterior thalamic nuclei, septum habenula, cingulate gyrus, fornix, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

direction: dorsal

A

top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

direction: ventral

A

bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

direction: anterior

A

front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

direction: posterior

A

back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

direction: rostral

A

“towards nostril”, more for 4 legged, in biped vaguely dorsal anterior (top front)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

direction: caudal

A

“towards tail”, more for 4 legged, in biped vaguely ventral posterior (bottom back)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what makes up the cerebral hemispheres?

A

cerebral cortex, hippocampus, basal ganglia, and amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what basic ideas did Cajal and Golgi disagree on?

A

neuronal doctrine: Cajal believes that nerves are “discontinuous independent elements” (individual cells). Golgi believes that neurons are all connected long cables that transverse the entire body (contiguous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are neuropil and neurites

A

processes from a soma (dendrites and axons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what makes neurons hereogeneous

A

cell shape, number and configuration of processes (neuropil), neurotransmitters sent and received, gene expression (ion channels, receptors, firing, etc.), connectivity.
experience changes the connectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

difference between neuropil and neurites

A

neurites are individual collections of axons and dendrites

neuropil are found in tissue, usually densely backed and sometimes mixed with glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does the soma do?

A

transcription, RNA processing, rER does translation and assembly, golgi does post-translational modification, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

apical dendrites

A

the longest and most distal from soma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

basal dendrites

A

shorter and closer to base of soma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is in the dendrites

A

rER, golgi, mitochondria, microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

are microtubules bidirectional or unidirectional in dendrites

A

bidirectional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

are microtubules bidirectional or unidirectional in axons

A

unidirectional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the axon initial segment

A

trigger zone, rich in voltage-gated ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does the axon do

A

propagate AP and release NTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is in the axon

A

sER, and mitochondria

(virtually) no rER or golgi –> proteins are not synthesized in axon but transported from soma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

function of synaptic bouton

A

electric to chemical signals

short term synaptic plasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

function of plasma membrane

A

compartmentalization and concentration of ion channels, receptors, G proteins, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

unipolar shape and location

A

one body at end, dendrites emerge from axon

found in invertebrates and in autonomic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

bipolar shape and location

A

one body in middle, one long branch of dendrites go to one end and axon to the other
found in retina (sensory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

pseudo-unipolar shape and location

A

one body with TWO AXONS branching out from one area, dendrites found on one end of an axon
found in dorsal root ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the three multipolar cells

A

motor neuron, pyramidal cell, and purkinje cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

motor neuron shape and location

A

one body with multiple dendrites branching out, one long axon
found in spinal cord (motor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

pyramidal cell shape and location

A

triangle shaped soma with an apical dendrites at peak and basal dendrites at two smaller points, one long axon that can branch
found in hippocampus and cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Purkinje cell shape and location

A

One body with dendrites that branch HUNDREDS of times over, one axon that can branch
found in cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

regions of a neuron in order of information flow

A

input (dendrites) –> integrative (beginning of axon) –> conducting (axon) –> output (boutons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

perforant pathway in hippocampus

A

entorhinal cortex –> granule cell –> CA3 –> CA1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

main interneuron NT

A

GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what type of neuron is most diverse

A

interneurons, differ in marker proteins, developmental origin, firing patterns, and connections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

knee jerk reflex

A

hammer stretches the quadricep tendon –> activates sensory neuron in muscle –> sends message towards spine where it diverges –> 1 the motor neuron in the quad is activated messaging from spine to muscle causing it to contract –> 2 an inhibitory interneuron is also activated in spine sending a signal to the motor neuron going from the spine to the hamstring preventing it from contracting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Principle of connectivity: divergence

A

1 sensory neuron stimulates many motor neurons

signal amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

principle of connectivity: convergence

A

many different sensory neurons stimulate the same motor neuron to get it to fire (required to generate AP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

feedforward inhibition pathway

A

one neuron activates 2 more: one of them continues the path while the other is an inhibitory interneuron stopping the path.
ex: knee jerk reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

feedback inhibition pathway

A

one neuron activates 2 more via axon collateral: one of them continues while the other via the collateral connects to an inhibitor interneuron that loops back to the first neuron –> signal is sent quickly and then immediately stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

axon collateral

A

a side branch extending from the axon of a neuron that is NOT a terminal branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the resting membrane potential

A

-65mV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what causes the resting membrane potential

A

unequal distribution of Na+, K+, and Cl-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what channels are responsible for the resting membrane potential and how

A

Na+/K+ channels and K+ selective ion channels
pump Na+ out and K+ –> They are what create the salty banana
K+ ion channels are partially open at rest so membrane is mostly permeable to K+ and not very much to N+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

is membrane potential specific to neurons? An example? What is unique to neurons?

A

No, heart cells have a potential.

Neurons are unique in the speed at which they can change membrane potentials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the relative concentration of Na+ and K+?

A

salty banana; greater Na+ outside and greater K+ inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what are local potentials

A

local changes in membrane potential that are not amplified (there are no V-gated ion channels present) and do not spread much

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what causes local potentials

A

mechano- or ligand-gated channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

receptor potential

A

a passive potential caused by local potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

characteristics of a passive potential

amp, duration, intensity, effect, and propagation

A

amplitude: 0.1-10mV –> dec as moves away from stimulus
duration: brief to long
intensity: graded (vary in intensity)
effect: hyperpolarization or depolarization
propagation: passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

characteristics of an action potential

amp, duration, intensity, effect, and propagation

A

amplitude: 70-110mV –> constant at peak as it moves away from stimulus
duration: brief
intensity: all or nothing
effect: depolarization
propagation: active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what causes action potential

A

local potentials are summed up at trigger zone and cause V-gated ion channels to carry the signal forming an action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

steps of an action potential

A
  1. local potentials are summed –> generator potential
  2. at threshold (-55mV) Na+ channels open quickly, Na+ rushes in
  3. as AP approaches peak, K+ channels begin to open slowly
  4. at peak, Na+ gates close
  5. as repolarization begins, K+ channels are now open, K+ leaves cell
  6. hyperpolarizaton occurs as K+ are slow to close, causing dip in V
  7. Na+/K+ pump resets the resting membrane potential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

how is information conveyed in the brain

A

not the signal, but the pathway the signal takes –> AP is always the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

monogenic diseases

A

caused by single gene mutation
simple mendelian patterns
can be X linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

multigenic disease

A

complex patterns of inheritance

includes most behavioral traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what do twin studies tell us about disease inheritance?

A

monozygotic twins that have a less than 100% concordance in a disease means that there is some amount of environmental factors in getting the disease (would be about 50% in dizygotic twins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

explain genetic overlap in mental disorders

A

overlap in molecular signatures across certain mental disorders shows a correlation of gene expression in those disorders (think schizophrenia and bipolar disorder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Explain hypothesis driven approach

A

you find a gene first and then see which behavior(s) it affects; all of the diseases associated with one gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Explain phenotype driven approach

A

you study a behavior first and then see which gene(s) affect it; all of the genes involved in one disease
requires that behavior is scorable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

hypothesis drive approach methods

A

transgenic mice and virus-mediated alterations of gene activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

explain the old process for transgenic mice

A

take a fertilized egg, inject DNA fragment containing gene of interest –> RANDOM INTEGRATION, transplant egg into foster mother, identify transgenic mouse by PCR, make with WT, identify transgenic offspring by PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

explain the modern process of transgenic mice

A

Harvest blastocyst from mice with brown coat, establish embryonic stem cell line, in vitro make cells with recombinant DNA and implant into white mouse foster mother, give offspring, interbreed offspring to produce brown mouse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Difference between transgenic and mutant mice

A

transgenic mice have new genes inserted, mutant mice have normal genes altered in some way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

phenotype driven approach method

A

mutatnt mice

generate mice mutant in every gene and select those with desired behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is ENU

A

a chemical mutagen for producing mutant mice

79
Q

what does a QTL analysis accomplish

A

allows to determine position of a gene relative to a known SNP

80
Q

microtubule diameter

A

25 nm

81
Q

neurofilament diameter

A

10 nm

82
Q

which filament is a type of intermediate filament?
microtubules
neurofilaments
microfilaments

A

neurofilaments

83
Q

microfilament diameter

A

5-9 nm

84
Q

how many filaments in a microtubule

A

13 protofilaments

85
Q

which filament interacts with GTP

A

microtubules

86
Q

what does GTP do in microtubules

A

The GTP cap stablizes the end of the filament –> the end with the cap is the growing end

87
Q

the end of a microtubule with a GTP gap is the growing end or shrinking end?

A

growing

88
Q

which filament is a GTPase

A

beta tubulin (microtubules)

89
Q

what is dynamic instability

A

appearance of movement from constant growing and shrinking of microtubules and microfilaments

90
Q

which fibers have dynamic instability

A

microtubules and microfilaments

91
Q

what do microtubules do in neurons?

A

tracts for transporting proteins

92
Q

which way do microtubules face in axons

A

+ towards periphery, - towards soma

93
Q

which way do microtubules face in dendrites

A

bidirectional

94
Q

what do kinesins do

A

move cargo on MT towards PERIPHERY

95
Q

what do dyneins do

A

move cargo on MT towards SOMA

96
Q

where is Tau found

A

in axons (and soma)

97
Q

where is MAP2 foudn

A

in dendrites and soma

98
Q

how does Tau cause Alzheimers

A

becomes hyperphosphorylated and insoluble –> forms tangles –> Az

99
Q

where are neurofilaments found

A

axons and dendrites

100
Q

which type of fiber is most stable (like bones of neuron)

A

neurofilaments

101
Q

what do integrins do

A

associated with neurofilaments

receive extracellular proteins, regulate cell migration, signal bidirectionally

102
Q

microfilaments monomers and number

A

actin 2

103
Q

microtubules monomers and number

A

alpha and beta tubulin 13

104
Q

neurofilaments number

A

24

105
Q

what does thymosin do

A
actin binding protein
reduces growth (stabilizes actin)
106
Q

what does formin do

A

actin binding protein

protomote plus end growth

107
Q

what does profilin do

A

actin binding protein

reg plus end growth at plasma membrane

108
Q

what does cofilin do

A

actin binding protein

depolymerizes actin

109
Q

what does gelsolin do

A

actin binding protein

severs microfilaments

110
Q

what type of cells are hippocampus pyramidal cells

A

glutamatergic

111
Q

what is the order of the hippocampus strata from dorsal to ventral

A

oriens, pyramidale, radiatum, lacunosum moleculare

112
Q

what stratum of the hippocampus are basal dendrites found

A

oriens

113
Q

what stratum of the hippocampus are apical dendrites found

A

radiatum and lacunosum moleculare

114
Q

what stratum of the hippocampus has no dendrites in it

A

pyramidale

115
Q

what are Schaffer collaterals

A

axons of CA3 that go to Ca1

116
Q

schaffer collateral cell body stratum

A

pyramidale

117
Q

schaffer collateral axons direction

A

towards CA1 (dorsal and posterior)

118
Q

En passant synapse

A

synapse on cell body or axon stem (not at axon terminal)

119
Q

what is a dendritic spine

A

a protrusion of the dendrite that receives signals from a single axon at the synapse

120
Q

what type of neuron usually has dendritic spines

A

excitatory neurons

glutamatergic synapses

121
Q

how are dendritic spines plastic

A

they allow for structural and functional plasticity by changing axon contacts (important for learning)

122
Q

what do dendritic spines do

A

limit diffusion of a signal, insulating a single signal from the surrounding ones

123
Q

what does forming of new dendritic spines indicate

A

the formation of new LONG TERM memories

124
Q

what is the purpose of the N-terminal sequence

A

penetrate the ER (later become an integral membrane protein)

125
Q

what is co translational transfer

A

created by the sequence and cleavage

allows ribsome to create protein into lumen of ER

126
Q

what is a stop transfer sequence

A

area of the chain that stays in the membrane (before is in outside cell, after is in cell)
made of hydrophobic amino acids

127
Q

how do you get a cell with multiple integral membrane domains

A

alternating series of insertion and stop transfer sequences

128
Q

what does PIP2 -> PIP3 do

A

recruits PH domains

allows cytoplasmic proteins to associate with membrane proteins

129
Q

N-acylation
post- or co- translational?
reversible?

A

co

irreversible

130
Q

Palmitoylation
post- or co- translational?
reversible?

A

post
reversible
cysteine

131
Q

Isoprenylation
post- or co- translational?
reversible?

A

post

irreversible but can be masked

132
Q

Phosphorylation
post- or co- translational?
reversible?

A

post
reversible
Ser, Thr, and Tyr

133
Q

Ubiquitination
post- or co- translational?
reversible?

A

post

reversible sometimes

134
Q

mono-ubiquitination vs poly-ubiquitination

A

mono signals degradation of membrane receptors

poly signals degradation of proteins by lyso- or proteasomes

135
Q

where is prostranslational modification done for extracellular proteins

A

ER lumen

136
Q

name the 4 post translational modifications of extracellular proteins

A

cleavage of signal peptides
n-linked glycosylation
o-linked glycosylation
GPI-anchors

137
Q

what do dendritic mRNAs code for?

A

neurotransmitter receptors
scaffolding proteins
signal transducing enzymes
remember it is in the DENDRITES

138
Q

how can dendritic mRNAs be regulated

A

by neural activity or synaptic stimulation

139
Q

how do mRNAs get to the dendrites

A

in large granules containing mRNA, RNA-binding proteins, ribosomes, and translational factors along microtubules

140
Q

what does Fragile X syndrome cause

A

mental retardation, most common cause in men and significant in women

141
Q

fragile x syndrome cause

A

FMR1 gene triplet is repeated more than usual –> incorrect methylation and absence of functional FMRP protein

142
Q

fragile x syndrome cellular phenotype

A

more dendritic spines
thinner elongated spines
impaired synaptic plasticity

143
Q

what are ion channels

A

integral membrane proteins that allow ions to move across cell membrane –> they are fast

144
Q

what mediates neural currents?

A

ions

145
Q

what mediates electric currents?

A

electrons

146
Q

what determines hydration shell size

A

charge and size of ion

smaller ions have larger hydrations shells

147
Q

which is smaller, Na+ or K+? what about with hydration shells?

A

Na+ is smaller by itself, K+ is smaller with hydration shells
“smaller ion smaller mobility”

148
Q

how do channel gates desensitize

A

it goes into an inactivated state that is different from the resting state preventing opening of the gate

149
Q

how to ion channels generally open? what is different for v-gated ion channels?

A

generally a change in tertiary structure, in v-gated a ball and chain model is used

150
Q

6 different ways ion channels can be stimulated

A
neurotransmitter/ligand gated
G-protein coupled NT receptors
phosphorylation
V-gated
mechanoreceptors (stretch or pressure)
acid/proton- gated
151
Q

what is an agonist

A

it binds to the same site as the endogenous ligand and activates it

152
Q

what is an antagonist

A

competes with endogenous ligand (binds same spot) but does not activate

153
Q

what is an allosteric modulator

A

binds at a different site as endogenous ligand and changes affinity of site for endogenous ligand

154
Q

heteromeric vs homomeric vs single protein with repetitive element channels

A

heteromeric - multiple different proteins make up 1 channel
homomeric - multiples of the same protein make up 1 channel
repetitive elements - one protein that folds over and over makes up 1 channel

155
Q
V gated Na+ and Ca2+ channels
# of homologs
# of transmembrane domains (hetero or homo)
activating stimulus
A

homologs: 1
transmembrane domains: 24 (4*6), hetero
stimulus: membrane potential

156
Q
V-gated K+ channels
# of homologs
# of transmembrane domains (hetero or homo)
activating stimulus
A

homologs: 4
transmembrane domains: 6 (inward rectifying: 2), homo
stimulus: membrane potential (inward rectifying: GPCRs)

157
Q

which is faster, NT gated ion channels or NT gated GPCRs?

A

ion channels

158
Q

glutamate gated-ion channel

A

NT gated ion channel

159
Q

GABA-A receptor

A

NT gated ion channel

160
Q

nACh receptor

A

NT gated ion channel

161
Q

5-HT3 receptor

A

NT gated ion channel

162
Q

Glycine receptor

A

NT gated ion channel

163
Q

metabotropic glutamate receptor

A

NT GPCR

164
Q

GABA-B receptor

A

NT GPCR

165
Q

mACh receptor

A

NT GPCR

166
Q

5-HT receptor

A

NT GPCR

167
Q

dopamine receptor

A

NT GPCR

168
Q

norepinephrine receptor

A

NT GPCR

169
Q

an outside out patch exposes which side to the drug

A

outside

170
Q

an inside out patch exposes which side to the drug

A

inside

171
Q

what does the presence of a ligand to its channel

A

increases the PROBABILTY of it opening

172
Q

what does a variety of voltages in a cell show

A

there is more than one type of channel present

173
Q

ohms law

A

I = V/R

174
Q

conductance

A

conductance = I/V or 1/R

175
Q

resistor like channels

A

have the same ease for current to flow in or out

have straight I/V curve

176
Q

Ohmic channels

A

same as resistor like
have the same ease for current to flow in or out
have straight I/V curve

177
Q

outward rectifying

A

line bends away from origin
conducts in outward direction easier
+ ions move out of cell
- ions move into cell

178
Q

inward rectifying

A

line bends towards origin
conducts in inward direction easier
+ ions move into cell
- ions move out of cell

179
Q

what determines the resting membrane potential

A

selectivity of ion resting channels
concentration of permeable ions

leak K+ channels, HCN channels, IRK channels, Na+/K+ pump, GABA-A receptors

180
Q

At rest, is intra or extra cellular more positive?

A

excess + outside

181
Q

depolarization ion movement

A

+ in

- out

182
Q

hyperpolarization ion movement

A

+ out

-in

183
Q

when are resting channels open

A

all of the time

184
Q

what channels form the AP and when

A

resting channels form resting potential
ligand gated get to threshold
past threshold, V gated form AP

185
Q

what is the chemical driving force

A

outward movement of K+

the resting membrane potential generated by K+ moving down its conc gradient

186
Q

what is the electrical driving force

A

inward movement of K+

187
Q

are there V gate channels in glial cells

A

no

188
Q

what affects the nerst equation

A
gas constant
temp
valence of ion
faraday constant
extracellular conc of ion
intracellular conc of ion
189
Q

at rest, which way do ions flow

A

opposite their concs –> Na flow in, K flow out

Na+ has a greater effection on the membrane potential

190
Q

the goldman equation

A

takes into account all relative permeabilites and concentrations
outward over inward, except for K

191
Q

how is resting potential maintained

A

ions always flow down gradient, active transport counterbalences this

192
Q

high permeability

A

high conductance low resistance

193
Q

low permeability

A

low conductance high resistance

194
Q

adding more neg charge

A

hyperpolarization