Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A&P 2 > EXAM 1 > Flashcards

EXAM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which channels account for the “plateau” observed in the ventricular (fast) cardiac muscle action potential?

A

voltage-gated slow (L-type) Ca+2 channels,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which channels account for action potential depolarization in slow, autorhythmic cardiac fibers?

A

voltage-gated slow (L-type) Ca+2 channels,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An increase in ventricular contractile force due to Frank-Starling mechanisms would be termed an increase

A

preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The adrenergic receptors that directly mediate increases in heart rate and contractility are classified as:

A

beta-1; β1,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system effects on heart rate are mediated by which SA node receptors?

A

muscarinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the carotid sinus baroreceptor action potential (AP) response to an acute increase in blood pressure?

A

AP frequency increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Even though vessel radius decreases, the cross-sectional area of a capillary bed increases, causing blood flow velocity to:

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary?

A

Blood hydrostatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The most important determinant of “long-term” regulation of blood pressure would be:

A

blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

During strenuous exercise, which parameter would change the most?

A

muscle blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which component is the most important contributor to blood viscosity?

A

albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which state would not be associated with anemia?

A

polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An elevated band cell count would indicate overproduction of which cell type?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary function of thrombin?

A

converts fibrinogen to fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The first clotting factor the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways have in common is:

A

factor X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does not prevent the spontaneous formation of a clot

A

the presence of tissue thromboplasin`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An individual has type B, Rh- positive blood. The individual has ____ antigens and can produce anti-________ antibodies

A

B and D; A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the largest leukocyte that contains small cytoplasmic granules and typically a kidney- or horseshoe shaped nucleus

A

Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A normal hematocrit is _______ of total blood volume.

A

37% to 52%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the least abundant of the formed elements?

A

Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The universal donor of RBC’s, but not necessarily plasma, is blood type_______

A

O, Rh- negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What would happen if all of the hemoglobin contained within the RBC’s became free in the plasma

A

it would increase blood osmolarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A person with type AB blood has _____ RBC antigens

A

A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

a patient is diagnosed with Leukocytosis if they have more than ________ WBCs/ul

A

10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The cessation of bleeding is specifically called

A

hemostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where does myeloid hemopoiesis take place in adults

A

Red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which cells aid the bodys defense processes by secreting histamine anf heparin?

A

Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by the abnormal clotting of blood in an ubroken vessel. Moreover, a pieceo of the _____ may break loose and being to travel in the bloodstream as an ______.

A

thrombus; embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is not normally found in plasma

A

Glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The main reason why an individual with Type AB, Rh- negative blood cannot donate blood to an individual with Type A, Rh-positive blood is because ______

A

anti- B antibodies in the recipent will agglutinate RBCs of the donor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What would not decrease the blood colloid osmotic pressure?

A

a diet predominatly based on meat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is not a function of blood

A

produces plasma hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the number of _____ typically increases in response to bacterical infections.

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

a defiency of _____ can cause permicious anemia

A

vitamin B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the most abundant agranuocytes

A

Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Blood clots in the limbs put a patient most at risk for ______

A

pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following might be injected into apatient who is prone to forming blood clots and therefore at risk of a heart attack or stroke

A

Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is not true of a patient with anemia

A

their blood viscosity is increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the most abundatn protein in plasma

A

Albunin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Leukopoiesis beigns with the differentation of

A

pluripotent stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Why are pregnant Rh- women given an injection of Rh immune globulin?

A

Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune systen to produce anti- D antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

During coagulation, which of the following is found in the extrinsic mechanism only?

A

Thromboplastin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the function of thromboplastin in hemostasis

A

it initiates the exstrintic pathway of coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The ABO blood group is determined by _____ in the plasma membrace of RBC’S

A

glycolipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A patient is suffering from ketoacidosis caused by an unregulated high protein diet. Which functions of the blood has been compromised ?

A

stabilizing the bodys pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Some lymphocytes can survive as longas

A

decades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is not true regarding sickle-cell disease?

A

it is a cause of malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Erythrocytes transport oxygen and ______

A

transport some carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by ______

A

plasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is not secreted by platelets?

A

thrombopoletin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where in the body are hemopoietic stem cells found?

A

red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of _________

A

fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?

A

Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The strutural framework of blood clot is fromed by ________

A

a fibrin polymer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Platelets release ______ a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm

A

serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Most oxygen is transported in the blood bound to ______

A

heme groups in hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which of the following is not contained in the buffy coat

A

Erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following proteins is not normally found in plasma

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where do most RBC’s die

A

spleen and liver

60
Q

Where are most clotting factors synthesized in the body?

A

liver

61
Q

What is most likely to cause anemia

A

renal disease

62
Q

Tissues can become edematous (swollen) when which of the following occurs?

A

there is a dietary protein deficiency

63
Q

An increased Erythopoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following except?

A

increased hypoxemia

64
Q

Which of the following has not been implicated in causing leukopenia

A

Dehydration

65
Q

The viscosity of blood is due more to the presence of ______ than to any other factor

A

erythrocytes

66
Q

What would not lead to polycythemia

A

iron deficiency

67
Q

what is nota feature of cardiac muscle

A

they have about the same endurance as skeletal muscle fibers.

68
Q

Most of the ventricle filing occurs _____

A

during atrial diastole

69
Q

the shallow depression seen on the external surface of the heart between left and right ventricles is called the ________

A

intreventricular sulcus

70
Q

Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused

A

pressure gradients

71
Q

Atrial depolarication caused the

A

P wave

72
Q

The ________ valve regulates the flow of blood between the right ventricles and the vessels leading to the lungs

A

Pulmonary

73
Q

In a normal ECG, the deflection that is generated by ventricular repolarization is called the ________

A

T wave

74
Q

Stroke volume is increased by

A

increased venous return

75
Q

Mitral valve prolaspe generates a murmur associated with the _______heart sound that occurs when the _______-

A

lubb (51); ventricles contract

76
Q

When sodium channels are fully open, the membrane of the ventricular cardiomyocte__________

A

sharply depolarizes

77
Q

What is not a part of the cardiac conduction system?

A

Tendinous cords

78
Q

When the ventricles relax, the _______ valve prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle.

A

Aortic

79
Q

Isvolumetric contraction occurs during the _________ of the electrocardiogram

A

R wave

80
Q

When the left ventricle contracts, the _________ valve closes and the _________ valve is pushed open.

A

mitral; aortic

81
Q

The right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid) regulates the opening between the ________ and the ________

A

right atrium; right ventricle

82
Q

The ________ performs the work of the heart

A

myocardium

83
Q

An extended period of time between the P wave and the QRS complex may indicate what?

A

the signal is taking too long to get to the AV node

84
Q

The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called the __________

A

cardiac output

85
Q

Obstruction of the _______ will cause a more severe myocardial infacrtion than the obstruction of any of the others.

A

left coronary artery

86
Q

What carrys oxygen poor blood

A

venea cava and pulmonary arties

87
Q

The long absolute refractory period of the cardiomyocytes

A

prevents tetanus

88
Q

Mitral valve prolapse causes blood leak back into the _________ when the ventricles contract

A

Left atrium

89
Q

The ________ are the superior chambers of the heart

A

atria; ventricles

90
Q

Atrial systole begins

A

immediately after the P wave

91
Q

If the Sinoatrial node is damanged, the heart will likely beat at _________bpm

A

40 to 50

92
Q

The plateau in the action potential of cardiac muscle results from the action of ___________

A

slow Ca2+ channels

93
Q

Assume that the left ventricle of a childs heart has an EDV=90mL, and ESV=60mL, and a cardiac output of 2,400 ml/min. His SV is ___________ml/beat and his HR is ________

A

30; 80

94
Q

Electrical signals pass between cardiomyocytes through the

A

gap junctions

95
Q

Which is the correct sequence of events of the cardiac cycle

A

Ventricular filing—-> isvolumetric contraction—> ventricular ejection—>isovolumetric relaxation

96
Q

Which of the following belongs to the pulmonary circuit

A

Pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins

97
Q

What is a feature shared by cardiac muslce and skeletal muscle

A

muscle fiber striations

98
Q

The _______ is the pacemaker that initiates each heart beat.

A

Sinoatrial node

99
Q

After entering the right atrium, the furthest a red blood cell can travel is the ________

A

superior vena cava

100
Q

Oxygen poor blood passes through the

A

tricuspid and pulmonary arties

101
Q

Pericardial fluid is found between the _______ and the __________

A

parietal; visceral membranes

102
Q

The chordae tendinae of the AV valves are anchored to the _______ of the ventricles .

A

papillary muscles

103
Q

What blood vessels recieves blood directly from the right ventricule?

A

pulmonary trunk

104
Q

the heart is located in the space called the

A

mediatinum

105
Q

Which of the following is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart?

A

parietal pericardium

106
Q

Congestive heart failure of the right ventricle_______

A

can cause systemic edema

107
Q

Any abnormal cardiac rhythm is called_____

A

arrhythmia

108
Q

Cells of the sinoatrial node _______ during the peacemaker potential

A

depolarize slow

109
Q

The frank-sterling law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to _______

A

the end-diastolic volume

110
Q

The _________ carry blood toward the lungs

A

pulmonary trunk and artries

111
Q

During isovolumetric contraction,the pressure in the ventricles_________

A

rises rapidly

112
Q

Hypertension is commonly considered to be chronic resting blood pressure higher than

A

140/90

113
Q

Where is the greatest volume of blood found in the body

A

veins

114
Q

what is the most important force driving reabsorption at the venous end of capillary

A

blood colloid osmotic pressure

115
Q

What is true about TIAs

A

often early warning signs of an impending stroke

116
Q

During exercise, arterioles to the skeletal muscles

A

dilate in response to increased muscle metabolites

117
Q

which of the following is absent in humans

A

right and left brachiocephalic arteries

118
Q

How is venous return to your heart affected when you go for an easy jog

A

it is increased due to increased skeletal muscular pump activity

119
Q

Which of the following is a portal system

A

heart –> artery–> arteriole –> capillary bed –> arteriole –> capillary bed –> venule –> vein –> heart

120
Q

What is the most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary

A

blood hydrostatic pressure

121
Q

What does the medullary ischemic reflex result in

A

increased circulation to the brain

122
Q

What causes reactive hyperemia to increase tissue perfusion

A

local controls

123
Q

If someone falls and suffers a trauma what do you do

A

lie them down and elevate their legs

124
Q

a bee sting can trigger a massive release of histamine, which causes ______ and a(n) ________ in arterial blood pressure

A

vasodiliation; decrease

125
Q

What is the most important force in venous flow?

A

the pressure generated by the heart

126
Q

Pulmonary arteries have _________ blood pressure compared to systemic artries

A

considerably lower

127
Q

The lungs receive a systemic blood supply by way of which vessel(S)

A

Bronchial arteries

128
Q

What are powerful vasoconstrictors

A

Norepinephrine and angiotension II

129
Q

Which of the following does not contribute to venous return

A

widespread vasodilation

130
Q

A mean arterial pressure below 60 mmHg can casue what?

A

Syncope

131
Q

What contributes the principal venous drainage of the thoracic organs

A

the azygos system

132
Q

Myocardial infarction can lead to what type of shock

A

Cardiogenic

133
Q

Why does our blood pressure go up as we age

A

our arteries get “hard” and absorb less systolic force

134
Q

Which vessels have the thickest tunica media

A

large arteries

135
Q

Alternative route of blood supply is called..

A

anastomoses

136
Q

Where is the vasomotor center located

A

medulla oblongta

137
Q

Which vessel supplies 80% of the cerebrum

A

internal carotid artery

138
Q

What decreases blood pressure

A

Natriuretic peptides

139
Q

What would decrease the velocity of blood flow

A

increased viscosity

140
Q

What is taken up by the capillaries at their venous end

A

waste products

141
Q

What is associated with vasomotion

A

smooth muscle in the tunica media

142
Q

What type of shock occurs when bacterial toxins trigger vasodilation and increase capillary permeability

A

septic

143
Q

what activities would fatigue your hand muscles the fastest

A

squeezing a ball as hard as you can without stoppin

144
Q

What would decrease capillary filtration

A

dehydration

145
Q

What best describes the cerebral arterial circle (circle of willis)

A

an anastomosis surrounding the pituitary gland

A&P 2 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions