Exam 1 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Alexander Fleming

A
  • 1929
  • microbiologist studying bacteria
  • made an accidental discovery: left agar plates for a few days when on vacation. When he came back, he notices a greenish fungal contaminate on one (careless and untidy lab)
  • colonies were replaced with GHOST COLONIES
  • isolated the fungus, found it could kill bacteria; identified the fungus as PENICILLIUM (1st antibiotic)
  • then, in the 1940s, chemists isolated penicillin and there was a boom in antibiotics which led to closure of TB hospitals (problem: antibiotic resistance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Marinus Beijerinck

A

~1900

  • botany professor in Holland
  • formed the Enrichment culture technique –> microorganisms are isolated by using highly selective media and incubation conditions that favor a particular metabolic group of organisms
  • isolated pure cultures
  • Described the first virus and principles of virology (“mosaic disease” of tobacco) –> discovered it was not a bacterium bc it passes through a filter that retains bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Robert Koch

A
  • 1896
  • physician interested in studying diseases in animals. progressed to studying disease in humans
  • worked with ANTHRAX (disease affecting livestock)
  • decided to isolate the bacteria in the blood and grow in a pure culture, then transfer to a healthy animal –> proved that Bacillus anthracis is the cause of anthrax
  • problem with this was lack of technology to isolate cultures. Solution: Agar and a petri dish
  • identified cause of TB and cholera (using Koch’s methods, other researchers identified what bacteria caused diseases typhus, tetanus, and the plague)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Joseph Lister

A
  • 1865
  • came across writings of Semmelweis
  • started sterilizing knives using phenol(carbolic acid) as an antiseptic => drastically reduced infection rates
  • he was laughed at and he shrugged it off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Edward Jenner

A
  • late 1700s
  • worked with cowpox virus
    ~ cowmaids has a lower incidence of smallpox; he hypothesized that they were being exposed to cowpox
    ~ he tried injecting people with cowpox. discovered cowpox and smallpox not that similar = provided little immunity
  • didn’t keep good records => little impact
  • came up with term VACCINATION
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Louis Pasteur

A
  • 1860s
  • “Father of Microbiology”
  • invented swan-necked flask => drove the final stake through spontaneous generation (it was particles in the air leading to microbial growth)
  • made the germ hypothesis into the GERM THEORY
  • invented rabies vaccine & worked with chicken cholera
  • invented pasteurization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ignaz Semmelweis

A
  • 1840
  • in charge of hungarian hospital
  • women were dying from Puerperal fever (child bed fever)
    ~ deaths occurring more often with interns (would go straight from corpses to women giving birth)
    ~ began washing hands => reduced rates
  • idea was laughed at & he disappeared
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

John Snow

A
  • 1854
  • 1st Epidemiologist
  • cholera outbreaks (decided to prevent rather than treat)
  • map of cholera deaths & water pumps
  • took handle off contaminated pump => disease dwindled
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

A
  • 1680
  • invented 1st microscope
  • “wee animalcules”
    ~ published pictures
  • put into question the hypothesis of spontaneous generation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the controversy surrounding “spontaneous generation”. When and how was it disproved for microorganisms? What was the alternative hypothesis which later became a theory?

A

It was a common belief that life arose spontaneously from nonliving material (began with a man noticing flies on meat that was left out and thought the flies came from the meat). Pasteur was a powerful opponent to spontaneous generation. It was disproved in the 1860s by the swan-necked flask (Louis Pasteur); he was able to show that the growth was due to particles in the air. The alternative hypothesis was the germ hypothesis (disease comes from a “germ” which refers to any type of microorganism) that Pasteur made into the germ theory (growth and reproduction of microorganisms causes disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Koch’s postulates

A

Steps needed to demonstrate microbial cause of disease
1) ASSOCIATION - the microbe must be present in every case of the disease & absent when there is no disease
2) ISOLATION - the microbe must be isolated in pure culture
3) CAUSATION - innoculation of healthy animal with pure culture should cause disease
4) REISOLATION - you should be able to isolate the same microbe from the newly sick animal
~ Koch was able to identify 25-30 diseases using this method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

importance of pure culture techniques in microbiology

A

Pure culture: a population of identical cells (single species or strain of bacteria)
Pure culture techniques allow isolation of bacteria by use of solid media (agar) incubated in air in a petri dish; it is important because it allows the study of cultural, morphological, and physiological characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

two inventions by Koch’s lab that allowed development of pure culture techniques

A

1) petri dish (developed by Richard Petri, associate of Koch in 1887)
2) growth media (seaweed agar). employed liquid nutrient solutions solidified with gelatin, and later with agar

ways of staining bacteria to improve visibility under microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

disease and disease-causing organism that killed more than a quarter of the population of Europe between 1346-1350

A

Bubonic plague “black death” caused by bacteria Yersinia Pestis which is transmitted by a flea biting a rat and then biting a human.
Led to quarantine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

two examples of biological warfare used prior to the 1800s

A

1) Dead plague victims were catapulted over a wall as biological warfare when the Mongols attacked Caffa, Ukraine
2) European settlers gave Native Americans blankets contaminated with smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

three early attempts at immunization

A

1) Edward Jenner’s attempt to create a smallpox vaccination by injecting people with cowpox
2) Rabies vaccine by Louis Pasteur; he injected a kid who had been bitten with a weakened virus (weakened by heating it up) & he survived
3) 900 A.D. Chinese taking scabs from small pox victims, powder it, and use a straw to blow it into the nostrils of children
4) chicken cholera (Pasteur) - injected people with the old culture and nothing happened. When he injected them with the new culture, the ones who had been injected with the old culture didn’t get sick; the ones who hadn’t been injected with the old culture got sick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe the importance of immunization and role of herd immunity in preventing disease in population. What myth has resulted in low immunization rates and disease resurgence in the US?

A

Immunization protects from disease. Herd immunity is if you vaccinate enough of the population, everyone is protected. Herd immunity protects those who are unable to be vaccinated. The myth that began the anti-vaccination movement was that vaccinations cause autism (small study on 12 kids already showing signs of autism done by British doctor Andrew Wakefield in 1998).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

describe at least five behaviors or practices that have contributed to increased antibiotic resistance in microbes

A

1) over-prescription by physicians (antibiotics for viruses)
2) over the counter availability of antibiotics
3) not taking the entire treatment (leaves less sensitive strains)
4) inclusion of antibiotics in livestock feed (animals use 8x as much antibiotics => regulations)
5) too small of dose

19
Q

describe the three basic groups (domains) of organisms identified by rRNA sequence analysis and how these differ from the classical five kingdom classification system

A
  • 3 groups: bacteria, archaea (single celled), eukarya
  • Universal phylogenetic tree of life is based on gene sequences; the gene picked was for rRNA
    ~ ribosome has two subunits
    ~ prokaryotes have ribosomes 70s in size; two subunits are 50s and 30s (in the 30s, there is a 16s rRNA segment)
    ~ eukaryotes have ribosomes 80s in size; two subunits are 60s and 40s (in the 40s, there is a 18s rRNA)
  • the classical five kingdom (whittaker): prokaryotae (monera), protista, fungi, plantae, animalia. Based on cell type (prokaryote or eukaryote), number of cells (unicellular or multicellular), cell wall or not, produce food or not
20
Q

describe the characteristics that typically distinguish eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms. What are the definitive characteristics that separate the two groups?

A

Prokaryotes:

  • no membrane bound nuclei
  • cell wall
  • storage granules
  • simple organelles
  • lack of additional compartmentalization
  • vacuoles and cytoplasm pressed against plasma membrane

Eukaryotes:

  • cell membrane
  • plant/fungi: cell wall
  • double membrane bound nucleus
  • Endoplasmic reticulum (1) rough: proteins 2) smooth: lipids, polysaccharides)
  • golgi apparatus
  • mitochondria
  • lysosomes
  • mitochondria
  • plant: chloroplasts (thylakoid, granna, chlorophyll)
  • vacuole
  • microtubules
  • microfilaments
  • structure of chromosomal DNA
  • membrane bound organelles
21
Q

name the genus of one of the two ginormous prokaryotes discovered in the past few years

A
  • epulopiscium fisheloni (from gut of surgeonfish)

- Thiomargarita namibiensis (in marine sediments)

22
Q

describe the characteristics that typically distinguish eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms. What are the definitive characteristics that separate the two groups?

A

Prokaryotes:

  • no membrane bound nucleus
  • single circular dsDNA chromosome (haploid)
  • no wasted space
  • super coiled
  • 0.4 microns is as small as it can be
  • chromosome is 4x10^6 bp
  • lack of additional compartmentalization
  • vacuoles and cytoplasm pressed against plasma membrane

Eukaryotes:

  • double membrane bound nucleus
  • many linear strands of double stranded DNA (haploid, diploid, or polyploid)
  • DNA is packaged around histone proteins => nucleosomes (many nucleosomes form a chromosome)
  • lots of information (100 to 10,000x as much)
  • lots of wasted space - introns (non-coding region)
  • any cell division has to involve mitosis
  • mitochondria
  • chloroplasts
  • structure of chromosomal DNA
  • membrane bound organelles
23
Q

describe the chemical and physical structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic membranes

A

cytoplamic membranes:
- consist of phospholipid bilayer (glycerol backbone attached to a phosphate and fatty acids attached to hydroxyl groups on glycerol backbone)
~ hydrophobic tail pointing inward; hydrophilic head pointing outward
- transmembrane proteins
1) uniporters
2) symporters
3) antiporters
(changes in protein conformation facilitate transport)

24
Q

define “protein conformation”. Describe its importance and what factors influence it

A
  • protein conformation is the change in protein shape
  • changes in protein conformation facilitate transport; can occur by interaction with environment
  • chemical composition of protein gives it its function
  • influences:
    pH
    water matrix
    anions and cations
    effects folding and function
    chaperone proteins
25
Q

define the terms uniporter, symporter, and antiporter

A

1) uniporters - transport one molecule one direction
2) symporters - transport 2 molecules in the same direction
3) antiporters- transport 2 compounds in opposite directions

26
Q

describe the four general mechanisms by which compounds are transported into cells, which require the expenditure of energy, and identify which are more important in prokaryotes or eukaryotes

A

1) facilitated diffusion - limited form of diffusion; gating mechanism
- change in shape solely through interaction with ion –> no energy involved!!
- bidirectional
- cannot concentrate things against a concentration gradient – can only equalize concentration
- common in eukaryotes
2) group translocation - compound taken up is modified as it enters the cell
- phosphotransferase system (PTS)
- multi component system that involves enzymes in the plasma membrane and cytoplasm
- can no longer interact with protein –> cannot get back out again
- concentrate against a concentration gradient
- associated with only prokaryotes
- transmembrane protein unique for substrate
3) active transport (primary and secondary)
- common in eukaryotes
- expend energy to move against concentration gradient
- high affinity for substrate
- binds and hydrolyzes ATP for energy to change shape

passive transport? (water, oxygen, and simple alcohols can pass through cell membrane; common in eukaryotes?)

27
Q

describe two types of active transport

A

1) primary active transport - involves ABC transporters (ATP binding cassette)
- transmembrane protein, outside of cell in periplasmic space is solute binding protein (solute changes shape of solute binding protein so its compatible with outside edge of transmembrane protein), nucleotide-binding protein (binds and hydrolyzes ATP –> provides energy for another change in conformation –> intrusion of solute into cytoplasm)
- requires energy in form of ATP
2) secondary active transport - requires proton gradient
- protons pumped outside of cell
~ they can flow back in and cause something else to move out
~ can also use another ion (such as Na) to drive transport
- uses different moving ions across it’s favorable gradient to drive movement across a non-favorable gradient (oxidative phosphorylation)

28
Q

describe the cell wall morphologies of gram negative and gram positive bacteria

A

gram-positive:
- plasma membrane with thick layer of peptidoglycan
- no outer membrane
gram-negative:
- plasma membrane on inside; thin layer of peptidoglycan; outer membrane; periplasmic space; LPS layer

29
Q

describe the chemical structure of peptidoglycan, including the three differences between gram neg. and gram pos. bacteria regarding the chemical composition of the peptidoglycan layer

A
  • peptidoglycan => glycan strands connected by peptide bridge (connects one N-acetylmuramic acid to another N-acetlymuramic acid)
  • consists of alternating units N-acetylglucoseamine and N-acetylmuramic acid
  • D and L amino acids

gram neg.
- DAP (Diaminopimelic acid) –> two amino acid heads {signature compound}

gram pos.

  • teichoic acids {signature compound}
  • longer interbridge
30
Q

explain the functional difference between glycans that have alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkages and those that have beta 1,4 linkages

A

beta-1,4 bonds like together N-acetylglucoseamine in peptidoglycan, lipid A, chitin

31
Q

describe how the structure and function of the LPS layer differs from the plasma membrane

A
  • outer membrane of gram neg.
  • structure: Lipid A –> core polysaccharide (N-acetylglucoseamine) –> O-specific side chains
  • the whole outer membrane, not just the outer half
32
Q

discuss at least five of the pieces of evidence discussed in class indicating that mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from bacterial endosymbionts. Identify which of these are most convincing to you, and explain why.

A

1) circular
2) efficient
3) double membrane
4) 70s ribosomes
5) 16s rRNA subunits

Why??

33
Q

describe several common storage compounds found in prokaryotes and what they store

A
  • Poly-beta-hydroxybutyrate in Thiomargarita namibiensis (largest prokaryote) stores sulfur
  • volutin granules store phosphorous
  • organism that carry out carbon fixation store carboxysomes (crystalline forms of rubisco)
  • PHB stores carbon
  • starch/glycogen store carbon
34
Q

describe the role and structure of endospores. what physical and chemical characteristics make them so resistant and long-lived? name two genera of organisms that produce endospores

A

structure: EX (exposporiam), SC (spore coat - protein coat responsible for resistance; impermeable), CX (cortex, peptidoglycan layer), CW (core wall), cytoplasm
role: to preserve the vegetative cell; endospores are extremely long lived. they germinate in the absence of oxygen.

resistance to heat, chemicals, radiation due to:

  • dehydrated cytoplasm (endospore is 10-25% water while normal vegetative cells are 80-90% water) –> causes protein to change shape and become unfunctional
  • DNA binding proteins protect DNA and absorb the hit from radiation
  • Calcium dipicolinate is 25% of the weight. it is a DNA binding protein that absorbs water

two genera that produce endospores:

1) bacillus
2) chlostridium

35
Q

define “tyndallization” and “pasteurization”

A

tyndallization - double autoclaving (15-20 min)

  • incubate sample for 24 hours
  • after first autoclave, endospores germinate. then the 2nd autoclave is used to kill vegetative cells
  • autoclaving is 121 C, 15 PSI

pasteurization - heat up liquids at high temp for short period of time to kill off most organisms contaminating the solution

36
Q

describe how the composition of the cell wall differs among groups such as bacteria, archaea, plants, animals, diatoms, and fungi

A
  • plants - cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin, lignin (glue)
  • animals - none
  • fungi - chitin (long polymers of N-acetylglucoseamine)
  • diatoms - silica
  • archaea - pseudopeptidoglycan (different type of sugar)
37
Q

compare and contrast the structure and movement of prokaryotic and eukaryotic flagella. provide terms that describe the arrangement of flagella on the prokaryotic cell

A

eukaryotic flagella:

  • membranous sheath with protein tubules embedded
  • flexible

prokaryotic flagella:
- types:
~ monotrichous (polar flagellum at one end)
~ amphitrichous (both ends)
~ lophotrichous (tuft of flagella)
~ peritrichous (all around)
- not flexible; rigid corkscrew protein structure
- works by rotating; flow of protons past disc causes rotation
- lower M ring spins and causes shaft to rotate
- can spin in both directions:
~ CCW rotation => forward run
~ CW rotation => tumble

38
Q

define chemotaxis.
describe how bacteria behave as they move along a concentration gradient. describe the signal transduction that results in this movement.
describe the functions of Che A, B, W, Y, and Z, and whether the phosphorylated or non-phosphorylated forms are active.

A

chemotaxis: movement in response to a chemical repellent or attractant

duration of run extends when there are higher concentrations of attractant

signal transduction: biochemical decision making process
- sensory proteins on the cell (inside and outside) are called MCP (methyl accepting chemotaxis protein)
~lock and key mechanism; portion outside binds substrate

39
Q

define chemotaxis.
describe how bacteria behave as they move along a concentration gradient. describe the signal transduction that results in this movement.
describe the functions of Che A, B, W, Y, and Z, and whether the phosphorylated or non-phosphorylated forms are active.

A

chemotaxis: movement in response to a chemical repellent or attractant

duration of run extends when there are higher concentrations of attractant

signal transduction: biochemical decision making process
- sensory proteins on the cell (inside and outside) are called MCP (methyl accepting chemotaxis protein)
~lock and key mechanism; portion outside binds substrate

  • CheA (associated with inside of MCP) –> when substrate comes off, CheA catalyzes hydrolysis of ATP producing ADP and is phosphorylated
    ~ phosphorylates CheY which can then bind to flagellar switch and change direction to CW (tumble)
    ~ also phosphorylates CheB
  • CheZ dephosphorylates CheY
  • CheR slowly methylates MCP (to unbind substrate)
  • CheB-P rapidly demethylates MCP (bind substrate)

CheB and CheY are only active when phosphorylated

40
Q

Christian Gram

A
  • 1884
  • attempt to distinguish bacterial cells from human tissue during autopsies
  • gram stains:
    gram positive stain purple and gram negative stain pink/clear
  • Gram stain process: add crystal violet, KI (mordant that keeps stain in cell), alcohol (wash/decolorizer), safranin (counter stain)
41
Q

Sergei Winogradsky

A
  • 1887
  • Winogradsky column (model ecosystem used to study diverse bacteria)
  • worked with M. Beijerinck to develop lab techniques for isolating and growing environmentally important microbes aka environmental microbiology
  • first to demonstrate nitrogen fixation
  • showed that bacteria catalyze specific chemical transformations in nature and proposed chemolithotrophy (obtain carbon from CO2)
42
Q

explain why the field of microbiology has seen resurgence in interest during the past two decades

A
  • emerging disease
  • bioterrorism
  • gut microbiology
  • antibiotic resistance
43
Q

describe a specific example of group translocation

A

PEPPTS (phosphoenolpyruvate phosphotransferase system)
~ PEP has a high energy phosphate attached to it; transfers phosphate through intermediates (adapters) and onto transmembrane protein itself then sticks to glucose –> enters cell as glucose 6-phophate
~ modification requires energy! in the form of high energy phophate bond associated with PPE