Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Differentiate pollakiuria from polyuria

A

Pollakiruia= increased frequency

Polyuria= increased volume

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2
Q

3 ways PD can develop?

A

1) free water loss secondary to PU
2) reduced secretion of ADH
3) abnormal function of thirst center (brain)

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3
Q

3 ways PU can develop?

A

1) water diuresis
2) solute diuresis
3) abnormal renal concentrating gradient

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4
Q

Phase 1 of the modified water deprivation test serves to?

A

rule out/reduce medullary washout

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5
Q

Phase 3 of the modified water deprivation test serves to differentiate between which two disease?

A

Central diabetes insipidus and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

*exogenous ADH given (if urine concentrates= central)

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6
Q

Name 6 common causes of PU/PD in dogs

A
DM
HAC
renal dz
pyometra
hypercalemia
pyelonephritis
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7
Q

3 common causes of PU/PD in cats

A

renal dz
DM
hyperthyroidism

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8
Q

Which portion of the glomerulus is responsible for:

1) size selectivity
2) charge selectivity

A

1) glomerular basement membrane

2) podocytes

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9
Q

Hallmark finding of glomerular disease

A

Proteinuria

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10
Q

Which types of diseases can lead to buildup of IgA?

A

Gastrointestinal–excess IgA production

Hepatic–decreased IgA clearance

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11
Q

How do Shar-Pei differ with respect to amyloidosis

A

they get deposits in renal medulla instead of glomeruli

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12
Q

Most common form of amyloidosis & it’s pathogenesis?

A

Reactive

chronic inflammatory condition leads to release of serum amyloid A (SAA) which is main protein involved in making amyloid

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13
Q

3 phases of Shar-Pei Fever (familial amyloidosis)

A

pre-deposition
rapid deposition
plateau

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14
Q

Why can hypercoaguability develop with glomerular disease?

A

Can lose antithrombin through glomerulus (it’s smaller than albumin)

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15
Q

What 4 findings are characteristic for nephrotic syndrome?

A

Hypoalbuminemia
Hypercholesterolemia
Proteinuria
Edema

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16
Q

The urine protein/creatinine ratio (UPC) corrects for?

A

Urine specific gravity

17
Q

Two forms of pathologic renal proteinuria

A

glomerular

tubular

18
Q

T/F: kidney biopsy is a first line diagnostic tool for glomerular disease

A

FALSE–only biopsy if an underlying cause cannot be found

19
Q

When is the UPC abnormal in:

1) dogs
2) cats

A

1) when >0.5

2) when >0.4

20
Q

4 goals of glomerular disease treatment

A

1) reduce proteinuria
2) control hypercoagulability
3) normalize BP
4) reduce tubular inflammation

21
Q

Describe the use of ACE inhibitors in tx of glomerular disease

A

they prevent angiotensin-II mediated constriction of EFFERENT arteriol–reduces glomerular pressure

22
Q

Which treatment should not be implemented before a biopsy is performed?

A

long-term steroid therapy

23
Q

2 mechanisms by which nephrotoxins cause damage

A

1) renal ischemia

2) direct nephrotoxicity

24
Q

Which 2 prostaglandins are blocked by NSAIDs & are important renal vasodilators

A

PGE2 & PGI2

25
Q

Most animals present in which stage of EG toxicity?

A

Stage 3 (acute intrinsic renal failure)

26
Q

3 end products of EG metabolism?

A

Hippuric acid
Oxalate
CO2

27
Q

Name the top 3 most toxic metabolites of EG (from most to least toxic)

A

1) Glyoxylic acid
2) glycoaldehyde
3) glycolic acid

28
Q

What is the general therapy goal when treating an animal with 4-MP or ethanol for EG toxicity?

A

reduce the metabolism of EG to its toxic metabolites

29
Q

For which enzyme does ethanol compete to prevent EG metabolism?

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase

30
Q

Grape/raisin toxicity primarily effects which part of the nephron?

A

proximal tubules

31
Q

Primary electrolyte imbalance seen with grape/raisin toxicity?

A

Hypercalcemia