Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Formal leadership

A

Individuals occupy designated administrative or management positions (CEO, director of nursing, nurse managers)

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2
Q

Informal leadership

A

Individuals are perceived as such by their supervisors and peers because of their capabilities and actions (senior staff, etc)

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3
Q

Autocratic leadership

A

The leader makes all the decisions, they are mostly concerned with the tasks to be accomplished and keep distanced from followers; useful when a decision needs to be made quickly

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4
Q

Democratic leadership

A

Leaders involve employees in the decision-making process, they show concern for followers. Not appropriate for a new nurse

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5
Q

Laissez-faire leadership

A

The leader doesn’t interfere with the employees and their work. They provide minimal information and have a little communication with their followers. They usually wait until a crisis develops to make a decision. This is never appropriate and nursing

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6
Q

Transactional leadership

A

They focus on daily operations. They develop an exchange relationship with employees, regarding followers when they perform, and correcting them when necessary

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7
Q

Transformational leadership

A

Changes or transforms individuals, communicate an organization vision to the employees, and move them to accomplish more than expected

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8
Q

Shared leadership

A

Associated with work teams; distributed leadership broadly within a group, and lead one another to achieve a goal

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9
Q

What are the interrelated concepts of leadership?

A

Leadership development, management, communication, collaboration.

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10
Q

What are the attributes of leadership?

A

Followers, vision, communication, decision-making, change, and social power

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11
Q

What is coercive power?

A

Doing something in order to not get punished; to not conform means punishment

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12
Q

What is legitimate power?

A

Formal leaders have power over followers because of their position

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13
Q

What is referent power?

A

Followers identify or inspire to be like their leader

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14
Q

What is expert power?

A

Followers perceive leaders to know best

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15
Q

Informational power

A

Leader uses logic, rational argument, and information for change

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16
Q

Palliation

A

The relief or management of symptoms without providing a cure

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17
Q

What are the goals of palliative care?

A

Early prevention or treatment of symptoms; prevent or treat psychological, social, and spiritual problems related to the disease or it’s treatment; and assist patients to live more comfortably

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18
Q

Supportive care

A

Medical interventions to improve quality of life. Patient is not necessarily dying. It involves fluid replacement therapy, blood transfusions, psychological or spiritual needs of the patient or family. Focus is not on symptom management but focus on physical issues

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19
Q

Comfort care

A

Focus on relief of discomfort rather than curative or prolongation of life. Physical, social, and emotional needs are priority. High dose of pain medication may have the effect of hastening death. The patient is actively dying. It involves positioning, oral care, and skin care. Comfort management not symptom management

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20
Q

End of life care

A

The patient has days to weeks to live. Used synonymously with hospice care. It involves symptom management, and comfort care. No IV, foley catheter, and antibiotics.

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21
Q

Four goals to support persons with concurrent multiple chronic conditions

A

Provide better tools and information to healthcare and social service workers who deliver care to these individuals, maximize the use of proven self-care management and other services by these individuals, foster healthcare and public health system changes to improve the health of these individuals, and facilitate research to fill knowledge gaps about individuals with multiple chronic conditions

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22
Q

Good death

A

Free from avoidable stress and suffering for patients, families, and caregivers; consistent with clinical practice standards

23
Q

Bad death

A

Pain; not having one’s wishes followed at the end of life; isolation, abandonment.

24
Q

What are direct causes of death?

A

Heart failure, cardiac dysrhythmias, MI, cardiogenic shock, respiratory failure, PE, respiratory arrest, and shock

25
Q

Advance directives

A

A legal document stating the care they would like at end of life that would positively affect the dying experience for the patient and family

26
Q

Criteria for making advance directives

A

The patient must receive information ;evaluate, deliberate, and mentally manipulate information; and communicate a treatment preference

27
Q

Name the three different types of DNR orders

A

Slow code, chemical code only, and full code

28
Q

Interventions for coolness of extremities

A

Cover the person with a blanket, and do not use an electric blanket, hot water bottle, or heating pad

29
Q

Interventions for increased sleeping

A

Spend time sitting quietly with the person, do not force a person to stay awake, and talk to the person as you normally do even if they don’t respond

30
Q

Interventions for fluid and food decrease

A

Do not force food or drink, offer small sips of liquids or ice chips if alert enough to swallow, and perform oral care

31
Q

Interventions for incontinence

A

Keep perineal area clean and dry, use disposable underpads, chug, disposable undergarments, and consider a Foley

32
Q

Interventions for congestion and gurgling

A

Position the patient on his or her side, administer medications to decrease production of secretions, and suction for comfort

33
Q

Interventions for breathing pattern change

A

Elevate the person’s head, and position them on their side

34
Q

Interventions for disorientation

A

Identify yourself whenever you speak to the person, re-orient the person as needed; speak softly, clearly, and truthfully

35
Q

Interventions for restlessness

A

Play soothing music, aroma therapy, do not restrain, massage person’s forehead, reduce number of people in the room, talk quietly, keep room dimly lit, keep noise level to a minimum, and consider sedation if necessary

36
Q

Motivation

A

To stimulate toward an action; the energy and direction of an action

37
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

Acting a certain way because of feelings of enjoyment and competence rather than obligation or the potential for reward

38
Q

Extrinsic motivation

A

External motivation depends on receiving an award or independent outcome

39
Q

Amotivation

A

Patients do not place value in an activity; do not believe it will result in a desired outcome; can be a result of cognitive or emotional dysfunction

40
Q

Achievement motivation

A

Self-satisfaction obtained from achieving a goal

41
Q

Power motivation

A

People feel the need to be successful in competition and have the idea of winning or being number one

42
Q

Affiliative motivation

A

A non conscious concern for establishing, maintaining, and restoring close personal relationships with others

43
Q

Avoidance motivation

A

Anxiety and fear are powerful, distressing emotions that can motivate a person to behave in a certain manner

44
Q

Influential factors for intrinsic motivation

A

Age, cognitive level, educational level, emotional readiness, and fear of failure

45
Q

Influential factors for extrinsic motivation

A

Cultural values, family, accessibility of facilities, and readiness of the healthcare team

46
Q

What is the drive reduction theory of motivation, and who made it?

A

Clark hull’s theory states that motivation originated with a biological imbalance and that an internal drive or motivation would eliminate the deficiency within the person

47
Q

What is the humanistic theory of motivation and who wrote it?

A

Maslow’s theory states that a person must feel satisfied that essential physiological needs such as food, water, oxygen, and shelter must be met before the individual will feel compelled or motivated to strive for higher needs

48
Q

Psychology and it’s relationship to motivating behaviors

A

Lewin’s theory States that influences of an individual’s total situation must be taken into account

49
Q

What are the interrelated concepts of motivation?

A

Self efficacy, intentions, compliance and control

50
Q

What are premature ventricle contractions, and how do you treat it?

A

PVCs result from increased irritability of ventricle cells and seen as early ventricular contraction’s followed by a pause. Treatment is based on the cause: oxygen therapy for hypoxia; electrolyte replacement; drugs such as amiodarone.

51
Q

What is ventricular tachycardia, and how do you treat it?

A

Occurs with repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular at the topic focus, usually at a rate of 140 to 180 bpm. It can lead to cardiac arrest.
Stable (w/pulse and no s/s of decreased CO): oxygen and antidysrhythmic drugs.
Unstable (w/pulse and s/s of decreased CO): oxygen and antidysrhytmic drugs; cardioversion.
Pulseless: CPR and defibrillation

52
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation, and how do you treat it?

A

The heart doesn’t contract effectively, the ventricles quiver, no CO. If it is not treated within 3 to 5 minutes, death will result.
Treatment involves immediate CPR and defibrillation

53
Q

What is asystole and how do you treated?

A

The total absence of ventricular activity. Treatment includes CPR