Exam 1 Flashcards
Skeletal muscle is an _______ system.
ORGAN system
Muscle makes up about __% of total body weight.
50% (muscle)
Skeletal muscles are used for (5)
movement stability communication control of body openings and passages heat production
type of muscle that controls body opening and passages.
Sphincter
skeletal muscles produce as much as __% of our body heat.
85% of our body heat
protection, elimination of heat and contraction of skeletal muscles depends on the _________ system
Integumentary System
Muscles would be unable to contract without the _______ system.
Nervous System
Skeletal muscle connective tissue from inside - out. (3 layers)
Endomysium
Perimysium
Epimysium
Which metabolic phase(s) of exercise benefits the most from carb loading
Phase 3
Which metabolic phase(s) benefit most from blood doping
Phase 2 (mostly, but also help other two phases)
Anabolic refers to the stimulation of _______ _______ and thus induction of growth
Protein Synthesis
3 forms of the anabolic steroid drug.
Oil Based (injected) Water Based (pills) Patches/gels
Development of breast tissue from steroids.
Gynecomastia
Anabolic steroid works physiologically by: (2)
Increase secretion of growth hormone
Activate protein synthesis and prevent protein breakdown
Chemical composition of muscle (%’s)
75% water
20% protein
5% others
Each muscle is provided with a _____ nerve fiber and _____ nerve fiber
Motor
Sensory
Motor nerves transmit ______/______ ______ from the CNS to each individual muscle fiber.
Efferent/Motor Impulses
Motor neuron + group of muscle fibers =
Motor Unit
More motor units = more _______
Precision
The branch of anatomy that deals with the skeletal muscle system
Myology
Muscle fibers are grouped into bundles known as _________
Fasciculi
Muscle fibers and fasciculi are bound together by _________ _______
Connective Tissue
Muscle fibers are extremely ________ and ____________
Long
Multinucleate
Each muscle fiber contains dozens to hundreds of _________
Myofiliments
Term used to describe the type of muscle increase, which is due to an INCREASE in the SIZE of each individual fiber.
Hypertrophy
Term used to describe the type of muscle increase, which is due to an increase in the number of muscle fibers
Hyperplasia
Cytoplasm of a muscle fibers
Sarcoplasm
Type I Fibers (_____) are found in muscles where ______, ________ or __________ contraction are required.
Type I Fibers (DARK)
long, sustained or continuous (contraction)
______ __ fibers are associated with endurance activities.
Type I
Type I fibers are also associated with relatively higher levels of __________ _______ activity.
Continuous Metabolic (activity) (type I fibers/endurance)
Type II fibers (_____) are found in muscles that are used for _______, _______ activities.
Type II Fibers (LIGHT)
Quick, Powerful (activities)
______ __ fibers are associated with speed and strength and __________ metabolism.
Type II (fibers)
(speed and strength)
Anaerobic (metabolism)
_________ and _________ make muscles red
Sarcoplasm
Myoglobin
_____ __ fibers have fewer capillary beds.
Type II
fewer capillary beds
_____ __ fibers have more mitochondria.
Type I
more mitochondria
______ __ fibers: more glycogen/less fatty acids
______ __ fibers: more fatty acids/less glycogen
Type II fibers: more glycogen/less fatty acids
Type I fibers: more fatty acids/ less glycogen
Which fiber type atrophy with aging
Type II Fibers
speed/power
Which fiber type contain more oxygen.
Type I Fibers
endurance
Muscle fibers that contract faster than type I but slower than type II fibers.
Intermediate Fibers
Intermediate Fibers have a greater resistance to ________ but histologically resemble type __ fibers.
(resist) Fatigue
(resemble) Type II Fibers
Muscles of weight lifters and sprinters contain a higher proportion of _____ __ fibers.
Type II Fibers
Muscles of marathon runner contain higher proportions of ______ __ fibers.
Type I Fibers
Cell membrane of a muscle fiber.
Sarcolemma
Part of muscle fibers that store and transport calcium ions to the myofibrils.
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
Invagination of the sarcolemma which allow electrical impulses to enter the muscle fiber.
Transverse Tubules (T-System)
A red protein pigment which is found in the sarcoplasm of the fiber
Myoglobin
Myoglobin not only gives color to the muscle, but also stores the needed ________ that the fibers need to utilize for its metabolism.
Oxygen
Contractile apparatus of the muscle fiber
Myofibrils
Myofibrils are formed from longitudinally oriented bundles of ______ and ______ _________ known as __________
Thick and thin filaments
Myofilaments
Light areas of myofibrils
I-Bands
Dark areas of myofibrils
A-Bands
Light areas in the middle of each dark band
H-Bands
Thin dark line down the center of each H-band
M-Bands
Thin dark line in the middle of each I-band
Z-Lines
Each myofibril is composed of numerous units known as the __________
Sarcomere
The main protein of skeletal muscle
Contractile Protein
Contractile protein consists of ______ which is found mainly in the __-band, and ______ found mainly in the __-band.
Actin –> I-Bands
Myosin –> A-Bands
Two proteins that interact with one another to created movement - a contraction
Actin and Myosin
_________ _________ - Inhibits the interaction of actin and myosin and thus prevent __________ __________.
Regulatory Proteins (prevent) Indiscriminate Movement
The two most common regulatory proteins are….
Troponin
Tropomyosin
Both regulatory proteins recognize ________ as the signal to allow actin and myosin to interact with one another
Calcium
_______ eliminates the inhibition caused by regulatory proteins thus allowing contraction
Calcium
The nerve impulse from the _______ _______ stimulates the release of calcium from the __________ _________
(impulse from) Transverse Tubules
(release calcium from) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
The released calcium binds with the _________ molecules on the ______ ________
(calcium binds with) Troponin molecules
(on the) Actin Filaments
The binding of calcium with troponin changes the shape of the nearby __________ molecule (moving it aside) and exposing the ______ ________ ______ on the actin molecule
(changes shape of) Tropomyosin molecules
(exposing) Myosin Binding Site
ATP
Adenosine Triphosphate
_____ allows myosin to interact with actin
ATP
It requires (less/same/more) ATP to relax aa muscle as it does to cause contraction
Same (amount of ATP)
Energy is provided by the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate into…
Adenosine Diphosphate
The ________ pathway takes place in the mitochondria
Aerobic
Which pathway is the more efficient way to breakdown ATP
Aerobic
The aerobic pathway prefers _____ ______ to produce ATP
Fatty Acids
Fatty acids are stored in the body’s fat cells as __________ and released into the blood during exercise.
Triglycerides
Phase one of metabolic…
time frame and fuel sources
Few minutes
Creatine Phosphate & Glycogen (are fuel sources)
As much as __% of the total glycogen stored in the muscle may be utilized during phase one of metabolic
20%
Phase two of metabolic shifts to…
The more efficient aerobic metabolism
Phase three of metabolic…
Shifts back to the anaerobic production of ATP…
Uses the remaining stored glycogen
Which phase of metabolic does carb loading benefit the most?
Phase 3
Which phase of metabolic does caffeine benefit the most?
Phase 2
Risks associated with blood doping… (4)
Rashes and Fever
Acute Hemolysis (breakdown of RBCs)
Transmission of Viruses
Fluid Overload (lead to kidney failure and clotting)
Two alternative methods to increase RBC concentration…
Erythropoietin (EPO)
High Altitude Bed
(anabolic steroids)
Anabolic refers to…
_________ refers to the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
Anabolic - Stimulation of protein synthesis
Androgenic - Sexual characteristics
Stacking is the term used when the user takes…
Several forms of the drug
_________ is a procedure where the user starts with a low dosage, raises to a peak, and then tapers back down
Pyramiding
Anabolic steroids are usually taken in cycles of…
And can be as high as ______ what would be used for therapeutic reasons
6 to 8 weeks
500x
The _____ the motor unit, the _____ fibers, the more precision a muscle carries out
SMALLER motor unit
LESS fibers
(more precision)
The _____ the motor unit, the _____ fibers, the more broad (less precise) activity a muscle carries out
LARGER motor unit
MORE fiber
(more broad activity/less precision)
The motor unit originates in a ______ ______ in the ________ (anterior) horn of the _____ ______ of the spinal cord or brain stem.
Motor Neuron (in) Ventral (horn of) Gray Matter
Motor unit terminates at the _________ of the ______ ______ at the _____________ ________.
Sarcolemma (of the) Muscle Fiber (at the) Neuromuscular Junction
Nerve ending portion of the neuromuscular junction
Presynaptic Portion
Sarcolemma of muscle fiber of the neuromuscular junction
Postsynaptic Portion
Space between nerve ending and sarcolemma
Synaptic Cleft
____ is released when a nerve impulse reaches the presynaptic portion.
ACH - Acetylcholine
ACH binding with specific receptor sites on the sarcolemma sets off an ______ _____ down the _______ _______ which leads to an interaction between actin and myosin and a muscle contraction
Action Potential (down the) Transverse Tubules
When ACH has completed its task, it will be broken down by the enzyme…
Acetylcholinesterase (ACHe)
The most common neuromuscular junction disorder
Myasthenia Gravis
With an autoimmune disorder involving the neuromuscular junction, the body produces abnormal antibodies, which damage and destroy the _____ _______ _____ on the ________ of the muscle fibers
(destroy) ACH Receptor Sites (on the) Sarcolemma
Myasthenia Gravis almost always starts by affecting…
Cranial Nerves (muscles of the eyes and face)
Many patients with myasthenia gravis will suffer from hyperplasia of the _______ ______
Thymus Gland
Tumor to the thymus gland
Thymoma
Competes with ACH molecules in binding to ACH receptors.
Nicotine
Prevents ACH from binding to the ACH receptor sites (but does NOT compete)
Snake Venom
Inactivates ACHe resulting in an accumulation of ACH at the postsynaptic portion.
Organophosphates
Blocks the release of ACH
Botulin Toxin
Botulin toxin is the toxin that is released from the bacteria know as _________ ________
Clostridium Botulinum
Define contracture
Muscle is in a contractive state for a prolonged period or permanently
The clavicle has how many primary and secondary ossification centers
2 primary
1 secondary
The secondary ossification center of the clavicle occurs around ___ years of age near the _______ end and is of the _________ type of ossification. This process finishes around ___ years of age
17
Sternal
Endochondral
25
Fracture of the clavicle usually occurs near the ______ ______
First Curvature
Hereditary condition in which ossification is defective and the clavicle is missing or abnormally formed.
Cleidocranial Dysostosis
Scapula is found between the ___ and ___ rib and the ___ and ___ thoracic vertebrae
2nd - 7th rib
1st - 7th thoracic
The scapula articulates with acromial end of the clavicle to form the _____________ joint and with the head of the humorous to form the _________ joint
Acromioclavicular joint
Shoulder Joint
Scapula is formed form __ ossification centers - __ primary and __ secondary
7
1 primary
6 secondary
Scapula primary center develops in the body of the bone around the ___ week of development.
The 6 secondary centers develop right _____ _____ and complete between ___ and ___ years of age.
(primary) 8th week
(secondary) After Birth - 15-18 years of age
The CLINICAL arm is measured from the ________ _______ of the scapula to the distal end of the humerus
Acromion Process
Most commonly fractured part of the scapula.
With a scapula fracture, what must be carefully examined for injury?
Acromion Process
Underlying Chest Wall and Lungs
An undescended scapula brought about by attachment to cervical vertebrae, cartilage or fibrous attachment.
Sprengel’s Deformity
Failure of the acromion process to fuse with the rest of the scapula
Os Acromidae
Paired, cutaneous sweat glands which are found in both sexes, but are rudimentary and functionless in males
Mammary Glands
Primary functions of the mammary gland in females (2)
Nourishment for infant
Immune benefits for infant
Portion of mammary gland that projects into axillary region.
Opening in nipple.
Axillary tail
Lactiferous Duct
Portion of the mammary gland that projects into the axillary region
Axillary Tail
Two external parts of the mammary gland
Nipple
Areola
The nipple contains the opening to the __________ _____
Lactiferous Ducts
Just deep to the lactiferous ducts is a _________ ______ for each lobe of the gland (same goes for ducts)
Lactiferous Sinus
The areola contains numerous _________ _____ which enlarge during pregnancy and secrete an oily substance that provides __________ ________ for breast feeding
Sebaceous Glands
(provide) Protective Lubrication
Each mammary gland consists of ___ to ___ lobes
15 to 20 lobes
The piece of connective tissue that separates each lobe
Suspensory Ligament
Lobes are subdivided into _______ which consist of _______
Lobules
(consist of) Alveoli
The ______ are the secretory portion of the glands and are lined with secretory cells.
Alveoli
Mammary gland changes in females... Puberty - Menstrual Period - Pregnancy - Menopause -
Puberty - Increase rapidly
Menstrual Period - Enlarge slightly/Tenderness
Pregnancy - Enlarged/Functional; return to normal size after lactation
Menopause - Atrophy
Mammary Gland Hormones…
Estrogen - secreted by the _______ and _______, and promotes the growth of the ______ _______
Progesterone - secreted by the _______ and _______, and promotes growth of the ___________ _______
Estrogen - secreted by OVARIES and PLACENTA, and promotes growth of DUCT SYSTEM
Progesterone - Secreted by OVARIES and PLACENTA, and promotes growth of SECRETORY CELLS
Prolactin is secreted by the _________ ________ and promotes ______ ______
Oxytocin is secreted by the _________ _______ and promotes the release of _____
Prolactin - ANTERIOR PITUITARY - MILK PRODUCTION
Oxytocin - POSTERIOR PITUITARY - (release of) MILK
The forst secretion from the functional mammary gland
Colostrum
Colostrum is especially rich in ______________ and __________ to impact immune function
Immunoglobulins
Lactoferrin
Besides immune function, colostrum also contains growth factors that affect the infant’s ____ ______
G.I. Tract
Transitional milk is present about day __ to day __
day 6 to day 15
Transitional milk has lower immunoglobulin level compared to colostrum, but higher amounts of ________ and _____
Lactose
Fat
Mature Milk is present from about day __ to ________
day 15 to WEANING
Components and percentages of mature milk…
Water - 88%
Lactose - 7%
Fat - 4%
Protein - 1%
Mammary glands have extensive _______ and ________ supply
Blood
Lymphatic
The lymphatic drainage supply to the mammary gland is important because of its role in the __________ of ________ cells
Metastasis of Cancer cells
A recently inverted nipple may be caused by an underlying _________ pulling on the _________ ______
Carcinoma
Lactiferous Duct
Extra nipples
Supernumerary Nipples
Breast cancer tumors are of the ___________ variety and usually arise from ________ cells of the lactiferous duct
Adenocarcinoma
Epithelial
Two factors which are thought to increase risk of breast cancer
Family History (of breast cancer) Never had a child or had child after 35
Internal mammary gland subdivisions from smaller to largest.
Alveoli
Lobules
Lobes
Nipple Discharge
Galactorrhea
Galactorrhea -
Breast secretion NOT related to pregnancy
Largest and longest bone on the upper extremity
Humerus
Ossification centers of humerus:
__ primary
__ secondary
1 primary
7 secondary
Ossification centers of humerus:
Primary ossification center is for…
Secondary ossification centers is for…
Primary - SHAFT
Secondary - Everything else
Nerve that circles the neck of the humerus and can be damaged if neck is fractured.
Axillary Nerve
Fracturing the shaft of the humerus may damage the _______ nerve
Radial
Fractures at the distal end of the humerus may damage the ______ and ______ nerve and the ________ blood vessels.
Median Nerve
Ulnar Nerve
Brachial blood vessels
Origins of pectoralis major
Clavicle
Sternum/upper ribs
External Oblique
Insertion of pectoralis major
Intertubercular Groove
Pectoralis minor origin
Ribs 3-5
Pectoralis minor insertion
Coracoid Process/Scapula
Secondary ossification centers of the Humerus (7)
Head Greater Tuberosity Lesser Tuberosity Medial Epicondyle Lateral Epicondyle Capitulum Trochlea
Two actions of the pectoralis minor:
Protraction/Abduction of Scapula
Elevates Rib Cage (forced respiration)
Unilateral condition in which both the pectoralis major and minor muscles are missing
Poland Syndrome
Three other symptoms of Poland Syndrome besides absence of pectoralis muscles
Atrophy of Mammary Gland
Absence of Several Ribs
Smaller/Webbed Hand (on affected side)
Term for webbing between digits.
Syndactylism
Muscle between clavicle and first rib
Subclavius
Origin of subclavius
First Rib
Insertion of subclavius
Clavicle/Subclavian Groove
Two functions of subclavius
Stabilize Sternoclavicular Joint
Cushion for underlying blood vessels if clavicle is fractured
Space between arm and chest wall
Axilla
The nerves that are about to enter the upper extremity, come together to for a nerve plexus called the ________ _______.
Brachial Plexus
5 spinal nerves that form the brachial plexus
C5-C8 and T1
(Brachial Plexus)
The upper trunk is formed by which spinal nerve(s)
C5 and C6
(Brachial Plexus)
The middle trunk is formed by which spinal nerve(s)
C7
(Brachial Plexus)
The lower trunk is formed by which spinal nerve(s)
C8 and T1
What forms them medial wall of the axilla? (2 parts)
Serrates Anterior
Upper Ribs
What forms the anterior wall of the axilla?
Pectoralis Major
What forms the posterior wall of the axilla? (2)
Latissimus Dorsi
Teres Major
3 bones that form the apex of the axilla
Clavicle
Scapula
First Rib
The base of the axilla is made of (2)
Skin
Fascia
Deep fascia that encloses the brachial plexus and the blood vessels
Axillary Sheath
Nerves of pectorals major and their spinal origin
Medial Pectoral (C8-T1) Lateral Pectoral (C5-C7)
Nerve and spinal origin of pectorals minor
Medial Pectoral (C8-T1)
Nerve of sublcavius and its spinal nerve origin
Nerve to the subclavius (C5-C6)
(Nerves of the Brachial Plexus)
Directly from the spinal nerves
Dorsal Scapular
Long Thoracic
(Nerves of the Brachial Plexus)
From Upper Trunk
Suprascapular
Nerve to the Subclavius
(Nerves of the Brachial Plexus)
From Lateral Chord
Lateral Pectoral
Musculotaneous
Part of the Median
(Nerves of the Brachial Plexus)
From Medial chord
Medial Pectoral Medial Brachial Cutaneous Medial Antebrachial Cutaneous Ulnar Part of the Median
(Nerves of the Brachial Plexus)
From Posterior Chord
Upper Subscapular Lower Subscapular Thoracodorsal Axillary Radial
Difference between myoglobin and hemoglobin.
Myoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin
Smallest part of muscle which can contract independently.
Motor Unit
_________ muscle fibers have both efferent and afferent nerve fibers.
_________ muscle fibers have only efferent nerve fibers.
INTRAFUSAL muscle fibers - efferent/afferent
EXTRAFUSAL muscle fibers - efferent
_________ muscle fibers are found in muscle spindles
INTRAFUSAL muscle fibers
The innervation of a tendon is strictly ________
Afferent (sensory)
A retinaculum is a thickened band of ______ ______ which is found at joints and functions to bind down _______ and _______ that cross the joint
Deep Fascia (bind down) Tendond and Nerves
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis is pathology of the…
Central Nervous System
Guillain-Barre Syndrome is pathology of the…
Peripheral Nervous System
Muscular Dystrophy is pathology of the individual…
Muscle Fibers
Injury to the lower roots of the brachial plexus
Klumpke’s Palsy
The most common cause of Klumpke’s Palsy
Forceful abduction of the humerus at the shoulder joint
Nerves which may be involved with injury to the lower roots of the brachial plexus (Klumpke’s Palsy)
Ulnar Median Radial Medial Pectoral Medial Brachial Cutaneous Medial Antebrachial Cutaneous Thoracodorsal
Nerves which come off of the spinal nerve roots and upper trunk
Suprascapular Portions of Brachial Plexus
Nerves which come off of the cords
Infraclavicular Portion of the Brachial Plexus
Nerve that descends down the back, deep to the rhomboid and levator scapula…
(segmental innervation is ___)
Dorsal Scapular Nerve
C5
Dorsal scapular nerve is the motor supply to the… (3)
Rhomboid Major
Rhomboid Minor
Levator Scapula
Dorsal scapular nerve is articular supply to the _____________ joint
Acromioclavicular joint
Nerve descends posteriorly from the spinal nerves that form the plexus to the anterior lateral aspect of the thoracic cage.
Long Thoracic Nerve
Segmental innervation of the long thoracic nerve
C5
C6
C7
Long thoracic nerve is the motor supply for…
Serrates Anterior
Nerve that passes laterally across the cervical region (deep to the trapezius) and deep to the muscles associated with the posterior aspect of the scapula.
Suprascapular Nerve
The suprascapular nerve’s segmental innervation is…
C5 and C6
Suprascapular is the motor supply to the… (2)
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Suprascapular is the articular supply to the ________ joint and ____________ joint
SHOULDER joint
ACROMIOCLAVICULAR joint
Nerve that descends posteriorly to the clavicle.
Nerve to the subclavius
Nerve to the subclavius is often given a branch to the _______ nerve, which is known as the…
Phrenic nerve
Accessory Phrenic Nerve
Segmental innervation of the nerve to the subclavius
C5
C6
The nerve to the subclavius is the motor supply to the… (2)
And articular supply to the _________ joint
Subclavius
Diaphragm
Sternoclavicular joint
First nerve off of the lateral cord
Lateral Pectoral Nerve
Segmental innervation of lateral pectoral nerve…
Motor supply to…
C5, C6 and C7
Pectoralis Major
The musculocutaneous nerve passes through the belly of the __________ muscle as it leaves the axilla, and then runs between the…(2)
(belly of) Coracobrachialis muscle
(between) Biceps Brachii and Brachialis muscles
The musculocutaneous nerve continues into the forearm as the ________ __________ ________ nerve
Lateral Antebrachial Cutaneous Nerve
Segmental innervation of the musculocutaneous nerve… (3)
Motor supply to the… (3)
Articular supply to the _______ joint
C5, C6 and C7
Coracobrachialis, Biceps Brachii and Brachialis
Elbow joint
First nerve to come off of the medial cord
Medial Pectoral Nerve
Segmental innervation of the medial pectoral nerve… (2)
Motor supply to the…
C8 and T1
Medial Aspect of the Arm
_______ _______ ________ Nerve:
Segmental innervation is T1
Cutaneous supply to the medial aspect of the arm
Medial Brachial Cutaneous Nerve
Nerve that descends between the axillary artery and vein down the medial aspect of the arm
Ulnar Nerve
Ulnar Nerve:
Segmental innervation is… (2)
Cutaneous supply to the…
C8 and T1
1/4 medial aspect of the palm and dorsum of the hand; skin of digits 5 and part of digit 4
The ulnar nerve give motor supply to the ______ ______ ______ and half of the _______ ________ _______.
Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
Flexor Digitorum Profundus
muscles of the fifth digit
Hypothenar Muscles
Only branch of the brachial plexus which is formed from more than one cord…
(which cords)
Median Nerve
Lateral and Medial cords
Median nerve:
Segmental innervation… (4)
Articulation supply to the… (2)
Cutaneous supply to the…
C6, C7, C8, T1
Elbow and Wrist Joint
Lateral 3/4 of palm/skin of 3-1/2 digits
Upper Subscapular Nerve:
Segmental innervation… (1)
Motor supply to the (1)
C5
Subscapularis
Lower Subscapularis Nerve:
Segmental Innervation… (1)
Motor supply to the… (2)
C6
Subscapularis and Teres Major
Nerve that runs down the lateral aspect of the thoracic cage, just lateral to the long thoracic nerve.
Thoracodorsal Nerve
Thoracodorsal Nerve:
Segmental innervation… (3)
Motor supply to the… (1)
C6, C7, C8
Latissimus Dorsi
The smallest and most lateral of the terminal branches of the posterior cord.
Axillary Nerve
Axillary Nerve: Segmental innervation... (2) Motor supply to the... (2) Articular supply to the... (2) Cutaneous supply to the...
C5 and C6
Deltoid and Teres Minor
Shoulder Joint and Acromioclavicular Joint
Lateral aspect of the arm
The larger and more medial of the terminal branches of the posterior cord
Radial Nerve
When the radial nerve enters the _______, it divides into superficial and deep branches
Forearm
Radial Nerve:
Segmental Innervation… (5)
Motor supply to the… (3)
C5, C6, C7, C8, T1
Triceps Brachii, Anconeus, and all posterior forearm muscles
The area of skin supplied by the sensory root of a single spinal nerve is know as a….
Dermatome
Dermatomes of the Upper Extremity:
C4 -
C5 -
C6 -
C4 - Skin over the tip of the shoulder (acromion process)
C5 - Lateral (radial) side of arm
C6 - Lateral (radial) side of forearm; digits 1 and 2
Dermatomes of the Upper Extremity: C7 - C8 - T1 - T2 -
C7 - Skin of palm; digits 2, 3 and 4
C8 - Medial (ulnar) side of forearm; digit 5
T1 - Medial (ulnar) side of arm
T2 - Skin of the axilla
Prefixed brachial plexus
C4 to C8
Postfixed brachial plexus
C6 to T2
Paralysis:
Complete loss of muscular movement
Paresis:
Movement can be performed, but is weak
Anesthesia:
Partial or complete loss of sensation without loss of conciousness
Paresthesia:
Loss of cutaneous sensation
Injury to the upper roots (spinal nerves) of the brachial plexus
Erb-Duchenne Palsy
most common injury of the plexus
With Erb-Duchenne Palsy, ___ and/or ___ are damaged or compromised.
C5 and/or C6
Three types of injuries that cause Erb-Duchenne Palsy
Birth (stretching of neck)
Fall or Blow to Shoulder (shoulder hits something and continues to move)
Heavy Weight Falling on Shoulder (produces a traction injury)
Longer than normal transverse process of a cervical vertebrae
Cervical Rib
Compression of the cords of the brachial plexus may result from prolonged __________ of the _____ during certain manual tasks such as painting
HYPERABDUCTION of the ARM
A condition where there is both compression of the cords of the brachial plexus and the axillary artery (TOS)
Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
Direct continuation of the subclavian artery
Axillary Artery
The axillary artery will become the brachial artery about an inch or so below the…
Surgical Neck of the Humerus
6 branches of the axillary artery
Superior Thoracic Thoracoacromial Lateral Thoracic Subscapular Anterior Humeral Circumflex Posterior Humeral Circumflex
First branch off of the axillary artery
Superior Thoracic
The Superior Thoracic branch of the axillary artery supplies the… (4)
Pectorals Major
Pectoralis Minor
Subclavius Muscle
Wall of the Thorax
Four branches of the Thoracoacromial branch of the axillary artery
Acromial
Pectoral
Clavicular
Deltoid
Branch of the axillary artery that appears along the lateral border of the pectoralis minor
Lateral Thoracic
The Lateral Thoracic branch of the axillary artery supplies the… (5)
Serrates Anterior Pectorals Major Pectoralis Minor Mammary Glands Intercostal Muscles
The largest branch of the axillary artery
Subscapular
The thoracodorsal branch of the subscapular branch of the axillary artery supplies the… (2)
Latissimus Dorsi
Subscapularis Muscles
The Circumflex Scapular branch of the subscapular branch of the axillary artery supplies the (6)
Supraspinatus Infraspinatus Trees Major Teres Minor Triceps Brachii Deltoid (part of)
Form a ring around the surgical neck of the humerus (axillary artery branches)
Anterior and Posterior Humeral Circumflex
The anterior and posterior humeral circumflex supply the… (4)
Deltoid Muscle
Teres Muscles
Shoulder Joint
Proximal part of Humerus
Lymph fluid and ________ fluid are essentially the same, the major difference being ________
Once interstitial fluid passes into the _______ _______, it becomes lymph fluid.
Interstitial Fluid
Location
Lymph Vessels
