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Gross Anatomy > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Skeletal muscle is an _______ system.

A

ORGAN system

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2
Q

Muscle makes up about __% of total body weight.

A

50% (muscle)

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3
Q

Skeletal muscles are used for (5)

A 
movement
stability
communication
control of body openings and passages
heat production
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4
Q

type of muscle that controls body opening and passages.

A

Sphincter

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5
Q

skeletal muscles produce as much as __% of our body heat.

A

85% of our body heat

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6
Q

protection, elimination of heat and contraction of skeletal muscles depends on the _________ system

A

Integumentary System

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7
Q

Muscles would be unable to contract without the _______ system.

A

Nervous System

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8
Q

Skeletal muscle connective tissue from inside - out. (3 layers)

A

Endomysium
Perimysium
Epimysium

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9
Q

Which metabolic phase(s) of exercise benefits the most from carb loading

A

Phase 3

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10
Q

Which metabolic phase(s) benefit most from blood doping

A

Phase 2 (mostly, but also help other two phases)

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11
Q

Anabolic refers to the stimulation of _______ _______ and thus induction of growth

A

Protein Synthesis

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12
Q

3 forms of the anabolic steroid drug.

A 
Oil Based (injected)
Water Based (pills)
Patches/gels
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13
Q

Development of breast tissue from steroids.

A

Gynecomastia

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14
Q

Anabolic steroid works physiologically by: (2)

A

Increase secretion of growth hormone

Activate protein synthesis and prevent protein breakdown

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15
Q

Chemical composition of muscle (%’s)

A

75% water
20% protein
5% others

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16
Q

Each muscle is provided with a _____ nerve fiber and _____ nerve fiber

A

Motor

Sensory

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17
Q

Motor nerves transmit ______/______ ______ from the CNS to each individual muscle fiber.

A

Efferent/Motor Impulses

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18
Q

Motor neuron + group of muscle fibers =

A

Motor Unit

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19
Q

More motor units = more _______

A

Precision

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20
Q

The branch of anatomy that deals with the skeletal muscle system

A

Myology

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21
Q

Muscle fibers are grouped into bundles known as _________

A

Fasciculi

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22
Q

Muscle fibers and fasciculi are bound together by _________ _______

A

Connective Tissue

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23
Q

Muscle fibers are extremely ________ and ____________

A

Long

Multinucleate

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24
Q

Each muscle fiber contains dozens to hundreds of _________

A

Myofiliments

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25
Q

Term used to describe the type of muscle increase, which is due to an INCREASE in the SIZE of each individual fiber.

A

Hypertrophy

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26
Q

Term used to describe the type of muscle increase, which is due to an increase in the number of muscle fibers

A

Hyperplasia

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27
Q

Cytoplasm of a muscle fibers

A

Sarcoplasm

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28
Q

Type I Fibers (_____) are found in muscles where ______, ________ or __________ contraction are required.

A

Type I Fibers (DARK)

long, sustained or continuous (contraction)

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29
Q

______ __ fibers are associated with endurance activities.

A

Type I

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30
Q

Type I fibers are also associated with relatively higher levels of __________ _______ activity.

A 
Continuous Metabolic (activity)
(type I fibers/endurance)
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31
Q

Type II fibers (_____) are found in muscles that are used for _______, _______ activities.

A

Type II Fibers (LIGHT)

Quick, Powerful (activities)

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32
Q

______ __ fibers are associated with speed and strength and __________ metabolism.

A

Type II (fibers)
(speed and strength)
Anaerobic (metabolism)

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33
Q

_________ and _________ make muscles red

A

Sarcoplasm

Myoglobin

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34
Q

_____ __ fibers have fewer capillary beds.

A

Type II

fewer capillary beds

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35
Q

_____ __ fibers have more mitochondria.

A

Type I

more mitochondria

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36
Q

______ __ fibers: more glycogen/less fatty acids

______ __ fibers: more fatty acids/less glycogen

A

Type II fibers: more glycogen/less fatty acids

Type I fibers: more fatty acids/ less glycogen

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37
Q

Which fiber type atrophy with aging

A

Type II Fibers

speed/power

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38
Q

Which fiber type contain more oxygen.

A

Type I Fibers

endurance

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39
Q

Muscle fibers that contract faster than type I but slower than type II fibers.

A

Intermediate Fibers

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40
Q

Intermediate Fibers have a greater resistance to ________ but histologically resemble type __ fibers.

A

(resist) Fatigue

(resemble) Type II Fibers

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41
Q

Muscles of weight lifters and sprinters contain a higher proportion of _____ __ fibers.

A

Type II Fibers

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42
Q

Muscles of marathon runner contain higher proportions of ______ __ fibers.

A

Type I Fibers

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43
Q

Cell membrane of a muscle fiber.

A

Sarcolemma

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44
Q

Part of muscle fibers that store and transport calcium ions to the myofibrils.

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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45
Q

Invagination of the sarcolemma which allow electrical impulses to enter the muscle fiber.

A

Transverse Tubules (T-System)

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46
Q

A red protein pigment which is found in the sarcoplasm of the fiber

A

Myoglobin

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47
Q

Myoglobin not only gives color to the muscle, but also stores the needed ________ that the fibers need to utilize for its metabolism.

A

Oxygen

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48
Q

Contractile apparatus of the muscle fiber

A

Myofibrils

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49
Q

Myofibrils are formed from longitudinally oriented bundles of ______ and ______ _________ known as __________

A

Thick and thin filaments

Myofilaments

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50
Q

Light areas of myofibrils

A

I-Bands

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51
Q

Dark areas of myofibrils

A

A-Bands

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52
Q

Light areas in the middle of each dark band

A

H-Bands

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53
Q

Thin dark line down the center of each H-band

A

M-Bands

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54
Q

Thin dark line in the middle of each I-band

A

Z-Lines

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55
Q

Each myofibril is composed of numerous units known as the __________

A

Sarcomere

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56
Q

The main protein of skeletal muscle

A

Contractile Protein

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57
Q

Contractile protein consists of ______ which is found mainly in the __-band, and ______ found mainly in the __-band.

A

Actin –> I-Bands

Myosin –> A-Bands

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58
Q

Two proteins that interact with one another to created movement - a contraction

A

Actin and Myosin

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59
Q

_________ _________ - Inhibits the interaction of actin and myosin and thus prevent __________ __________.

A 
Regulatory Proteins (prevent)
Indiscriminate Movement
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60
Q

The two most common regulatory proteins are….

A

Troponin

Tropomyosin

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61
Q

Both regulatory proteins recognize ________ as the signal to allow actin and myosin to interact with one another

A

Calcium

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62
Q

_______ eliminates the inhibition caused by regulatory proteins thus allowing contraction

A

Calcium

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63
Q

The nerve impulse from the _______ _______ stimulates the release of calcium from the __________ _________

A

(impulse from) Transverse Tubules

(release calcium from) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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64
Q

The released calcium binds with the _________ molecules on the ______ ________

A

(calcium binds with) Troponin molecules

(on the) Actin Filaments

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65
Q

The binding of calcium with troponin changes the shape of the nearby __________ molecule (moving it aside) and exposing the ______ ________ ______ on the actin molecule

A

(changes shape of) Tropomyosin molecules

(exposing) Myosin Binding Site

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66
Q

ATP

A

Adenosine Triphosphate

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67
Q

_____ allows myosin to interact with actin

A

ATP

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68
Q

It requires (less/same/more) ATP to relax aa muscle as it does to cause contraction

A

Same (amount of ATP)

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69
Q

Energy is provided by the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate into…

A

Adenosine Diphosphate

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70
Q

The ________ pathway takes place in the mitochondria

A

Aerobic

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71
Q

Which pathway is the more efficient way to breakdown ATP

A

Aerobic

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72
Q

The aerobic pathway prefers _____ ______ to produce ATP

A

Fatty Acids

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73
Q

Fatty acids are stored in the body’s fat cells as __________ and released into the blood during exercise.

A

Triglycerides

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74
Q

Phase one of metabolic…

time frame and fuel sources

A

Few minutes

Creatine Phosphate & Glycogen (are fuel sources)

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75
Q

As much as __% of the total glycogen stored in the muscle may be utilized during phase one of metabolic

A

20%

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76
Q

Phase two of metabolic shifts to…

A

The more efficient aerobic metabolism

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77
Q

Phase three of metabolic…

A

Shifts back to the anaerobic production of ATP…

Uses the remaining stored glycogen

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78
Q

Which phase of metabolic does carb loading benefit the most?

A

Phase 3

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79
Q

Which phase of metabolic does caffeine benefit the most?

A

Phase 2

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80
Q

Risks associated with blood doping… (4)

A

Rashes and Fever
Acute Hemolysis (breakdown of RBCs)
Transmission of Viruses
Fluid Overload (lead to kidney failure and clotting)

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81
Q

Two alternative methods to increase RBC concentration…

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

High Altitude Bed

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82
Q

(anabolic steroids)
Anabolic refers to…
_________ refers to the development of secondary sexual characteristics.

A

Anabolic - Stimulation of protein synthesis

Androgenic - Sexual characteristics

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83
Q

Stacking is the term used when the user takes…

A

Several forms of the drug

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84
Q

_________ is a procedure where the user starts with a low dosage, raises to a peak, and then tapers back down

A

Pyramiding

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85
Q

Anabolic steroids are usually taken in cycles of…

And can be as high as ______ what would be used for therapeutic reasons

A

6 to 8 weeks

500x

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86
Q

The _____ the motor unit, the _____ fibers, the more precision a muscle carries out

A

SMALLER motor unit
LESS fibers
(more precision)

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87
Q

The _____ the motor unit, the _____ fibers, the more broad (less precise) activity a muscle carries out

A

LARGER motor unit
MORE fiber
(more broad activity/less precision)

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88
Q

The motor unit originates in a ______ ______ in the ________ (anterior) horn of the _____ ______ of the spinal cord or brain stem.

A

Motor Neuron (in) Ventral (horn of) Gray Matter

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89
Q

Motor unit terminates at the _________ of the ______ ______ at the _____________ ________.

A

Sarcolemma (of the) Muscle Fiber (at the) Neuromuscular Junction

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90
Q

Nerve ending portion of the neuromuscular junction

A

Presynaptic Portion

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91
Q

Sarcolemma of muscle fiber of the neuromuscular junction

A

Postsynaptic Portion

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92
Q

Space between nerve ending and sarcolemma

A

Synaptic Cleft

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93
Q

____ is released when a nerve impulse reaches the presynaptic portion.

A

ACH - Acetylcholine

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94
Q

ACH binding with specific receptor sites on the sarcolemma sets off an ______ _____ down the _______ _______ which leads to an interaction between actin and myosin and a muscle contraction

A

Action Potential (down the) Transverse Tubules

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95
Q

When ACH has completed its task, it will be broken down by the enzyme…

A

Acetylcholinesterase (ACHe)

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96
Q

The most common neuromuscular junction disorder

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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97
Q

With an autoimmune disorder involving the neuromuscular junction, the body produces abnormal antibodies, which damage and destroy the _____ _______ _____ on the ________ of the muscle fibers

A

(destroy) ACH Receptor Sites (on the) Sarcolemma

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98
Q

Myasthenia Gravis almost always starts by affecting…

A

Cranial Nerves (muscles of the eyes and face)

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99
Q

Many patients with myasthenia gravis will suffer from hyperplasia of the _______ ______

A

Thymus Gland

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100
Q

Tumor to the thymus gland

A

Thymoma

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101
Q

Competes with ACH molecules in binding to ACH receptors.

A

Nicotine

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102
Q

Prevents ACH from binding to the ACH receptor sites (but does NOT compete)

A

Snake Venom

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103
Q

Inactivates ACHe resulting in an accumulation of ACH at the postsynaptic portion.

A

Organophosphates

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104
Q

Blocks the release of ACH

A

Botulin Toxin

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105
Q

Botulin toxin is the toxin that is released from the bacteria know as _________ ________

A

Clostridium Botulinum

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106
Q

Define contracture

A

Muscle is in a contractive state for a prolonged period or permanently

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107
Q

The clavicle has how many primary and secondary ossification centers

A

2 primary

1 secondary

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108
Q

The secondary ossification center of the clavicle occurs around ___ years of age near the _______ end and is of the _________ type of ossification. This process finishes around ___ years of age

A

17
Sternal
Endochondral
25

109
Q

Fracture of the clavicle usually occurs near the ______ ______

A

First Curvature

110
Q

Hereditary condition in which ossification is defective and the clavicle is missing or abnormally formed.

A

Cleidocranial Dysostosis

111
Q

Scapula is found between the ___ and ___ rib and the ___ and ___ thoracic vertebrae

A

2nd - 7th rib

1st - 7th thoracic

112
Q

The scapula articulates with acromial end of the clavicle to form the _____________ joint and with the head of the humorous to form the _________ joint

A

Acromioclavicular joint

Shoulder Joint

113
Q

Scapula is formed form __ ossification centers - __ primary and __ secondary

A

7
1 primary
6 secondary

114
Q

Scapula primary center develops in the body of the bone around the ___ week of development.
The 6 secondary centers develop right _____ _____ and complete between ___ and ___ years of age.

A

(primary) 8th week

(secondary) After Birth - 15-18 years of age

115
Q

The CLINICAL arm is measured from the ________ _______ of the scapula to the distal end of the humerus

A

Acromion Process

116
Q

Most commonly fractured part of the scapula.

With a scapula fracture, what must be carefully examined for injury?

A

Acromion Process

Underlying Chest Wall and Lungs

117
Q

An undescended scapula brought about by attachment to cervical vertebrae, cartilage or fibrous attachment.

A

Sprengel’s Deformity

118
Q

Failure of the acromion process to fuse with the rest of the scapula

A

Os Acromidae

119
Q

Paired, cutaneous sweat glands which are found in both sexes, but are rudimentary and functionless in males

A

Mammary Glands

120
Q

Primary functions of the mammary gland in females (2)

A

Nourishment for infant

Immune benefits for infant

121
Q

Portion of mammary gland that projects into axillary region.

Opening in nipple.

A

Axillary tail

Lactiferous Duct

122
Q

Portion of the mammary gland that projects into the axillary region

A

Axillary Tail

123
Q

Two external parts of the mammary gland

A

Nipple

Areola

124
Q

The nipple contains the opening to the __________ _____

A

Lactiferous Ducts

125
Q

Just deep to the lactiferous ducts is a _________ ______ for each lobe of the gland (same goes for ducts)

A

Lactiferous Sinus

126
Q

The areola contains numerous _________ _____ which enlarge during pregnancy and secrete an oily substance that provides __________ ________ for breast feeding

A

Sebaceous Glands

(provide) Protective Lubrication

127
Q

Each mammary gland consists of ___ to ___ lobes

A

15 to 20 lobes

128
Q

The piece of connective tissue that separates each lobe

A

Suspensory Ligament

129
Q

Lobes are subdivided into _______ which consist of _______

A

Lobules

(consist of) Alveoli

130
Q

The ______ are the secretory portion of the glands and are lined with secretory cells.

A

Alveoli

131
Q 
Mammary gland changes in females...
Puberty -
Menstrual Period - 
Pregnancy - 
Menopause -
A

Puberty - Increase rapidly
Menstrual Period - Enlarge slightly/Tenderness
Pregnancy - Enlarged/Functional; return to normal size after lactation
Menopause - Atrophy

132
Q

Mammary Gland Hormones…
Estrogen - secreted by the _______ and _______, and promotes the growth of the ______ _______
Progesterone - secreted by the _______ and _______, and promotes growth of the ___________ _______

A

Estrogen - secreted by OVARIES and PLACENTA, and promotes growth of DUCT SYSTEM
Progesterone - Secreted by OVARIES and PLACENTA, and promotes growth of SECRETORY CELLS

133
Q

Prolactin is secreted by the _________ ________ and promotes ______ ______
Oxytocin is secreted by the _________ _______ and promotes the release of _____

A

Prolactin - ANTERIOR PITUITARY - MILK PRODUCTION

Oxytocin - POSTERIOR PITUITARY - (release of) MILK

134
Q

The forst secretion from the functional mammary gland

A

Colostrum

135
Q

Colostrum is especially rich in ______________ and __________ to impact immune function

A

Immunoglobulins

Lactoferrin

136
Q

Besides immune function, colostrum also contains growth factors that affect the infant’s ____ ______

A

G.I. Tract

137
Q

Transitional milk is present about day __ to day __

A

day 6 to day 15

138
Q

Transitional milk has lower immunoglobulin level compared to colostrum, but higher amounts of ________ and _____

A

Lactose

Fat

139
Q

Mature Milk is present from about day __ to ________

A

day 15 to WEANING

140
Q

Components and percentages of mature milk…

A

Water - 88%
Lactose - 7%
Fat - 4%
Protein - 1%

141
Q

Mammary glands have extensive _______ and ________ supply

A

Blood

Lymphatic

142
Q

The lymphatic drainage supply to the mammary gland is important because of its role in the __________ of ________ cells

A

Metastasis of Cancer cells

143
Q

A recently inverted nipple may be caused by an underlying _________ pulling on the _________ ______

A

Carcinoma

Lactiferous Duct

144
Q

Extra nipples

A

Supernumerary Nipples

145
Q

Breast cancer tumors are of the ___________ variety and usually arise from ________ cells of the lactiferous duct

A

Adenocarcinoma

Epithelial

146
Q

Two factors which are thought to increase risk of breast cancer

A 
Family History (of breast cancer)
Never had a child or had child after 35
147
Q

Internal mammary gland subdivisions from smaller to largest.

A

Alveoli
Lobules
Lobes

148
Q

Nipple Discharge

A

Galactorrhea

149
Q

Galactorrhea -

A

Breast secretion NOT related to pregnancy

150
Q

Largest and longest bone on the upper extremity

A

Humerus

151
Q

Ossification centers of humerus:
__ primary
__ secondary

A

1 primary

7 secondary

152
Q

Ossification centers of humerus:
Primary ossification center is for…
Secondary ossification centers is for…

A

Primary - SHAFT

Secondary - Everything else

153
Q

Nerve that circles the neck of the humerus and can be damaged if neck is fractured.

A

Axillary Nerve

154
Q

Fracturing the shaft of the humerus may damage the _______ nerve

A

Radial

155
Q

Fractures at the distal end of the humerus may damage the ______ and ______ nerve and the ________ blood vessels.

A

Median Nerve
Ulnar Nerve
Brachial blood vessels

156
Q

Origins of pectoralis major

A

Clavicle
Sternum/upper ribs
External Oblique

157
Q

Insertion of pectoralis major

A

Intertubercular Groove

158
Q

Pectoralis minor origin

A

Ribs 3-5

159
Q

Pectoralis minor insertion

A

Coracoid Process/Scapula

160
Q

Secondary ossification centers of the Humerus (7)

A 
Head
Greater Tuberosity
Lesser Tuberosity
Medial Epicondyle
Lateral Epicondyle
Capitulum
Trochlea
161
Q

Two actions of the pectoralis minor:

A

Protraction/Abduction of Scapula

Elevates Rib Cage (forced respiration)

162
Q

Unilateral condition in which both the pectoralis major and minor muscles are missing

A

Poland Syndrome

163
Q

Three other symptoms of Poland Syndrome besides absence of pectoralis muscles

A

Atrophy of Mammary Gland
Absence of Several Ribs
Smaller/Webbed Hand (on affected side)

164
Q

Term for webbing between digits.

A

Syndactylism

165
Q

Muscle between clavicle and first rib

A

Subclavius

166
Q

Origin of subclavius

A

First Rib

167
Q

Insertion of subclavius

A

Clavicle/Subclavian Groove

168
Q

Two functions of subclavius

A

Stabilize Sternoclavicular Joint

Cushion for underlying blood vessels if clavicle is fractured

169
Q

Space between arm and chest wall

A

Axilla

170
Q

The nerves that are about to enter the upper extremity, come together to for a nerve plexus called the ________ _______.

A

Brachial Plexus

171
Q

5 spinal nerves that form the brachial plexus

A

C5-C8 and T1

172
Q

(Brachial Plexus)

The upper trunk is formed by which spinal nerve(s)

A

C5 and C6

173
Q

(Brachial Plexus)

The middle trunk is formed by which spinal nerve(s)

A

C7

174
Q

(Brachial Plexus)

The lower trunk is formed by which spinal nerve(s)

A

C8 and T1

175
Q

What forms them medial wall of the axilla? (2 parts)

A

Serrates Anterior

Upper Ribs

176
Q

What forms the anterior wall of the axilla?

A

Pectoralis Major

177
Q

What forms the posterior wall of the axilla? (2)

A

Latissimus Dorsi

Teres Major

178
Q

3 bones that form the apex of the axilla

A

Clavicle
Scapula
First Rib

179
Q

The base of the axilla is made of (2)

A

Skin

Fascia

180
Q

Deep fascia that encloses the brachial plexus and the blood vessels

A

Axillary Sheath

181
Q

Nerves of pectorals major and their spinal origin

A 
Medial Pectoral (C8-T1)
Lateral Pectoral (C5-C7)
182
Q

Nerve and spinal origin of pectorals minor

A

Medial Pectoral (C8-T1)

183
Q

Nerve of sublcavius and its spinal nerve origin

A

Nerve to the subclavius (C5-C6)

184
Q

(Nerves of the Brachial Plexus)

Directly from the spinal nerves

A

Dorsal Scapular

Long Thoracic

185
Q

(Nerves of the Brachial Plexus)

From Upper Trunk

A

Suprascapular

Nerve to the Subclavius

186
Q

(Nerves of the Brachial Plexus)

From Lateral Chord

A

Lateral Pectoral
Musculotaneous
Part of the Median

187
Q

(Nerves of the Brachial Plexus)

From Medial chord

A 
Medial Pectoral
Medial Brachial Cutaneous
Medial Antebrachial Cutaneous
Ulnar
Part of the Median
188
Q

(Nerves of the Brachial Plexus)

From Posterior Chord

A 
Upper Subscapular
Lower Subscapular
Thoracodorsal
Axillary
Radial
189
Q

Difference between myoglobin and hemoglobin.

A

Myoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen than hemoglobin

190
Q

Smallest part of muscle which can contract independently.

A

Motor Unit

191
Q

_________ muscle fibers have both efferent and afferent nerve fibers.
_________ muscle fibers have only efferent nerve fibers.

A

INTRAFUSAL muscle fibers - efferent/afferent

EXTRAFUSAL muscle fibers - efferent

192
Q

_________ muscle fibers are found in muscle spindles

A

INTRAFUSAL muscle fibers

193
Q

The innervation of a tendon is strictly ________

A

Afferent (sensory)

194
Q

A retinaculum is a thickened band of ______ ______ which is found at joints and functions to bind down _______ and _______ that cross the joint

A 
Deep Fascia
(bind down) Tendond and Nerves
195
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis is pathology of the…

A

Central Nervous System

196
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome is pathology of the…

A

Peripheral Nervous System

197
Q

Muscular Dystrophy is pathology of the individual…

A

Muscle Fibers

198
Q

Injury to the lower roots of the brachial plexus

A

Klumpke’s Palsy

199
Q

The most common cause of Klumpke’s Palsy

A

Forceful abduction of the humerus at the shoulder joint

200
Q

Nerves which may be involved with injury to the lower roots of the brachial plexus (Klumpke’s Palsy)

A 
Ulnar
Median
Radial
Medial Pectoral
Medial Brachial Cutaneous
Medial Antebrachial Cutaneous
Thoracodorsal
201
Q

Nerves which come off of the spinal nerve roots and upper trunk

A

Suprascapular Portions of Brachial Plexus

202
Q

Nerves which come off of the cords

A

Infraclavicular Portion of the Brachial Plexus

203
Q

Nerve that descends down the back, deep to the rhomboid and levator scapula…
(segmental innervation is ___)

A

Dorsal Scapular Nerve

C5

204
Q

Dorsal scapular nerve is the motor supply to the… (3)

A

Rhomboid Major
Rhomboid Minor
Levator Scapula

205
Q

Dorsal scapular nerve is articular supply to the _____________ joint

A

Acromioclavicular joint

206
Q

Nerve descends posteriorly from the spinal nerves that form the plexus to the anterior lateral aspect of the thoracic cage.

A

Long Thoracic Nerve

207
Q

Segmental innervation of the long thoracic nerve

A

C5
C6
C7

208
Q

Long thoracic nerve is the motor supply for…

A

Serrates Anterior

209
Q

Nerve that passes laterally across the cervical region (deep to the trapezius) and deep to the muscles associated with the posterior aspect of the scapula.

A

Suprascapular Nerve

210
Q

The suprascapular nerve’s segmental innervation is…

A

C5 and C6

211
Q

Suprascapular is the motor supply to the… (2)

A

Supraspinatus

Infraspinatus

212
Q

Suprascapular is the articular supply to the ________ joint and ____________ joint

A

SHOULDER joint

ACROMIOCLAVICULAR joint

213
Q

Nerve that descends posteriorly to the clavicle.

A

Nerve to the subclavius

214
Q

Nerve to the subclavius is often given a branch to the _______ nerve, which is known as the…

A

Phrenic nerve

Accessory Phrenic Nerve

215
Q

Segmental innervation of the nerve to the subclavius

A

C5

C6

216
Q

The nerve to the subclavius is the motor supply to the… (2)
And articular supply to the _________ joint

A

Subclavius
Diaphragm
Sternoclavicular joint

217
Q

First nerve off of the lateral cord

A

Lateral Pectoral Nerve

218
Q

Segmental innervation of lateral pectoral nerve…

Motor supply to…

A

C5, C6 and C7

Pectoralis Major

219
Q

The musculocutaneous nerve passes through the belly of the __________ muscle as it leaves the axilla, and then runs between the…(2)

A

(belly of) Coracobrachialis muscle

(between) Biceps Brachii and Brachialis muscles

220
Q

The musculocutaneous nerve continues into the forearm as the ________ __________ ________ nerve

A

Lateral Antebrachial Cutaneous Nerve

221
Q

Segmental innervation of the musculocutaneous nerve… (3)
Motor supply to the… (3)
Articular supply to the _______ joint

A

C5, C6 and C7
Coracobrachialis, Biceps Brachii and Brachialis
Elbow joint

222
Q

First nerve to come off of the medial cord

A

Medial Pectoral Nerve

223
Q

Segmental innervation of the medial pectoral nerve… (2)

Motor supply to the…

A

C8 and T1

Medial Aspect of the Arm

224
Q

_______ _______ ________ Nerve:
Segmental innervation is T1
Cutaneous supply to the medial aspect of the arm

A

Medial Brachial Cutaneous Nerve

225
Q

Nerve that descends between the axillary artery and vein down the medial aspect of the arm

A

Ulnar Nerve

226
Q

Ulnar Nerve:
Segmental innervation is… (2)
Cutaneous supply to the…

A

C8 and T1

1/4 medial aspect of the palm and dorsum of the hand; skin of digits 5 and part of digit 4

227
Q

The ulnar nerve give motor supply to the ______ ______ ______ and half of the _______ ________ _______.

A

Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

Flexor Digitorum Profundus

228
Q

muscles of the fifth digit

A

Hypothenar Muscles

229
Q

Only branch of the brachial plexus which is formed from more than one cord…
(which cords)

A

Median Nerve

Lateral and Medial cords

230
Q

Median nerve:
Segmental innervation… (4)
Articulation supply to the… (2)
Cutaneous supply to the…

A

C6, C7, C8, T1
Elbow and Wrist Joint
Lateral 3/4 of palm/skin of 3-1/2 digits

231
Q

Upper Subscapular Nerve:
Segmental innervation… (1)
Motor supply to the (1)

A

C5

Subscapularis

232
Q

Lower Subscapularis Nerve:
Segmental Innervation… (1)
Motor supply to the… (2)

A

C6

Subscapularis and Teres Major

233
Q

Nerve that runs down the lateral aspect of the thoracic cage, just lateral to the long thoracic nerve.

A

Thoracodorsal Nerve

234
Q

Thoracodorsal Nerve:
Segmental innervation… (3)
Motor supply to the… (1)

A

C6, C7, C8

Latissimus Dorsi

235
Q

The smallest and most lateral of the terminal branches of the posterior cord.

A

Axillary Nerve

236
Q 
Axillary Nerve:
Segmental innervation... (2)
Motor supply to the... (2)
Articular supply to the... (2)
Cutaneous supply to the...
A

C5 and C6
Deltoid and Teres Minor
Shoulder Joint and Acromioclavicular Joint
Lateral aspect of the arm

237
Q

The larger and more medial of the terminal branches of the posterior cord

A

Radial Nerve

238
Q

When the radial nerve enters the _______, it divides into superficial and deep branches

A

Forearm

239
Q

Radial Nerve:
Segmental Innervation… (5)
Motor supply to the… (3)

A

C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

Triceps Brachii, Anconeus, and all posterior forearm muscles

240
Q

The area of skin supplied by the sensory root of a single spinal nerve is know as a….

A

Dermatome

241
Q

Dermatomes of the Upper Extremity:
C4 -
C5 -
C6 -

A

C4 - Skin over the tip of the shoulder (acromion process)
C5 - Lateral (radial) side of arm
C6 - Lateral (radial) side of forearm; digits 1 and 2

242
Q 
Dermatomes of the Upper Extremity:
C7 -
C8 -
T1 - 
T2 -
A

C7 - Skin of palm; digits 2, 3 and 4
C8 - Medial (ulnar) side of forearm; digit 5
T1 - Medial (ulnar) side of arm
T2 - Skin of the axilla

243
Q

Prefixed brachial plexus

A

C4 to C8

244
Q

Postfixed brachial plexus

A

C6 to T2

245
Q

Paralysis:

A

Complete loss of muscular movement

246
Q

Paresis:

A

Movement can be performed, but is weak

247
Q

Anesthesia:

A

Partial or complete loss of sensation without loss of conciousness

248
Q

Paresthesia:

A

Loss of cutaneous sensation

249
Q

Injury to the upper roots (spinal nerves) of the brachial plexus

A

Erb-Duchenne Palsy

most common injury of the plexus

250
Q

With Erb-Duchenne Palsy, ___ and/or ___ are damaged or compromised.

A

C5 and/or C6

251
Q

Three types of injuries that cause Erb-Duchenne Palsy

A

Birth (stretching of neck)
Fall or Blow to Shoulder (shoulder hits something and continues to move)
Heavy Weight Falling on Shoulder (produces a traction injury)

252
Q

Longer than normal transverse process of a cervical vertebrae

A

Cervical Rib

253
Q

Compression of the cords of the brachial plexus may result from prolonged __________ of the _____ during certain manual tasks such as painting

A

HYPERABDUCTION of the ARM

254
Q

A condition where there is both compression of the cords of the brachial plexus and the axillary artery (TOS)

A

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

255
Q

Direct continuation of the subclavian artery

A

Axillary Artery

256
Q

The axillary artery will become the brachial artery about an inch or so below the…

A

Surgical Neck of the Humerus

257
Q

6 branches of the axillary artery

A 
Superior Thoracic
Thoracoacromial
Lateral Thoracic
Subscapular
Anterior Humeral Circumflex
Posterior Humeral Circumflex
258
Q

First branch off of the axillary artery

A

Superior Thoracic

259
Q

The Superior Thoracic branch of the axillary artery supplies the… (4)

A

Pectorals Major
Pectoralis Minor
Subclavius Muscle
Wall of the Thorax

260
Q

Four branches of the Thoracoacromial branch of the axillary artery

A

Acromial
Pectoral
Clavicular
Deltoid

261
Q

Branch of the axillary artery that appears along the lateral border of the pectoralis minor

A

Lateral Thoracic

262
Q

The Lateral Thoracic branch of the axillary artery supplies the… (5)

A 
Serrates Anterior
Pectorals Major
Pectoralis Minor
Mammary Glands
Intercostal Muscles
263
Q

The largest branch of the axillary artery

A

Subscapular

264
Q

The thoracodorsal branch of the subscapular branch of the axillary artery supplies the… (2)

A

Latissimus Dorsi

Subscapularis Muscles

265
Q

The Circumflex Scapular branch of the subscapular branch of the axillary artery supplies the (6)

A 
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Trees Major
Teres Minor
Triceps Brachii
Deltoid (part of)
266
Q

Form a ring around the surgical neck of the humerus (axillary artery branches)

A

Anterior and Posterior Humeral Circumflex

267
Q

The anterior and posterior humeral circumflex supply the… (4)

A

Deltoid Muscle
Teres Muscles
Shoulder Joint
Proximal part of Humerus

268
Q

Lymph fluid and ________ fluid are essentially the same, the major difference being ________
Once interstitial fluid passes into the _______ _______, it becomes lymph fluid.

A

Interstitial Fluid
Location
Lymph Vessels

Gross Anatomy (5 decks)

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