Exam 1 Flashcards
The preferred location for testing the S1 dermatome would be the
a. Lateral aspect of the foot.
b. Dorsum of the foot.
c. Medial aspect of the foot.
d. Anterior aspect of the lower leg.
answer a.
The resisted motion for testing the C5 myotome would be
a. Shoulder elevation/shrug.
b. Shoulder abduction.
c. Elbow flexion.
d. Elbow extension.
answer b.
The purpose of a scan exam is to determine:
a. The source of a patient’s symptoms.
b. The presence of red or yellow flags.
c. The location for an in-depth examination.
d. The need to refer to another practitioner.
e. All of the reasons listed above.
answer e.
A patient demonstrates increased reflex response on the right patellar tendon when compared to the normal reflex response on the left. This hyper-reflexia should be recorded in the note as a grade of
a. 0
b. 1+
c. 2+
d. 3+
e. 4+
answer d.
Your patient has a painful joint in her R LE. When she steps on that limb, she leans to the right. Your suspect that the involved joint is which of the following?
- Hip
- Knee
- Ankle
- Foot
answer 1.
The determinant of gait that results in management of the movement of the COG in the frontal plane is:
- Lateral pelvic tilt
- Knee flexion in stance
- Lateral displacement of the pelvis
- Transverse plane rotation of the pelvis
answer 3.
Your patient ambulates by externally rotating his left lower limb to 90 degrees as he tries to advance his limb at the initiation of swing phase. This movement method is a common substitution for weakness of which of the following muscle groups?
- Hip external rotators
- Knee extensors
- Ankle dorsiflexors
- Hip flexors
answer 4
A flat-back posture in standing and during ambulation is a result of tightness of which of the following structures?
- Ankle dorsiflexors
- Erector spinae muscles
- Hip extensors
- Knee extensors
answer 3
During a scan exam, the purpose of providing overpressure is to:
a. apply additional tissue stress to a joint that moved through a full ROM without pain
b. to determine neurological involvement
c. to determine the strength of a motion at the particular joint being tested
d. all of the above
answer a.
You notice that your patient shows significant hyperextension of one knee during the mid through late portions of the stance phase while walking. This gait deviation is most likely the result of which of the following impairments?
a. Weak ankle evertors
b. Tight hamstrings
c. Weak ankle plantarflexors
d. Tight gluteus maximus
answer c.
Moving the forefoot in a side to side manner while stabilizing the calcaneus is appropriate to test the movement of which joints?
- Subtalar joint
2. Midtarsal joint oblique axis
3. Midtarsal joint longitudinal axis
4. Intermetatarsal joints
answer 2.
Dorsal gliding of the proximal row of carpals at the radiocarpal joint will likely improve the osteokinematic motion of
- wrist flexion
- wrist extension
- forearm pronation
- forearm supination
answer 1.
Your patient lacks osteokinematic dorsiflexion in his foot. You would mobilize with which of the following techniques?
- lateral glide of calcaneus
2. posterior glide of talus
3. joint compression
4. anterior glide of talus
answer 2.
If your patient has lost shoulder abduction secondary to capsular restriction, which glide would be best to improve on this motion deficit?
- superior glide
2. anterior glide
3. inferior glide
4. posterior glide
answer 3
Which of the following best describes the open or loose-packed position of the glenohumeral joint?
- 55 degrees ABD with 30degrees Horizontal ADD
2. 90 degrees GH ABD with full ER
3. Full GH elevation
4. Anatomic position
answer 1.
Your patient has severe restrictions in wrist motion due to cast immobilization for 12 weeks. Of all the restrictions, ulnar deviation is the most pronounced. Which of the following glides would be best to utilize to improve ulnar deviation at the radiocarpal joint?
- Dorsal glide of proximal carpal row
2. Palmar glide of proximal carpal row
3. Medial glide of proximal carpal row
4. Lateral glide of proximal carpal row
answer 4.
A long section of bone is experiencing a 3 point bend, with the central force application on the superior surface, and the two lateral forces applied to the inferior surface. As a result of all forces applied, which of the following resultant forces will be occurring on the superior surface?
- Compression
2. Tension
3. Torsion
4. Shear
answer 1
The stiffness of a material is denoted by which of the following on a load-deformation curve?
- Location of yield point
2. Slope of the curve in the plastic region
3. Maximum amount of deformation
4. Slope of the curve in the elastic region
answer 4
If a load is applied to a tissue at a rapid rate, how does this compare to loads applied at a slower rate?
- All of the answers are correct
- Slower rates have a greater force to tissue failure
- Faster rates have a more steep slope
- Faster rates have less energy stored prior to failure
answer 3
Deformation due to a constant low load over an extended period of time is a description of:
- Stress Relaxation
- Viscoelasticity
- Creep
- Hysteresis
answer 3.
If a client exhibits inappropriate behavior during a massage, the first step of the seven-step intervention model is to
- evaluate the patient’s response
2. stop the session using assertive behavior
3. re-state your professional boundaries
4. ask the client to clarify his or her behavior
answer 2.
Multifidis muscle atrophy will spontaneously recover within 6 months after low back pain symptoms subside.
True
False
answer F
Petrissage is characterized by
- rhythmical light sliding or gliding over the skin
- kneading, pressing or rolling tissues under or beneath the hands
- repetitive rubbing of one surface over another
- brisk percussive movements
answer 2
Which of the following areas should be avoided during massage because the area has little protection and can be easily damaged by massage?
- anterior triangle of neck
2. area over greater trochanter
3. Hamstring tendons
4. Achilles tendon
answer 1
Proper activation of the local cervical muscle system is equally and effectively accomplished with either a nodding maneuver or a chin tuck maneuver.
True
False
answer F
Proper activation of the transverses abdominis by your patient requires:
- Aggressive hollowing of the abdomen
2. Performance of an anterior pelvic tilt
3. Active flexion of the lumbar spine
4. Mild drawing-in of superficial abdominal tissue
answer 4
A housekeeping employee who works in your hospital-owned fitness center comes to the PT Department and reports having woken up with severe neck pain today. You as the physical therapist will choose to do which of the following as the most appropriate course of action?
- Massage her neck with light pressure.
- Apply pressure to trigger points in her neck and shoulders.
- Hold massage and refer the patient back to her physician.
- Gently massage her neck but avoid stretching to the neck and shoulders.
answer 3.
Deep effleurage is best applied to broad, large areas like the back or thigh using the physical therapist’s
- Fingertips
2. Forearm
3. Knuckles
4. Wrists
answer 2
Which of the following terms is defined as “the sway boundaries in which an individual can maintain equilibrium without changing his or her base of support”?
a. Center of Mass
b. Center of Pressure
c. Center of Gravity
d. Limits of stability
answer d.
When a hip strategy is used for balance control in response to a posterior displacement, which muscle groups are activated and in what sequence?
a. Abdominals followed by quadriceps
b. Quadriceps followed by abdominals
c. Paraspinals followed by hamstrings
d. Ankle muscles, followed by hip flexors, followed by hamstrings
answer a.
What are the 4 Effects on ligaments due to 8 weeks of immobilization?
– Decreased stiffness (lesser slope)
– Decreased maximum load to failure (strength)
– Decreased energy absorbed to failure
– Increased deformation (laxity)
Movement scale
0-2 = hypomobile 3 = normal 4-6 = hypermobile
What are the 7 Accessory Movement Assessment and Treatment Directions
- Distraction • Compression • Anterior glide • Posterior glide • Medial glide • Lateral glide • Rotation
what are 5 Indications for Mobilization and Manipulation
- Reduction in joint pain
- Increase in joint mobility
- Decrease muscle spasm
- To reduce a subluxation or dislocation
- To reduce an internal derangement
Name Contraindications to Mobilization and Manipulation
- Articular derangement and hypermobility
- Weakened bony status
- Circulatory disturbances
- Disc herniation with neurologic involvement
- Presence of infectious disease
- Active growth plates inchildren and adolescents
- Joint effusion
- Tissue inflammation
- Spasticity
if acute pain ,move segment ____
away from pain
If sub-acute pain,move segment ____
into direction of pain gradually
For stiffness,move segment ________
in direction of stiffness
3 Benefits to Joint Mobilization and Manipulation
- Reduction or elimination of pain
- Stimulation of formation of synovial fluid
- Stretching of non-contractile and contractile tissue
Tendon Reflexes
Biceps = c5,c6 triceps = c7, c8 knee = L3,L4 achilles = S1
Reflex grading
4+ = very brisk, hyperactive with clonus 3+ = brisker than average, slightly hyperreflexic 2+ = normal 1+ = somewhat diminished, low normal 0+ = no response, absent
What happens during a normal Babinski test?
for adults, toes curl down.
for babies, toes fan apart.
Ataxia
uncoordinated. Wide range. Scissoring,
wide gait, disjointed. cerebellum
