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Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a ligand?

A

hormones or neurotransmitters (chemical substances) released in response to stimuli that communicate with target cells

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2
Q

what is the communication method of the nervous system compared to the endocrine system?

A

Nervous system: nerve signal causes neurotransmitter release from a neuron into a synaptic cleft
Endocrine system: secretes hormones into blood; hormones transported within the blood are distributed to target cells throughout the body.

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3
Q

What is the target of stimulation of nervous system vs. endocrine system?

A

nervous system: other neurons, muscle cells and gland cells

es: any cell in the body with a receptor for the hormone

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4
Q

What is the response time of the nervous system compared to the endocrine system

A

ns: rapid - milliseconds or seconds
es: slower: seconds to minutes to hours

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5
Q

what is the effect of stimulation of the nervous system compared to the endocrine system?

A

ns: causes stimulation or inhibition of another neuron, contraction or relaxation of muscles, or change in secretion from glands
es: causes metabolic activity changes in target cells

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6
Q

what are the range of effects for nervous system vs endocrine system?

A

ns: localized, specific effects in the body
es: widespread effects throughout body

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7
Q

what is the duration of response for nervous system vs endocrine system?

A

ns: short term: milliseconds - terminates with removal of stimulus
es: long-lasting: minutes to days to weeks; may continue after stimulus is removed

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8
Q

what are the functions of the endocrine system?

A

Maintaining homeostasis of blood composition and volume
Controlling reproductive activities
Regulating development, growth, and metabolism
Controlling digestive processes

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9
Q

What are features of all endocrine glands?

A

ductless

extensive blood supply (so hormones can be rapidly taken by blood).

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10
Q

What are the major endocrine glands?

A 
pituitary gland
pineal gland
thyroid gland
parathyroid glands
adrenal glands
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11
Q

what are organs which contain endocrine cells?

A 
hypothalamus
skin
thymus
heart
liver
stomach
pancreas
small intestine
kidney
gonads (testes and ovaries)
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12
Q

what does the pineal gland secrete?

A

melatonin

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13
Q

what does melatonin do?

A

makes us drowsy

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14
Q

what hormone does the parathyroid produce and release?

A

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

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15
Q

what does PTH do?

A

released in response to decreased blood calcium levels

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16
Q

what is a reflex?

A

preprogrammed response that occurs when activated by certain stimuli

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17
Q

what are the 3 types of stimulation that initiate an endocrine reflex?

A

humoral, hormonal or nervous

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18
Q

what is hormonal stimulation?

A

release of a hormone in response to another hormone

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19
Q

what is humoral stimulation?

A

release of a hormone in response to changes in level of nutrient of ion in the blood.

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20
Q

what is nervous system stimulation?

A

release of a hormone in response to stimulation by the nervous system.

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21
Q

how are hormones grouped according to chemical structure?

A

steroid hormones, protein hormones and biogenic amines

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22
Q

what is a steroid hormone?

A

lipid soluble molecules synthesized from cholesterol

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23
Q

what is calcitriol?

A

hormone produced by vitamin D

sometimes called steroid hormone, but really a sterol hormone - still lipid soluble

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24
Q

what is a protein hormone?

A

composed of small chains of amino acids - water-soluble

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25
Q

what are biogenic amines?

A

modified amino acids - include epinephrine and norepinephrine and thyroid hormone
all water soluble except for thyroid hormone

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26
Q

what are local hormones?

A

hormones that do not circulate within blood - released from producing cells then bind to same cell or neighboring cells

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27
Q

what are eicosanoids?

A

primary type of local hormone made from fatty acid that comes from phospholipids within a cell’s plasma membrane
synthesized through enzymatic cascade

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28
Q

What are 3 eicosaoids?

A

leukotrienes, prostaglandins, thromboxanes

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29
Q

what is autocrine stimulation?

A

when an eicosanoid initiates cellular change in the cell from which it was formed

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30
Q

what is paracrine stimulation?

A

when an eicosanoid initiates cellular changes in neighboring cells

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31
Q

which kind of hormones require carrier molecules?

A

lipid-soluble

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32
Q

what are carrier molecules?

A

water-soluble proteins synthesized by the liver

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33
Q

what is a bound hormone?

A

a hormone attached to a carrier

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34
Q

what kind of hormone can exit the blood and bind to cellular receptors of target hormones?

A

unbound hormones

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35
Q

why do some water-soluble hormones use carrier protein molecules?

A

transport carrier protein protects the hormone - prevents early destruction so prolongs the life of the hormone

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36
Q

what factors influence hormone concentration in the blood?

A

hormone synthesis and hormone elimination

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37
Q

how are hormones eliminated?

A

enzymatic degradation in liver cells or removal from the blood by excretion by the kidneys or by uptake into the target cells

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38
Q

which kind of hormone has the longer half-life?

A

steroid hormones have the longer half life (testosterone is 12 days), water-soluble minutes to an hour

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39
Q

how do lipid-soluble hormones (steroid hormones) interact with target cells?

A

1.Unbound hormones diffuse across plasma membrane
in the cell. 2.they bind to intracellular receptors (either in cytosol or nucleus) to form hormone-receptor complex 3. hormone-receptor complex binds to specific DNA sequence within the nucleus (hormone-response elements HRE’s) 4. binding to DNA results in transcription of mRNA 5. tranlation of mRNA by ribosomes synthesizes specific protein.

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40
Q

can water-soluble hormones cross the plasma membrane?

A

no

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41
Q

how does a water-soluble hormone stimulate a target cell?

A
  1. hormone binds to plasma membrane receptor, inducing shape change & activating receptor.
  2. G protein binds to activated receptor
  3. GDP is bumped off and GTP binds to G protein - activating G protein.
  4. activated G protein is released from receptor, travels along inside of plasma membrane–> formation or availability of 2nd messenger
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42
Q

what are the 2 plasma membrane enzymes that protein G activates?

A

Adenylate cyclase and/or phospholipase C

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43
Q

describe the adenylate cyclase cascade

A
  1. activated G protein binds to and activated plasma membrane enzyme adenylate cyclase
  2. adenylate cyclase converts ATP to cAMP molecules.
  3. cAMP serves as the 2nd messenger by activating protein kinase A.
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44
Q

describe phospholipase C enzyme cascade

A
  1. activated G protein binds to and activates plasma membrane enzyme phospholipase C
  2. phospholipase C splits PIP2 into 2 2nd messengers: DAG and IP3
    3a. DAG activates protein kinase C
    3b. IP3 increases Ca2+ in cytosol (stimulates release from endoplasmic reticulum and entry across the plasma membrane from the interstitial fluid).
    3c. Ca2+ acts as 3rd messenger to activate protein kinase enzymes.
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45
Q

what organ releases glucagon?

A

pancreas

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46
Q

why is glucagon released?

A

in response to low blood glucose levels

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47
Q

where does glucagon go after it is released?

A

receptors in plasma membrane of liver cells - causes increase in cAMP synthesis and activation of kinase A enzymes, kinase A enzymes phosphorylate enzyme pathways that lead to release of glucose from liver cells

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48
Q

what does glucose do?

A

enters blood and helps return blood glucose levels to normal homeostatic range

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49
Q

what organ releases oxytocin?

A

posterior pituitary

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50
Q

what does oxytocin do?

A

binds with membrane receptors of smooth muscle cells in uterus to increase production of IP3 which increases intracellular Ca2+ and causes stronger uterine contractions to expel the baby

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51
Q

what does the intracellular enzyme cascade do?

A

happens after hormone binds to cell membrane receptor, then G protein, transmembrane enzyme (either adenylate cyclase or phopholipase C), 2nd messenger, and protein kinase become involved. Activated protein kinase can either stimulate or inhibit enzymatic pathways within the cell, alter cell permeability to an ion, or both.

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52
Q

what are two advantages to the signaling pathways?

A
  1. amplifies signal at each enzymatic step

2. provides more places and opportunities to fine-tune and regulate the pathway activities (because it is multi-step)

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53
Q

what is up-regulation?

A

cells increase the number of receptors - increasing cell’s sensitivity to a hormone

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54
Q

what is down-regulation?

A

cell decreasing the number of receptors, reducing the cell’s sensitivity to a hormone.

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55
Q

what causes a cell to alter the number of hormone receptors?

A

hormone concentration in the blood.
developmental maturity
cell’s state of activity,
different stages of the cell cycle

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56
Q

what are the 3 ways in which hormones interact?

A

synergistic, permissive, antagonistic

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57
Q

what is synergistic hormone interaction?

A

activity of one hormone reinforces the activity of another hormone
i.e. estrogen and progesterone together more powerfully influence female reproductive structures together than by themselves.

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58
Q

what is permissive hormone interaction?

A

activity of one hormone requires a second hormone

i.e. prolactin is required to produce breast milk and oxytocin is required for milk ejection

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59
Q

what is antagonistic hormone interaction?

A

effects of one hormone oppose the effects of another hormone
i.e. glucagon (initiates cellular changes that increase blood glucose levels) and insulin(initiates cellular changes that decrease blood glucose levels).

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60
Q

What hormone does the pineal gland produce?

A

Melatonin

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61
Q

what is the function of melatonin?

A

regulates the body’s circadian rhythm

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62
Q

What hormones does the hypothalamus produce?

A

oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone

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63
Q

what does the posterior pituitary do?

A

stores and releases oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone

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64
Q

what is the function of oxytocin?

A

uterine contractions and breast milk release

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65
Q

what is the function of antidiuretic hormone?

A

fluid balance
triggered by increase in blood osmolarity (too many particles in blood - means dehydrated), reduces urine production, increases water-reabsorption in the kidney

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66
Q

What does the anterior pituitary produce?

A 
TP-FLAG
thyroid-stimulating hormone
prolactin
follicle-stimulating hormone
luteinizing hormone
adrenocorticotropic hormone
growth hormone
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67
Q

what is the function of thyroid-stimulating hormone?

A

stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroid hormone

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68
Q

what is the function of prolactin?

A

breast milk production

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69
Q

what is the function of follicle-stimulating hormone?

A

development of gametes (and follicle in female)

regulate hormone synthesis by the gonads

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70
Q

what is the function of luteinizing hormone?

A

development of gametes (and ovulation in female)

regulating hormone synthesis by gonads

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71
Q

what is the function of adrenocorticotropic hormone?

A

stimulates adrenal cortex to produce and release corticosteroids (glucocorticoids). - like cortisol

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72
Q

what is the function of growth hormone?

A

stimulates cell growth and division
affects most body parts - especially those within the skeletal and muscular systems
stimulates liver to release insulin-like growth factor 1 and 2 (IGF-1 and IGF-2)

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73
Q

what hormones are produced by the thyroid gland?

A

thyroid hormone

calcitonin

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74
Q

what is the function of thyroid hormone?

A

increases metabolism

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75
Q

what is the function of calcitonin?

A

decreases blood calcium levels

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76
Q

what hormones are produced by the parathyroid glands?

A

parathyroid hormone

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77
Q

what is the function of the parathyroid hormone?

A

increases blood calcium levels

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78
Q

what hormones are produced by the adrenal medulla?

A

catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

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79
Q

what do catecholamines do?

A

prolong fight-or-flight response

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80
Q

what hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex?

A

mineralcorticoids (like aldosterone)
glucocorticoids (like cortisol)
gonadocorticoids (like androgens)

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81
Q

what do mineralcorticoids do?

A

regulate blood sodium and potassium levels

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82
Q

what do glucocorticoids do?

A

(cortisol)

participate in stress response

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83
Q

what is the function of gonadocorticoids?

A

(androgens)

stimulates maturation and functioning of the reproductive system

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84
Q

what hormones does the skin produce?

A

vitamin D - later converted to calcitriol through enzymes in the liver and kidney

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85
Q

what is the function of vitamin D (and calcitriol)?

A

promotes absorption of calcium from gastrointestinal tract into blood

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86
Q

what hormones are produced by the thymus?

A

thymosin, thymulin, thymopoietin

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87
Q

what are the functions of thymosin, thymulin, and thymopoietin?

A

stimulates maturation of T-lymphocytes

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88
Q

what hormones are produced by the heart?

A

atrial natriuretic peptide

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89
Q

what hormones are produced by the stomach?

A

gastrin

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90
Q

what hormones are produced by the liver?

A

angiotensinogen

erythropoietin

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91
Q

what is the function of angiotensinogen?

A

regulates blood volume and blood pressure

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92
Q

what is the function of erythropoietin?

A

increases production of erythrocytes

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93
Q

what hormones does the pancreas produce?

A

insulin and glucagon

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94
Q

what is the function of insulin?

A

decreases blood glucose

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95
Q

what is the function of glucagon?

A

increases blood glucose

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96
Q

what hormones are produced by the small intestine?

A

secretin and cholecystokinin

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97
Q

what hormones are produced by the kidneys

A

erythropoietin

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98
Q

what hormones are produced by testes?

A

androgens (testosterone) and inhibin

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99
Q

what is the function of testosterone and inhibin?

A

stimulate maturation and function of male reproductive system

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100
Q

what hormones are produced by the ovaries?

A

estrogen, progesterone, inhibin

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101
Q

what are the functions of estrogen, progesterone, inhibin?

A

stimulate maturation and function of female reproductive system

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102
Q

OT

A

oxytocin

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103
Q

ADH

A

antidiuretic hormone

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104
Q

TSH

A

thyroid-stimulating hormone

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105
Q

PRL

A

prolactin

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106
Q

FSH

A

follicle-stimulating hormone

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107
Q

LH

A

luteinizing hormone

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108
Q

ACTH

A

adrenocorticotropic hormone

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109
Q

GH

A

growth hormone

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110
Q

TH

A

thyroid hormone

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111
Q

PTH

A

parathyroid hormone

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112
Q

ANP

A

atrial natriuretic peptide

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113
Q

EPO

A

erythropoietin

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114
Q

what is a nutrient?

A

organic molecules derived from foods to generate ATP

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115
Q

what forms of nutrients circulate in the blood?

A

simple forms: glucose, fatty acids, amino acids

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116
Q

how are glucose and fatty acid stored within cells?

A

as glycogen and triglycerides (more complex forms)

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117
Q

what structures help regulate nutrient blood levels?

A

liver, adipose connective tissue and skeletal muscle - can be used for storing nutrients when blood levels are high, can be withdrawn when blood levels are falling

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118
Q

what enzymatic pathways for nutrient processing exist in the liver?

A

glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis

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119
Q

what is glycogenesis?

A

the synthesis of glycogen from glucose obtained from the blood

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120
Q

what is glycogenolysis?

A

the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose

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121
Q

what is gluconeogenesis?

A

production of glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules such as amino acids, fatty acids or lactate

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122
Q

do muscle cells engage in glycogenolysis?

A

yes, but do not release glucose into the blood. use glucose to support their own high energy needs

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123
Q

what enzymatic pathways do adipose connective tissue cells use?

A

lipogenesis and lipolysis

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124
Q

what is lipogenesis?

A

the synthesis of triglycerides for storage from fatty acids and glycerol obtained from the blood

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125
Q

what is lipolysis?

A

the breakdown of triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids that are then released into the blood

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126
Q

which cells use enzymatic pathways that produce protein?

A

all cells - especially muscle cells

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127
Q

what is protein anabolism?

A

synthesis - stimulated with increased uptake of amino acids from the blood

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128
Q

what is protein catabolism?

A

breakdown of protein to release amino acids - usually only used for emergency purposes

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129
Q

which gland’s hormone release does the hypothalamus control?

A

the pituitary gland

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130
Q

which glands does the hypothalamus indirectly control hormone release from?

A

thyroid gland, adrenal gland, liver, testes and ovaries

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131
Q

what is another name for the pituitary gland?

A

the hypophysis

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132
Q

what is the stem of the pituitary gland called?

A

the infundibulum (or infundibular stalk)

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133
Q

what is another name for the posterior pituitary?

A

neurohypophysis

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134
Q

what is the pars nervosa?

A

the rounded lobe of the posterior pituitary

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135
Q

what is the posterior pituitary composed of?

A

the infundibulum and the pars nervosa

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136
Q

what is in the posterior pituitary?

A

axons (dendrites and cell bodies of neurons are in the hypothalamus) - synaptic knobs and ends of axons are in the pars nervosa

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137
Q

what is another word for the anterior pituitary?

A

adenohypophysis

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138
Q

how are the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus connected?

A

through direct blood pathway called hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system (from primary plexus - capillary network on hypothalamus - to secondary plexus - capillary network on anterior pituitary)

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139
Q

does the posterior pituitary produce any hormone?

A

no - just stores oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone that are synthesized in hypothalamus (transported through unmyelinated axons to synaptic knobs in posterior pituitary)

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140
Q

how do hormones travel from hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary?

A

hormones are released into the primary plexus, then transported via the hypophyseal portal vein to the secondary plexus within the anterior pituitary. anterior pituitary then releases its hormones into the blood of the general circulation.

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141
Q

what are the hormones released by the hypothalamus called?

A

regulatory hormones

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142
Q

what are regulatory hormones?

A

molecules secreted into the blood by the hypothalamus to regulate secretion of anterior pituitary hormones.

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143
Q

what are the 2 groups of regulatory hormones?

A

releasing hormones (RHs) and inhibiting hormones (IHs)

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144
Q

what are releasing hormones?

A

stimulate production and secretion of specific anterior pituitary hormones

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145
Q

what are inhibiting hormones?

A

deter production and secretion of specific anterior pituitary hormones

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146
Q

What are the hormones that are synthesized and released into the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system from the hypothalamus?

A 
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
prolactin-releasing hormone
gonadotropin-releasing hormone
corticotropin-releasing hormone
growth hormone-releasing hormone
prolactin-inhibiting hormone
growth-inhibiting hormone
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147
Q

TRH

A

thyrotropin-releasing hormone

148
Q

PRH

A

prolactin-releasing hormone

149
Q

GnRH

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

150
Q

CRH

A

corticotropin-releasing hormone

151
Q

GHRH

A

Growth hormone-releasing hormone

152
Q

PIH

A

prolactin-inhibiting hormone

153
Q

GIH

A

Growth-inhibiting hormone

154
Q

what are tropic hormones?

A

hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary that stimulate other endocrine glands or cells to secrete other hormones

155
Q

name the tropic hormones

A 
thyroid-stimulating hormone
follicle-stimulating hormone
luteinizing hormone
adrenocorticotropic hormone
growth hormone
156
Q

what is another name for thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

thyrotropin

157
Q

what are gonadotropins?

A

follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone

158
Q

what is another name for adrenocorticotropic hormone?

A

corticotropin

159
Q

what are the tropic effects of growth hormone?

A

stimulates liver to release insulin-like growth factor 1 and 2 (IGF-1 IGF-2)

160
Q

what hormone does the anterior pituitary also release?

A

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
stimulates the rate of melanin synthesis by melanocytes
little effect in humans - usually ceases prior to adulthood

161
Q

what are 3 disorders of growth hormone secretion?

A 
pituitary dwarfism (also associated with low blood-sugar)
pituitary giantism (associated with blood glucose management - diabetes)
acromegaly - excessive GH production in adulthood - increase release of glucose - diabetes
162
Q

What are variable that influence the release of growth hormone releasing hormone from the hypothalamus?

A

age
time of day
nutrient levels in the blood
stress and exercise

163
Q

What is one of the primary targets of GH?

A

hepatocytes - cells in the liver

164
Q

what do hepatocytes do in response to growth hormone?

A

release insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

165
Q

what does insulin-like growth factor do?

A

responsible for greater response from target cells - other than that, similar to growth hormone

166
Q

what is the half life of growth hormone?

A

6-20 minutes

167
Q

what is the half-life of insulin-like growth hormone?

A

20 hours

168
Q

why the difference in half life of GH and IGH?

A

IGH uses carrier proteins in the blood - help protect it from destruction

169
Q

How do bone, muscle and cells respond to GH and IGF?

A

increased growth
increased amino acid uptake —> protein synthesis
stimulated mitosis
cell differentiation

170
Q

how does liver tissue respond to GH and IGF?

A

increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
decreased glycogenesis
so blood glucose levels rise

171
Q

what is diabetogenic?

A

rise in blood glucose as a result of GH stimulation in the liver

172
Q

what happens to adipose connective tissue in response to GH and IGF?

A

increased lipolysis
decreased lipogenesis
increases level of glycerol and fatty acids in the blood

173
Q

why does GH and IGF increase blood glucose and glycerol and fatty acids?

A

growth is energy dependent - need nutrient molecules for generating ATP

174
Q

how are the release of GHRH and GH regulated?

A

negative feedback:
in response to increased levels of GH and IGF, hypothalamus releases growth-hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH) which inhibits release of GH from anterior pituitary
also GH directing inhibits its own release from the anterior pituitary.

175
Q

what does thyroid hormone do?

A

increases metabolic rate and body temperature

176
Q

what controls release of the thyroid hormone?

A

hypothalamus via the anterior pituitary

177
Q

describe the microscopic view of thyroid gland

A

spherical structures are thyroid follicles
walls of each follicle are formed by simple cuboidal epithelial cells called follicular cells
lumen houses protein-rich fluid called colloid
follicular cells produce and release thyroid hormone

178
Q

why is Iodine necessary?

A

Thyroid needs it to make thyroid hormone

179
Q

what causes the hypothalamus to release thyrotropin-releasing hormone?

A

decreased blood levels of thyroid hormone, cold weather, pregnancy, high altitude, hypoglycemia and in children, decreased body temperature

180
Q

What are the two forms of thyroid hormone?

A

triiodothyronine (T3) and tetraiodothyronine (thyroxine) (T4)

181
Q

How are T3 and T4 moved around in the blood?

A

by carrier molecules

182
Q

How do all cells, especially neurons, respond to increased levels of Thyroid hormone?

A

increased metabolic rate

increased glucose uptake

183
Q

how does liver tissue respond to increased levels of thyroid hormone?

A

increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

decreated glycogenesis

184
Q

how does adipose connective tissue respond to increased levels of thyroid hormone?

A

increased lipolysis

decreased lipogenesis

185
Q

how do the lungs respond to increased levels of thyroid hormone?

A

increased breathing rate

helps meet increased O2 demand for aerobic cellular respiration

186
Q

how does the heart respond to increased levels of thyroid hormone?

A

increased heart rate, increased force of contraction

helps meet increased O2 demand for aerobic cellular respiration

187
Q

What does thyroid hormone do in all cells, especially neurons?

A

increases protein synthesis

stimulates the synthesis of sodium-potassium pumps in nervous tissue–>generates heat—> calorigenic effect

188
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A 
excessive production of TH
increased metabolic rate
weight loss
hyperactivity
heat intolerance
189
Q

what is Graves’ disease?

A

hyperthyroidism caused by loss of feedback control by the thyroid
identifying symptom is exophthalmos (bulging eyeballs)

190
Q

what is hypothyroidism?

A 
decreased production of TH
low metabolic rate
lethargy
feeling cold
weight gain
photophobia (sensitivity to light)
191
Q

what is goiter?

A

enlargement of the thyroid - usually due to insufficient iodine
prevents thyroid from producing TH, pituitary keeps releasing TSH, and thyroid follicles and thyroid itself overgrow.

192
Q

what is the glucose-sparing effect?

A

saving blood glucose for the brain by releasing glycerol and fatty acids into the blood as alternative fuel molecules (done by adipose connective tissue in response to thyroid hormone through lipolysis and inhibiting lipogenesis)

193
Q

how is the release of thyrotropin-releasing hormone and thyroid-stimulating hormone regulated?

A

negative feedback - increased TH inhibits release of TRH and TSH, also causes release of growth hormone inhibiting hormone which inhibits release of TSH from anterior pituitary.

194
Q

what are the two areas of the adrenal glands?

A

adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex

195
Q

what is the inner region of the adrenal gland called?

A

adrenal medulla

196
Q

what is the outer region of the adrenal glands called?

A

the adrenal cortex

197
Q

what does the adrenal medulla release?

A

catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine (in response to sympathetic nervous stimulation)

198
Q

what are the 3 regions of the adrenal cortex?

A

zona glomerulosa from outer to inner
zona fasciculata
zona reticularis

199
Q

what does the zona glomerulosa look like?

A

thin, dense, spherical clusters of cells

just underneath the capsule

200
Q

what does the zona glomerulosa do?

A

synthesizes mineralocorticoids - aldosterone is the principal mineralocorticoid
helps regulate the composition & concentration of electrolytes in body fluids

201
Q

what does aldosterone regulate?

A

ratio of Na+ and K+ by altering the amounts excreted by the kidney into the urine - stimulates Na+ retention and K+ secretion

202
Q

what does the zona fasciculata look like?

A

“bundle of sticks” - middle biggest layer - parallel cords bubbly and pale

203
Q

what does the zona fasciculata do?

A

synthesizes glucocorticoids - primarily cortisol and corticosterone.

204
Q

what does the zona reticularis look like?

A

innermost region of the cortex - (network) narrow band of small, branching cells

205
Q

what does the zona reticularis do?

A

secretes minor amounts of sex hormones called gonadocorticoids - primary one is androgen
converted to estrogen in females

206
Q

what do glucocorticoids do?

A

increase nutrient levels in the blood (glucose, fatty acids and amino acids) especially in an attempt to resist stress and help repair injured or damaged tissues

207
Q

What is the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis?

A

corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) is released from hypothalamus, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is released from anterior pituitary, then cortisol is released from adrenal cortex

208
Q

how does cortisol travel through the blood?

A

transported by carrier proteins, randombly becomes unbound from its carrier protein & exits the blood

209
Q

what are variables that act on the hypothalamus to stimulate release of CRH - corticotropin-releasing hormone?

A

negative feedback by cortisol
time of day
stress

210
Q

What is the net effect of cortisol release from the adrenal cortex?

A

increase of all nutrients in the blood

211
Q

How does the liver respond to cortisol?

A

stimulation of gluconeogenesis (use of amino acids and fatty acids)
releasing glucose into the blood, (removing glycerol fatty acids and amino acids)

212
Q

how does adipose connective tissue respond to cortisol?

A

stimulation of lipolysis and inhibition of lipogenesis

release of glycerol fatty acids into the blood

213
Q

how do all cells respond to cortisol?

A

stimulation of protein catabolism (occurs in all cells except hepatocytes)
releasing amino acids into the blood

214
Q

what do high doses of cortisol do?

A

increase retention of Na+ and H2O
decrease inflammation
suppress the immune system
inhibit connective tissue repair

215
Q

Does cortisol stimulate most cells to increase or decrease glucose uptake?

A

decrease = glucose-sparing effect so saves blood glucose for use in the brain

216
Q

How is release of CRH and ACTH regulated?

A

negative feedback

increasing levels of cortisol inhibit release of CRH from hypothalamus and ACTH from anterior pituitary.

217
Q

What is the stress response - general adaptation syndrome?

A
  1. alarm reaction (sympathetic autonomic nervous system response)
  2. stage of resistance - after a few hours as glycogen in liver is depleted - regulated by endocrine system - relase of glucocorticoids (cortisol) to provide glucose to meet the increased energy demands
  3. stage of exhaustion - after weeks or months as fat stores in adipose connective tissue are depleted - weakness, electrolyte imbalances (due to elevated levels of aldosterone) bad news
218
Q

what are the pancreatic hormones?

A

insulin and glucagon

219
Q

what are the major types of cells in the pancreas?

A

pancreatic acini and pancreatic islets

220
Q

what is another name for pancreatic islets?

A

islets of Langerhans

221
Q

what kinds of cells make up a pancreatic islet?

A

alpha cells (secrete glucagon) and beta cells (secrete insulin)

222
Q

how do you tell the pancreatic islet from the acinus?

A

acinus are wheel shape, islets take up much less volume - more wavy and irregular looking

223
Q

what is the primary function of the pancreas?

A

maintain the concentration of glucose in the blood within normal range - 70-110mg/dL

224
Q

what usually causes insulin release from the pancreas?

A

food intake - increase in blood glucose

225
Q

How does liver tissue respond to insulin?

A

increased glycogenesis

decreated glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

226
Q

how does adipose connective tissue respond to insulin?

A

increased lipogenesis

decreased lipolysis

227
Q

how do all cells (especially muscle) respond to insulin?

A

increased uptake of amino acids, which stimulate protein anabolism

228
Q

how do most cells respond to insulin?

A

increased uptake of glucose by increasing glucose transport proteins in the plasma membrane

229
Q

what is the net effect of insulin release?

A

decreased blood glucose (fatty acids and amino acids are also decreased in the blood).
results in both a decrease in all nutrients in the blood and in an increase in the synthesis of the storage form of these molecules within body tissues.

230
Q

what controls glucose the release of insulin?

A

negative feedback - as blood glucose levels decrease, less insulin is released from the pancreas

231
Q

what does nervous tissue depend on for cellular respiration?

A

glucose

232
Q

what is the stimulus for glucagon release?

A

decrease in blood glucose levels

233
Q

what cells release glucagon?

A

alpha cells in the pancreas

234
Q

what is the livers response to glucagon?

A

increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

decreased glycogenesis

235
Q

what is adipose connective tissue’s response to glucagon?

A

increased lipolysis

decreased lipogenesis

236
Q

what is the net effect of glucagon release?

A

increased blood glucose and fatty acid levels (no change in amino acids or proteins)

237
Q

what are formed elements?

A

erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets

238
Q

What is the function of erythrocytes?

A

transport respiratory gases in the blood

239
Q

what is the function of leukocytes?

A

to defend the body against pathogens

240
Q

what is the function of platelets?

A

clot blood and prevent blood loss from damaged vessels

241
Q

what is plasma?

A

fluid portion of blood - contains plasma proteins and dissolved solutes

242
Q

what are the general functions of blood?

A

transportaion, regulation and protection

243
Q

how does blood regulate body temperature?

A

absorbs heat from body cells, releases heat from body at surface as blood is transported through blood vessels of the skin

244
Q

What is cushing syndrome?

A

excessive levels of glucocorticoid hormones

body obesity - especially in face & buffalo hump

245
Q

what is addison disease?

A

chronic shortage of glucocorticoids and sometimes mineralocorticoids
weight loss, fatigue and weakness, hypotension & darkening of the skin

246
Q

what is adrenogenital syndrome (or androgen insensitivity syndrome or congenital adrenal hyperplasia)?

A

inability to synthesize corticosteroids. anterior pituitary released massive amounts of ACTH - results in intermediate hormones making testosterone-like effect–>virilization (masculinization)

247
Q

what does diabetes mellitus mean?

A

sweetened with honey

248
Q

what is diabetes mellitus

A

inadequate uptake of glucose from the blood
damage blood vessels - especially smaller arterioles
leading cause of retinal blindness, kidney failure & nontraumatic leg amputations
heart disease and stroke risk

249
Q

what is type 1 diabetes?

A

juvenile diabetes (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus)
absent or diminished production & release of insulin by the pancreatic islet cells
trigger can be viral infection leading to autoimmune destruction of beta cells in pancreas
daily injections of insulin

250
Q

what is type 2 diabetes?

A

insulin-independent diabetes mellitus
obesity plays role
decreased insulin release from pancreatic beta cells or decreased insulin effectiveness at peripheral tissue

251
Q

what is gestational diabetes?

A

latter half of pregnancy
can pose risk to fetus as well as delivery complications
resolves after giving birth, but 20%-50% chance of developing type 2 diabetes within 10 years.

252
Q

what is hypoglycemia?

A

when blood glucose levels drop below 60 mg/dL
symptoms thought to occur from insufficient glucose to the brain or from activation of the sympathetic nervous system in response to low glucose levels.

253
Q

what color is oxygen poor blood?

A

dark red

254
Q

what color is oxygen rich blood?

A

bright red

255
Q

what is the average volume of blood in an adult?

A

5L

256
Q

how viscous is blood?

A

4-5 times more viscous than water

257
Q

why is plasma concentration important?

A

relative concentration of solutes in plasma determines whether fluids move into or out of plasma by osmosis as blood goes through capillaries

258
Q

what is the temperature of blood?

A

about 1 degree higher than body temp - so it is 38 degrees C (or 100.4 degrees F)

259
Q

what is blood pH?

A

slightly alkaline 7.35-7.45

260
Q

what does a centrifuge do to blood?

A

separates whole blood into erythrocytes (about 44%), buffy coat (less than 1% - the platelets and leukocytes), and plasma (about 55% water, proteins and other solutes)

261
Q

what is a hemotocrit?

A

percentage of the volume of all formed elements in the blood (erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets)

262
Q

what kind of fluid is plasma?

A

extracellular (because it is body fluid found outside of cells)
similar to interstitial fluid, but protein concentration is higher in plasma than in interstitial fluid.

263
Q

what prevents loss of fluid from the blood as it moves through the capillaries?

A

osmotic pressure of plasma proteins (higher concentration in blood than out of blood, so water wants to come in)

264
Q

what is colloid osmotic pressure?

A

osmotic pressure exerted by plasma proteins

265
Q

what is the composition of blood plasma?

A 
water (92%)
plasma proteins (about 7%)
albumin(58% of plasma proteins)
globulins(37% of plasma proteins)
fibrinogen(4% of plasma proteins)
regulatory proteins(less than 1% of plasma proteins)
other solutes (less than 1%)
electrolytes
nutrients
respiratory gases
wastes
266
Q

what is the function of albumin?

A

exerts osmotic force to retain fluid within the blood
contributes to blood’s viscosity
responsible for some fatty acid and hormone transport

267
Q

what is the function of globulins?

A

alpha-globulins transport lipids and some metal ions
beta-globulins transport iron ions and lipids in blood
gamma-globulins are antibodies that immobilize pathogens

268
Q

what is the function of fibrinogen?

A

participates in blood coagulation

269
Q

what is the function of regulatory proteins in the blood?

A

enzymes accelerate chemical reactions in the blood and hormones - being transported throughout the body to target cells

270
Q

what is the function of electrolytes in the blood?

A

helps establish and maintain membrane potentials, maintain pH balance, and regulate osmosis

271
Q

what is the function of nutrients in the blood?

A

energy source - precursor for synthesizing other molecules

272
Q

what is the function of respiratory gases in the blood?

A

O2 is needed for aerobic cellular respiration, carbon dioxide is a waste produce produced by cells during this process

273
Q

what are the function of wastes in the blood?

A

no function - just being transported to liver and kidneys where they can be removed

274
Q

what is serum?

A

plasma with clotting proteins removed

275
Q

what regulates sodium blood level?

A

aldosterone, estrogen, progesterone, glucocorticoids and atrial natruirietic peptide (ANP)

276
Q

what regulates potassium blood levels?

A

Aldosterone, ANP (atrial natruirietic peptide)

277
Q

what regulates Calcium blood levels?

A

parathyroid hormone, calcitriol, calcitonin

278
Q

what regulates Hydrogen blood levels?

A

buffering systems - chemicals in blood, kidney and respiratory system

279
Q

what regulates hydrogen phosphate blood levels?

A

parathyroid hormone

280
Q

what is the function, lifespan and density of erythrocytes?

A

transport oxygen and CO2, 120 days, 4.8-5.4 million per microliter

281
Q

what is the function, life span and density of leukocytes?

A

initial immune response, defend against potentially harmful substances, 12 hours (neutrophils) to years (lymphocytes), 4500-11,000 per microliter

282
Q

what are the function, life span and density of platelets?

A

participate in blood clotting, 8-10 days, 150,000-400,000 per micro liter

283
Q

what is hemopoiesis?

A

process of producing formed elements

284
Q

what are hemocytoblasts?

A

blood stem cells - pluripotent - they can differentiate and develop into many different kinds of cells

285
Q

What kind of lines do hemocytoblasts produce?

A

myeloid line and lymphoid line

286
Q

what do myeloid stem cells produce?

A

erythrocytes
all leukocytes except lymphocytes (including granulocytes and monocytes) and megakaryocytes (cells that produce platelets)

287
Q

what do lymphoid stem cells produce?

A

lymphocytes

288
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

process of erythrocyte production

289
Q

how fast are erythrocytes produced?

A

3 million per second

290
Q

what controls the rate of erythrocyte production?

A

erythropoietin (EPO) - hormone that increases production

291
Q

what are the dietary requirements for erythropoeisis?

A

iron, B vitamins and amino acids

292
Q

what are the steps of erythropoeisis?

A

begins with myeloid stem cell

  • > progenitor cell
  • > proerythroblast (has a nucleus)
  • > erythroblast (producing hemoglobin in cytoplasm)
  • > normoblast (nucleus has been ejected)
  • > reticulocyte (no organelles except ribosomes, but produces hemoglobin
  • > mature erythrocyte (plasma membrane bag with hemoglobin
293
Q

how long does erythropoeisis take?

A

about 7 days

294
Q

what is leukopoiesis?

A

production of leukocytes

295
Q

what are the 3 types of granulocytes?

A

neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils

296
Q

How are granulocytes formed?

A

myeloid stem cell

  • > progenitor cell
  • > myeloblast
  • > differentiates into 1 of 3 granulocytes
297
Q

how is a monocyte formed?

A

myeloid stem cell

  • > progenitor cell
  • > monoblast
  • > promonocyte
  • > monocyte
298
Q

what is thrombopoiesis?

A

production of platelets

299
Q

How are platelets formed?

A

myeloid stem cell

  • > megakaryoblast
  • > under influence of thrombopoietin, forms megakaryocyte
  • > produces thousands of platelets
300
Q

what is the structure of a erythrocyte?

A

plasma membrane with 280 million hemoglobin molecules

301
Q

what do erythrocytes do?

A

transport oxygen and carbon dioxide between tissues and lungs

302
Q

what is hemoglobin?

A

red pigmented protein that transports oxygen and CO2

303
Q

explain a hemoglobin molecule

A

4 protein building blocks called globins, 2 alpha and 2 beta, each have a heme group that has iron in the center - O2 binds to the iron - so each hemoglobin can carry 4 oxygens

304
Q

who produces erythropoeitin?

A

kidneys primarily, liver small amount

305
Q

How does EPO (erythropoietin) regulate erythrocyte production?

A

kidney detects decreased blood O2, kidney cells release EPO into blood, EPO stimulates red bone marrow to increase the rate of production of erythrocytes, net effect: increased numbers of erythrocytes enter circulation, lungs oxygenate erythrocytes and blood O2 level increases
increased O2 levels are detected by the kidney, which inhibits EPO release by negative feedback

306
Q

how does the adrenal gland participate in erythropoeisis?

A

secretes testosterone which stimulates kidneys to produce more EPO.

307
Q

what is the down side to increased rbc’s in blood?

A

increases viscosity which could increase chance of cardiovascular complications (blood clots leading to heart attacks or strokes)

308
Q

What happens as erythrocytes age?

A

removed from circulation - phagocytized in spleen and liver by macrophages

309
Q

what molecular components of hemoglobin have to be accounted for in destruction of erythrocytes?

A

globin protein
iron ion
heme group

310
Q

what happens to the globin proteins of hemoglobin?

A

broken down into amino acids and reenter the blood. some may be used to make new erythrocytes

311
Q

what happens to the iron ions of hemoglobin?

A

transported by globulin protein called transferrin to the liver. Fe2+ then bound to storage proteins called ferritin and hemosiderin. stored mainly in liver and spleen then transported by transferrin to red bone marrow as needed for erythrocyte production.
some iron lost in feces, sweat, urine and menstrual flow

312
Q

what happens to the heme group of hemoglobin?

A

converted within macrophages to biliverdin and bilirubin, transported by albumin to the liver - eventually expelled in feces, urine or absorbed back into blood

313
Q

what determines your ABO blood type?

A

presence of two surface antigens, A antigen and/or B antigen

314
Q

what kinds of antigens are present on RBC’s for each blood type?

A

Type A: antigen A
Type B: antigen B
Type AB: antigens A and B
Type O: neither antigen

315
Q

what antibodies are present in the blood plasma of each ABO blood type?

A

Type A: anti-B antibodies
Type B: anti-A antibodies
Type AB: neither Anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
Type O: both Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

316
Q

what is agglutination?

A

when antibodies in plasma bind to surface antigens of transufed erythrocytes and clump them together

317
Q

what is hemolysis?

A

when erythrocytes rupture

318
Q

why is hemolysis bad?

A

releases fragments into the blood - osmotic pressure - ultimately can damage organs

319
Q

What determines Rh blood type?

A

Rh+ has surface antigen D

Rh- has no surface antigen D

320
Q

how is Rh antibody production different than ABO?

A

Rh antibodies not present until they are exposed to foreign antigen. so an Rh negative individual does not have anti-D antibodies until she is exposed to Rh+ blood.

321
Q

which type of Rh blood can have anti-D antibodies?

A

only Rh- after exposure to Rh+ blood

322
Q

what is hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN?)

A

when Rh- mother has been exposed to Rh+ blood previous to pregnancy, Rh+ fetus is attacked by anti-D antibodies in mother.

323
Q

what is anemia?

A

any condition in which either the percentage of erythrocytes is lower than normal or the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced
lethargy, shortness of breath, pallor of the skin and mucous membranes, fatigue & heart palpitations

324
Q

how are leukocytes different from erythrocytes?

A

leukocytes have nucleus and cellular organelles, 1.5-3 times bigger, and don’t contain hemoglobin.

325
Q

what is diapedesis?

A

the process where leukocytes enter the tissues from blood vessels by squeezing between the endothelial cells of the blood vessel wall.

326
Q

what is chemotaxis?

A

process in which leukocytes are attracted to a site of infection by the presence of molecules released by damaged cells, dead cells, or invading pathogens.

327
Q

describe neutrophils

A

multilobed nucleus, neutral or pale granules, 50-70% of total leukocytes

328
Q

what is the function of neutrophils?

A

phagocytize pathogens, especially bacteria

release enzymes that target pathogens

329
Q

describe eosinophils

A

nucleus is bilobed
cytoplasm is reddish or pink-orange
1-4% of total leukocytes

330
Q

what is the function of eosinophils?

A

phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes and allergens

release chemical mediators to destroy parasitic worms

331
Q

describe basophils

A

nucleus is bilobed

cytoplasm contains deep blue-violet specific granules (dark dark hard to see)

332
Q

what is the function of basophils?

A

release histamine (vasodilator and increases capillary permeability) and heparin (anticoagulant) during inflammatory reactions

333
Q

describe lymphocytes

A

round or slightly indented nucleus - fills the cell in smaller lymphocytes
agranular
nucleus is usually dark stained
thin rim of cytoplasm surrounds nucleus

334
Q

what is the function of lymphocytes

A

coordinate immune cell activity
attack pathogens and abnormal and infected cells
produce antibodies

335
Q

describe monocytes

A

kidney-shaped or C-shaped nucleus
nucleus is generally pale staining
agranular
abundant cytoplasm around nucleus

336
Q

what is the function of a monocyte?

A 
exit blood vessels to become macrophages
phagocytize pathogens (bacteria, viruses), cellular fragments, dead cells, debris
337
Q

name the leukocytes in order of relative abundance

A 
never let monkeys eat bananas
neutrophils
lymphocytes
monocytes
eosinophils
basophils
338
Q

what is leukopenia?

A

reduced number of leukocytes

decreases ability to fight infection effectively

339
Q

what is leukocytosis?

A

elevated leukocyte count

340
Q

what are associated with neutrophilia

A

increased neutrophil count

acute bacterial infections, acute stress, and tissue necrosis

341
Q

what is decreased neutrophil count?

A

neutropenia

may be due to certain anemias, drug or radiation therapy

342
Q

what causes lymphocytosis?

A

increased number of lymphocytes

viral infections like mumps, rubella or mono

343
Q

how are platelets different from erythrocytes

A

neither have a nucleus, but platelets never did have one

344
Q

what is hemostasis?

A

process where the blood clots and stops blood flow through an injured blood vessel wall

345
Q

what are the three phases of hemostasis?

A

vascular spasm
platelet plug formation
coagulation phase

346
Q

what is vascular spasm

A

when a blood vessel is injured, blood vessel constricts suddenly to limit the amount of blood that can leak from damaged vessel
lasts from a few to many minutes

347
Q

what is prostacyclin?

A

an eicosanoid that normally coats the inner lining of a blood vessel - serves as platelet repellent

348
Q

what happens when blood vessel is damaged?

A

collagen fibers within the ct beneat the endothelial cells in vessel wall become exposed, platelets stick to them with help of plasma protein called von Willebrand factor - bridge between platelets and collagen fibers.

349
Q

What happens to platelets as they start to form plug?

A

morphological change - develop long processes and become activated->cytoplasm granulates and releases chemicals to assist with hemostasis

350
Q

when platelets are activated, what happens in response to the released chemicals?

A

prolonged vascular spasm (with release of seratonin and thromboxane A2)
attraction of other platelets (with release of adenosine diphosphate and thromboxane A2)
stimulation of coagulation (with release of procoagulants)
repair of blood vessel

351
Q

what are two ways to initiate the coagulation cascade?

A

intrinsic pathway and extrinsic pathway

352
Q

how is the intrinsic pathway initiated?

A

by damage to the inside of the vessel wall - initiated by platelets
takes approximately 3-6 minutes

353
Q

how is the extrinsic pathway initiated?

A

by damage to the tissue that is outside the vessel - usually takes about 15 seconds

354
Q

what are the steps of the intrinsic pathway?

A

platelets adhere to a damaged vessel wall and release factor XII
factor XII converts the inactive factor XI to the active factor XI
factor XI changes inactive factor IX to active factor IX
factor IX binds with Ca2+ and platelet factor 3 to form a complex that converts inactive factor VIII to active factor VIII
factor VIII changes inactive factor X to active factor X

355
Q

what are the steps of the extrinsic pathway?

A

tissue thromboplastin is released from damaged tissues and combines with factor VII and Ca2+ to form a complex
complex converts inactive factor X to active factor X

356
Q

what are the steps of the common pathway?

A

factor X combines with factors II and V, Ca2+ and platelet factor 3 to form prothrombin activator
prothrombin activator activates prothrombin to thrombin
thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin
in the presence of Ca2+, factor XIII is activated, factor XIII cross-links and stabilizes the fibrin monomers into a fibrin polymer that serves as the framework of the clot

357
Q

what happens when over 10% of blood is lost?

A

sympathetic division of autonomic nervous system is activated - vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, increased force of heart contraction to maintain blood pressure - blood flow is also redistributed to heart and brain.

358
Q

how does a clot get eliminated?

A

clot retraction and fibrinolysis

359
Q

what is clot retraction?

A

actinomyosin (a contractile protein in platelets), contracts and squeezes the serum out of the developing clot - pulls sides of vessel wall closer together and makes clot smaller.

360
Q

what is fibrinolysis?

A

plasmin degrades fibrin strands - the fibrin framework of the clot
begins within 2 days of clot formation & occurs slowly over a number of days

361
Q

What is sickle cell anemia?

A

a genetic disorder in which abnormal hemoglobin is produced

362
Q

what is aplastic anemia?

A

bone marrow is destroyed or severely inhibited

363
Q

what is hemorrhagic anemia?

A

a consequence of acute blood loss

364
Q

what is pernicious anemia?

A

trouble with vitamin 12 uptake

365
Q

what is hemolytic anemia?

A

a common occurrence after a transfusion error

a&p (5 decks)

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