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Epidemiology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F most foodborne disease originates from animals

A

T

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2
Q

T/F zoonoses account for 60% of emerging diseases

A

F: 75%

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3
Q

What is epizootiology?

A

study of the distribution and determinants of disease and other health outcomes in animal populations

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4
Q

How is cholera transmitted?

A

fecal oral (thanks John Snow)

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5
Q

T/F With disease prevention, knowing the mode of transmission is more important than knowing the specific agent of disease

A

T

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6
Q

What is a reservoir?

A

habitat in which an infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies; maintains pathogen over time

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7
Q

3 questions to determine if an animal is a reservoir

A
  1. is it naturally infected
  2. can that animal maintain the pathogen over time
  3. can it transmit to a new susceptible host
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8
Q

balanced pathogenicity

A

pathogens can cause chronic infections with minimal symptoms

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9
Q

T/F if you are infected, you have the disease

A

F

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10
Q

T/F clinically ill animals that are reservoir competent are probably infectious

A

T

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11
Q

T/F all sick animals are reservoirs

A

F

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12
Q

T/F you must be clinically ill to be a reservoir

A

F: asymptomatic carriers

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13
Q

vertical transmission

A

from a reservoir host to its offspring

  • congenital : crosses placenta
  • perinatal: parturition, colostrum
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14
Q

horizontal transmission

A

from the reservoir to a new host

direct or indirect

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15
Q

T/F vectors must be living organisms

A

T

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16
Q

mechanical vector

A

the agent does not multiply while in or on the arthropod

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17
Q

biological vector

A

the agent undergoes change or multiplies while in the arthropod and the arthropod is necessary for transmission

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18
Q

What is the vector for Lyme disease?

A

ticks!

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19
Q

What is the reservoir host for West Nile?

A

birds

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20
Q

latent period

A

microbe is multiplying but not yet enough for host to be infectious

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21
Q

incubation period

A

microbe is replicating but not yet symptomatic yet **doesn’t always correlate with latent period

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22
Q

infestation

A

invasion but not multiplication of an organism on/in a host

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23
Q

contagious

A

disease capable of transmission via direct or aerosol routes

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24
Q

What do epidemic curves represent?

A

new cases of disease over time

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25
Q

The propagated source curve represents what kind of diseases?

A

contagious diseases

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26
Q

In a propagated source curve, what do the spaces between “waves” represent?

A

incubation period

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27
Q

T/F With a common source single point exposure curve, all animals are exposed at once.

A

T: it only forms one peak!

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28
Q

T/F with a common source intermittent exposure, the incubation period is clearly shown

A

F: this is the crazy looking curve

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29
Q

endemic stability

A

all factors influencing the disease are relatively stable, resulting in little fluctuation in incidence over time

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30
Q

primary determinant

A

major contributing factor, often necessary

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31
Q

secondary determinant

A

make the disease more or less likely

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32
Q

T/F primary determinants must be there for the disease to occur

A

T

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33
Q

primary extrinsic determinant for bovine shipping fever

A

exposure to shipping fever

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34
Q

secondary extrinsic determinant for bovine shipping fever

A

if you mix cattle

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35
Q

primary intrinsic determinant for bovine shipping fever

A

immunologically naive animal

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36
Q

secondary intrinsic determinant for bovine shipping fever

A

young cattle

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37
Q

primary extrinsic determinant for flea allergy dermatitis

A

exposure to fleas

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38
Q

Which determinant is the best target for prevention of disease?

A

something that is both primary and extrinsic

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39
Q

intrinsic host determinants

A

age, breed, sex, nutrition, immunity, genotype

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40
Q

Is diet an extrinsic or intrinsic determinant?

A

extrinsic

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41
Q

Is nutritional status extrinsic or intrinsic determinant?

A

intrinsic

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42
Q

Is vaccination an extrinsic or intrinsic determinant?

A

extrinsic

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43
Q

Is immunity extrinsic or intrinsic?

A

intrinsic

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44
Q

Does herd immunity protect individuals?

A

NO: some non-immune individuals will probably get infected

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45
Q

What is a human example of herd immunity?

A

When people stopped getting the MMR vaccine becaucse of autism scare

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46
Q

What is an emerging disease?

A

a previously unknown disease that suddenly appears in a population OR a known disease that appears in a new population

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47
Q

What is a re-emerging disease?

A

a known disease that was on the decline but is now becoming more common and will likely continue to do so

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48
Q

What does disease detection involve?

A

identifies something abnormal, diagnose the dilemma

49
Q

What does disease investigation involve?

A

communicates disease importance, attracts resources

50
Q

What does disease control involve?

A

implement disease control, management, eradication

51
Q

What are the stages of cross-species disease emergence?

A
  1. pathogen exclusive to animal reservoir
  2. transmits to another species, but no transmission among them
  3. transmits to another species with a few cycles of transmission
  4. transmits to another species with sustained transmission
  5. pathogen exclusive to new species
52
Q

Examples of stage 2 diseases

A

rabies, WEEV, EEEV, West Nile, Influenza H1N1

53
Q

Examples of stage 3 diseases

A

Mycobacterium bovis, Nipah virus

54
Q

Examples of stage 4 diseases

A

SARS, Schmallenberg, H1N1

55
Q

T/F pathogens that cross between distantly related species often cause more severe disease

A

T

56
Q

4 portals of entry for transboundary disease

A
  1. animals/animal products
  2. vectors
  3. fomites
  4. people
57
Q

What is bioterrorism?

A

deliberate release of viruses, bacteria, toxins or other harmful agents used to cause illness or death in people, animals, or plants

58
Q

What is agroterrorism

A

malicious attempt to disrupt or destroy the agricultural industry and/or food supply system of a population through the malicious use of plant or animal pathogens to cause devastating disease in the agricultural sectors

59
Q

4 phases of disaster management

A

preparedness
response
recovery
mitigation

60
Q

What is mitigation?

A

attempt to prevent hazards from developing into disasters or to reduce effects of disasters

61
Q

What is preparedness?

A

plans and preparations made to save lives and property and to facilitate response operations

62
Q

What is response?

A

actions taken to provide emergency assistance, save lives, minimize property damage,e and speed recovery

63
Q

What is recovery?

A

actions taken to return to normal or improved condition following a disaster

64
Q

What are some issues with companion animals in disasters?

A
  • failure of people to evacuate because of pets
  • animal ID
  • animal abandonment
65
Q

What are some issues with large animals in disasters?

A
  • carcass disposal
  • vet manpower
  • environmental contamination
  • animal ID
66
Q

What is CART?

A

county animal response team intended for use by local government and agencies to take immediate action in providing means of care to minimize animal suffering in the event of a large scale disaster

67
Q

What is SART?

A

State animal response team; interagency organization; public private partnership, joining governmental agencies with private goals

68
Q

What is VMAT?

A

veterinary medical assistance team (federal); must be requested by a state; operate under AVMA

69
Q

What are VMATs 3 functions

A
  • early assessment volunteer teams
  • basic treatment volunteer teams
  • training
70
Q

What is NVRT?

A

national veterinary response team; part of Dept of Health (federal); intermittent federal employees

71
Q

What is NAHERC?

A

part of USDA; respond to exotic disease outbreaks and other disasters which affect livestock, poultry, companion animals and wildlife

72
Q

US public health service

A

federal employee; 100+ vets included

73
Q

What is NRF?

A

national response framework establishes comprehensive, national, all-hazards approach to domestic incident response; through Dept Homeland Security;

*always in effect

74
Q

What is NIMS?

A

national incident management system; core set of concepts, principles, and terminology for incident common and multi-agency coordination

75
Q

What is the incident command system?

A

part of NIMS, standardized, all-hazard incident management with standardized terminology; 1:5 ratio ideal

76
Q

Which two ICS functions are vets involved with?

A

operations and planning

77
Q

How are diseases chosen to be considered “regulatory”?

A

adverse impact on agriculture or human health risk

78
Q

T/F countries which are members of OIE must report an outbreak of a notifiable disease within 48 hours

A

F: 24 hours

79
Q

T/F the USDA has vets in every state

A

T

80
Q

What is the only lab in the US that can diagnose a FAD?

A

USDA lab

81
Q

T/F negative results from state labs count but positive results must be confirmed at USDA lab

A

T

82
Q

T/F only accredited vets can perform health certificate exams and activities related to bovine TB, rabies

A

T

83
Q

Category II accreditation

A

all animals without exclusions; 6 units supplemental training every 3 years

84
Q

Category I accreditation

A

excludes food and fiber species, horses, all birds, farm-raised aquatic species, and zoo animals that could transmit diseases to livestock; 3 units supplemental training every 3 years

85
Q

risk equations

A 
risk = probability X severity 
risk = hazard + outrage
86
Q

T/F fear is more common than denial

A

T but denial is more dangerous

87
Q

4 risk communication tasks

A
  1. precaution advocacy
  2. outrage management
  3. crisis communication
  4. sweet spot
88
Q

precaution advocacy

A

hazard high and outrage low

89
Q

outrage management

A

hazard low and outrage high

90
Q

crisis communication

A

hazard high and outrage high

91
Q

sweet spot

A

hazard and outrage intermediate

92
Q

What are 2 common risk communication mistakes in vet med?

A

withholding information with the intent to prevent panic; over-assurance of audience to lessen their fear

93
Q

T/F trade borders can be closed if a nation has substandard surveillance

A

T even if not dz is detected

94
Q

3 components of surveillance

A

detection
response
communication

95
Q

biosurveillance

A

surveillance of humans, animals and plants for diseases affecting any or all of them

96
Q

passive surveillance

A

submission initiated by and at discretion of sample provider; little or no control over who provides samples

*most common

97
Q

What type of surveillance are reportable disease programs?

A

passive

98
Q

active surveillance

A

vets identify subjects for sample collection; can be representative of population (but not necessarily)

99
Q

T/F active surveillance is good for early detection of disease outbreaks

A

F

100
Q

sentinel surveillance

A

a small group is monitored as an indicator of the greater population health or disease risk

101
Q

targeted surveillance

A

targets a specific segment of the population to enhance detection of disease

102
Q

What is required to maintain accredited free status for bovine TB?

A
  • make bovine TB reportable by law
  • vet infrastructure that can conduct TB eradication program
  • surveillance to show prevalence is
103
Q

primary prevention

A

aimed at maintaining a healthy population, preventing occurrence of a disease

104
Q

What are some examples of primary prevention?

A

vaccination, border security, meat hygiene

105
Q

secondary prevention

A

attempts to minimize damage after disease has occurred

106
Q

What are some examples of secondary prevention?

A

PE and annual bloodwork for geriatric pets, test and slaughter

107
Q

tertiary prevention

A

rehabilitation after primary and secondary prevention have failed

108
Q

T/F tertiary prevention applies mostly to the population

A

F: to the individual

symptomatic, diseased patient

109
Q

Corrective shoes for equine navicular disease is an example of what kind of prevention?

A

tertiary

110
Q

What is defined as steps taken to reduce a disease problem to a tolerable level and maintain that level?

A

control *similar to secondary prevention

111
Q

What is practical eradication?

A

elimination of an organism from reservoirs of importance to humans or domestic animals

112
Q

What is an example of a disease managed with practical eradication?

A

rabies

113
Q

What is an example of a disease that is totally eradicated?

A

smallpox or rinderpest

114
Q

T/F an animal can be infected before the symptomatic period of disease?

A

T

115
Q

How do you achieve reservoir neutralization?

A
  • removing infected individuals
  • rendering infected individuals non shedders
  • manipulating environment with parasite/mosquito control
116
Q

Leash laws to control rabies is which principle of disease control?

A

reducing contact potential

117
Q

What are some ways to increase host resistance?

A

genetic selection, good welfare, chemoprophylaxis, vaccination

118
Q

T/F WTO member nations have the right to apply any measures to protect human, animal and plant life

A

F: must be based on science

Epidemiology (2 decks)

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