Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Adult 1 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Self markers on the surface of all cells

A

Human Leukocyte Antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

For a person to be considered immunocompetent, which three processes must be intact and functioning?

A
  1. Inflammation
  2. Cell-mediated immunity
  3. Antibody mediated (humoral) immunity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

“natural immunity,” cannot be developed or transferred from one person to another, not an adaptive response to exposure

A

Innate-native immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Recruitment and emigration of WBCs

A

Chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Destroys bacteria and cellular debris

A

Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Weak phagocytic action; releases vasoactive amines during allergic reactions

A

Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Releases histamine and heparin in areas of tissue damage

A

Basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nonspecific recognition of foreign proteins and microorganisms; ingestion and phagocytosis

A

Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nonspecific ingestion and phagocytosis of microorganisms and foreign protein

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Becomes sensitized to foreign cells and proteins

A

B-Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Secretes immunoglobulins (antibodies) in response to the presence of a specific antigen

A

Plasma Cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Remains sensitized to a specific antigen and can secrete increased amounts of immunoglobulins specific to the antigen on re-exposure

A

Memory B Cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Enhances immune activity through secretion of various factors, cytokines, and lymphokines

A

Helper/Inducer T-cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Selectively attacks and destroys non-self cells, including virally infected cells, grafts, and transplanted organs

A

Cytotoxic/cytolytic T-cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nonselectively attacks non-self cells, especially body cells that have undergone mutation and become malignant; also attacks grafts and transplanted organs

A

Natural Killer Cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Make up between 55% and 70% of the normal total WBC count

A

Mature Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

WBCs that increase during an infection

A

Banded Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Increase during an allergic reaction

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vascular stage of inflammation

A

Momentary vasoconstriction followed by vasodilatation and capillary leakage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Major cells of the vascular stage

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Provide protection after invaders, especially bacteria, enter the body

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mature neutrophils

A

Segmented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Immature neutrophils

A

Band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An increase in the band cells (immature neutrophils) in the white blood cell differential count; an early indication of infection

A

Left Shift or Bandemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Difference in macrophages and neutrophils

A

Macrophages have a longer life span, neutrophils arrive at infection site earlier, macrophage can present the antigenic fragments to t cells with MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) after engulfing the bacterial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which cells cause the manifestations of inflammation?

A

Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Very active against infestations of parasitic larvae and also limits inflammatory reactions

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Resultant formation of pus, necrotic tissue and increased edema

A

Cellular stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Major cells of cellular stage, arrive first to engulf

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Latex allergies go along with what?

A

Tomatoes/bananas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Iodine allergies go along with what?

A

Shellfish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

New blood vessel growth

A

Angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When does stage 3 begin?

A

At the time of injury

34
Q

Immunity w/out antibodies but with recognition of antigen by T cells and their destruction of cells or on the secretion by T cells that enhance the ability of phagocytes to eliminate the antigen, also involves macrophages

A

Cell-mediated (adaptive)

35
Q

B cells produce circulating antibodies in response to the presence of a foreign substance and recognize the substance upon renewed exposure

A

Antibody-mediated

36
Q

May be transferred to other people, “active immunity,” must bind to an antigen

A

Antibodies

37
Q

Clumping of antigen/antibody complexes

A

Agglutination

38
Q

Overall function of T8

A

To suppress the immune response

39
Q

T4

A

Helper cells

40
Q

Ratio of T4 and T8

A

Should be twice as many T4s

41
Q

Protein hormones and thus are messengers telling cells in the immune response how and when to act

42
Q

Include interleukins, interferons, colony stimulating factors, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

43
Q
  • Cytokines produced by macrophages

- Cytokines produced by T cells

A
  • Monokines

- Lymphokines

44
Q

Rejection that occurs immediately when the host has preformed antibodies to the organ

A

Hyperacute

45
Q

Occurs within the first few months owing to vaculitis→hypoperfusion and T and NK cell activity

46
Q

The donated organ is scarred and becomes non-functional

47
Q

Refers to the ability to cause disease

A

Pathogenicity

48
Q

Addresses how frequently the organism causes disease, and refers to the severity of the disease.

49
Q

Immunity resulting from the injection of antibodies or sensitized lymphocytes from another organism or, in infants, from the transfer of antibodies through the placenta

A

Passive immunity

50
Q

Influenza, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Streptococcus pneumoniae can enter how?

A

Respiratory Tract

51
Q

Salmonella enteritiditis, Salmonella typhi, Shigella, millions of other food borne illnesses enter how?

52
Q

Most enter via percutaneous means or broken skin. Trepoonema Pallidum enters through intact skin

A

Skin/mucous membranes

53
Q

Requires negative pressure room and N95 or higher fitted mask (N95 means 95% of air is filtered)

A

Airborne (TB, chickenpox)

54
Q

Do not stay suspended in air, coughs/sneezes

A

Droplets (Flu)

55
Q

Endogenous

A

From the pt

56
Q

Exogenous

A

From outside the pt

57
Q

CDC recommends what for infection control?

A

1/100 beds and surveillance

58
Q

Involves musculoskeletal system

A

Rheumatic Dz

59
Q

Crepitus

A

Pieces of bones/joints that got loose. Grating upon movement

60
Q

Why is smoking bad for OA?

A

Limits oxygen flow to your cartilage

61
Q

What is the most important aspect of infection control?

A

Hand hygiene pre and post donning and removing gloves

62
Q

Placing multiple patients with the same organism in rooms together

A

Cohorting, used a lot with MDROs (multi drug resistant organisms)

63
Q

Airborne Precautions

A
  • Monitored negative airflow rooms required to prevent spread of microbes
  • HEPA air filter
  • N95 mask
  • Limit pt movement
  • Pt wears N95 mask if traveling around hospital
  • For TB, measles, chickenpox
64
Q

Droplet Precautions

A
  • Private room preferred
  • Protect from droplets that may travel 3 feet but are not suspended for long periods
  • Wear a mask when within 3 fee of the patient
  • Transport with mask
  • For influenza, mumps, pertussis, meningitis
65
Q

Contact Precautions

A
  • For known or suspected infections transmitted by direct contact or contact with items in environment
  • For MRSA, VRE, pediculosis (lice), scabies, RSV, C. diff
  • Private room preferred
  • Wear gloves when entering room
  • Wear gown if body fluids are involved
  • Travel only when necessary
  • Have dedicated equipment
66
Q

Standard Precautions

A
  • Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette (RH/CE)
  • Patient, staff, and visitor education
  • Posted signs
  • Hand hygiene
  • Cover nose/mouth with tissue and quickly dispose tissue
  • Cough into shirt sleeve rather than covering with hand
  • Safe injection practices
  • Single use sterile needle
67
Q

MRSA

A
  • Rx: Vancomycin, Linezolid
  • Health teaching: best way to decrease incidence
  • Contact precautions
  • Risk Factors: Older adults, Immunocompromised, Invasive lines, ICU patients
68
Q

Community-associated MRSA

A
  • Healthy non-hospitalized people infected
  • Health teaching best way to decrease incidence
  • Perform frequent hand hygiene, including use of hand sanitizers
  • Avoid close contact with people with infectious wounds
  • Avoid large crowds
  • Avoid contaminated surfaces
69
Q

Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) Risk group

A

Abdominal surgery, long hospital stays, enteral feedings, severely ill, immunocompromised

70
Q

Grows in the gut and is needed for digestion, lives for several days on objects making it easy to spread from toilet seats, door handles

A

Enteroccous

71
Q

Complex group of microbes, “slimy,” very hard to treat

A

Biofilms/Glycocalyx

72
Q

Frequent catheter changes are recommended for long term use what for short-term use? (3weeks)

A

Silver Allooy or antimicrobial covering

73
Q
  • Deliberate failure to take

- Accidentally not taking

A
  • Noncompliance

- Nonadherence

74
Q

Best management for biofilms/glycocalyx

A

Mechanical disruption

75
Q

What clues can you look for with infected pts?

A

Incubation times

76
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

Swollen lymph nodes, accompany infection

77
Q

Blood test that can reveal inflammatory activity in your body

A

ESR (>20mm/hr for infection)

78
Q

NU Dx’s associated with infection

A
  • Risk for fluid volume deficit
  • Impaired comfort
  • Hyper/hypothermia
  • Ineffective protection
79
Q

Teach patient SE after giving antipyretics

A
  • Waves of sweating may occur, increase fluid intake

- Observe for N/V, rash

80
Q

NU interventions for fevers

A
  • Ice paks, hypothermia blankets, sponging with tepid, cool compresses to skin and pulse points
  • Don’t use fans
  • Shivering can indicate they’re cooling too quickly

Adult 1 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions