Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

define evolution

A

a change in the genetic structure of a population individuals don’t evolve

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2
Q

natural selection

A

differential reproduction

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3
Q

what two things does natural selection need?

A

population needs genetic variation and variation must be heritable

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4
Q

the oxygen and hydrogen in water is combined by what kind of bonds?

A

polar covalent bonds

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5
Q

define hydrophobic and give example

A

non-polar molecules that repel water, example hydrocarbons

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6
Q

define hydrolysis

A

break down protein using water

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7
Q

define anabolic reactions

A

build polymers, need energy, loses water

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8
Q

define catabolic reactions

A

break down polymers, release energy, need water to break apart the covalent bonds

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9
Q

2 different water molecules are combined by which type of bond

A

hydrogen bonds

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10
Q

what are the 4 types of carbon atoms?

A

nucleic acids, lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins

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11
Q

define electronegative

A

molecules that pull electrons close to it when bonding with hydrogen ex: oxygen

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12
Q

why can insects walk on water?

A

due to water’s high surface tension due to cohesion

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13
Q

define specific heat

A

it takes a large amount of energy to raise the temp of water

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14
Q

why is it important that water has a high specific heat

A

it helps aquatic life because the water temp of their environment remains stable when the outside is changing

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15
Q

why is the freezing of water significant?

A

the hydrogen bonds keep the molecules spacious from one another to form a 3-dimensional crystal formation allowing it to be less dense than liquid water and allowing it to float

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16
Q

define amphipathic

A

molecule is both hydrophobic and hydrophilic ex: phospholipids macromolecules

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17
Q

what 3 classes of macromolecules are formed together through the synthesis of many monomers?

A

carbohydrates, nucleic acids and proteins

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18
Q

what is carbohydrates monomer?

A

monosaccharides

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19
Q

what are 3 functions of carbohydrates?

A

fuel source (store energy), cell-cell recognition in immune response, role in structural support and lay role in formation of nucleic acids

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20
Q

what are nucleic acids?

A

make up RNA and DNA

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21
Q

5 examples of monosaccharides

A

fructose, glucose, ribose, galactose, and ribulose

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22
Q

what is a disaccharide?

A

sugar formed by a condensation reaction between two monomers

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23
Q

what is maltose

A

glucose + glucose

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24
Q

what is sucrose

A

glucose + fructose = table sugar

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25
Q

what is lactose

A

glucose + galactose = milk sugar

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26
Q

4 examples of polysaccharides

A

starch, glycogen, cellulose and chitin

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27
Q

when is starch used?

A

used by plants to store surplus sugar (potato)

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28
Q

when is glycogen used?

A

how animals store surplus sugar in their lives

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29
Q

what is cellulose?

A

most abundant polymer on the planet, important in plant cells, humans cannot digest but has FIBER

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30
Q

what is chitin?

A

some animals and fungi are made up of chitin ex: crabs

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31
Q

what is the monomer of proteins?

A

amino acids

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32
Q

what is the polymer of proteins?

A

polypeptides

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33
Q

how many different amino acid groups are there?

A

20

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34
Q

what is different about each amino acid?

A

the R group

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35
Q

what are the 3 different types of R-groups?

A

nonpolar, polar, and electrically charge

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36
Q

what is proteins structure?

A

amino group (H-N-H), carboxyl group(O=C-OH), variable group (R) and hydrogen

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37
Q

define primary structure

A

the sequence of amino acids in a protein

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38
Q

define secondary structure

A

the regions of the molecule that are coiled/folded, have H-bonding between different R-groups

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39
Q

define tertiary structure

A

hydrophobic & hydrophilic reactions, overall shape of the protein due to interaction between the side chain (R groups) of the amino acids

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40
Q

define quaternary structure

A

proteins that are made of more than one polypeptide chain

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41
Q

define sickle-cell anemia

A

genetic disease that results in an abnormal production of the protein hemoglobin (quaternary), abnormality in the 6th position of the B subunit, has a VALINE in the 6th position instead of a GLUTAMIC ACID

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42
Q

what does valine do?

A

causes hemoglobin molecules to rearrange into rods which makes it impossible to carry oxygen

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43
Q

what is alanine?

A

nonpolar (hydrophobic) R group

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44
Q

what is threanine?

A

polar (hydrophilic) R group

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45
Q

2 traits of lipids

A

all hydroPHOBIC and they are NOT POLYMERS

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46
Q

2 main functions of lipids

A

energy storage and they are the main structural components of cell membrane and hormones

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47
Q

what are 3 types of lipids

A

dietary fats (triacylglyceroids), phospholipids (cell membrane) and steroids (cholesterol, estrogen and testosterone)

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48
Q

what are triacylglyceroids?

A

dietary fats that are formed when 3 fatty acids and 1 glycerol molecule is joined via condensation synthesis ex: fats and oils

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49
Q

what are two types of triaclglyceroids?

A

saturated and unsatured

50
Q

what is a saturated fat?

A

only have SINGLE bonds, STRAIGHT chains and SOLID

51
Q

what is an unsaturated fat?

A

have double bonds, kinks in structure and LIQUID

52
Q

what is hydrogenation?

A

process where liquid unsaturated fat is converted to a solid saturated fat

53
Q

what are 3 things fats are used for?

A

protection, insulation and energy source

54
Q

what are phospholipids?

A

amphipathic molecules that have only 2 fatty acid molecules and a glycerol jointed to a phosphate group, 2 hydrophobic tails and 1 hydrophilic head AND forms the basis of the phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes

55
Q

what are steroids?

A

a four-fuced ring structure. including cholesterol and hormones

56
Q

4 functions of cholesterol

A

precursor molecule for steroidal hormones (estrogen), molecule found in cell membranes, enables body to make vitamin D and used to make bile acids for digestion

57
Q

what are the two types of cholesterol?

A

HDL and LDL

58
Q

what is HDL?

A

“good cholesterol”, less cholesterol and more proteins

59
Q

what is LDL?

A

“bad cholesterol”, more cholesterol and less proteins

60
Q

what is the monomer of nucleic acids?

A

nucleotides

61
Q

what is a nitrogenous base?

A

a ringed structure consisting of nitrogen, carbon and hydrogen

62
Q

what is RNAs sugar?

A

ribose

63
Q

what is DNAs sugar?

A

deoxyribose

64
Q

what is RNA made up of?

A

adenine, guanine, cytosine and URACIL

65
Q

what is DNA made up of?

A

adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine

66
Q

what is the different between DNA and RNA?

A

DNA is paired and RNA is single stranded

67
Q

how old is the universe?

A

13.7 billion years old

68
Q

how old is the solar system?

A

4.55-4.56 billion years old

69
Q

how old is the earth?

A

4.5 billion years old

70
Q

when did we first see life?

A

3.5 billion years ago

71
Q

what does earth’s surface being dynamic mean?

A

the environment of earth is always changing

72
Q

define abiotic

A

no life when earth was first formed, about 3.5-4 billion years ago

73
Q

what are cons about the evidence of life?

A

they cannot recognize bacteria, cannot determine size of pop, hard bodies are easier to find than soft bodies, hard to find if they didn’t live near water

74
Q

how do we look at organisms with poor or no fossil record?

A

common ancestors/DNA

75
Q

define relative dating

A

type of dating fossils, deeper sedimentary levels formed earlier and their fossils are older than those found in shallow layers of rock ex: bottom layer has more than the top

76
Q

define absolute dating

A

better then relative, specifically tells a date

77
Q

what are the two types of absolute dating?

A

radiometric dating and dendrochronology

78
Q

what is carbon-14 half life and what is its daughter atom

A

5730 years then it turns into nitrogen-14

79
Q

what is carbon-14 best for dating

A

<50,000 years

80
Q

what are assumptions of carbon-14 dating?

A

that the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere is constant. they ignore industrial resolutions and nuclear weapon testing

81
Q

what is dendrochronology?

A

sees how the environment effect tree growth, most precise because it dates back to the exact year and season

82
Q

what is dendrochronology best used for?

A

about <9,000 years

83
Q

what is the Smokey Bear effect

A

suppression of forest fires that has led to dense forests of trees and undergrowth in the southwestern US

84
Q

what are the conditions of early earth?

A

there was not a lot of free oxygen and its important bc if there was a lot, life couldn’t have arisen from inorganic compounds ((O is oxidizing and the atmosphere was reducing))

85
Q

what is the Miller-Urey experiment?

A

he mixed together gases that were available in early life and found organic compounds. proved that organic compounds could have grew in abiotic conditions

86
Q

define heterotrophs

A

consume organic molecules

87
Q

define autotrophs

A

inorganic sulfur and iron compounds to gain energy

88
Q

define plate tectonics

A

movement of earths plate due to activity at spreading centers and subduction zones

89
Q

define continental drift

A

the fact that continents are constantly rearranging

90
Q

define Pangea

A

when all the landmasses were joined 250 millions years ago, explains similarities observed in modern organism an separate landmasses

91
Q

define the geological time scale

A

classification of different period in Earth’s history

92
Q

what are the 4 eras

A

Precombrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenzoic

93
Q

what is sedimentary rock?

A

the best source of fossil, formed by layers of minerals that settle out of water

94
Q

what are the 3 major domains?

A

bacteria, archaea and eukarya

95
Q

what are the 3 shapes of prokaryotes?

A

coccus (spherical), bacillus (rod) and spirillum (helical)

96
Q

what is LUCA

A

the last universal common ancestor, arose over 3.5 million years ago, believed it was a sophisticated organism with complex structure

97
Q

describe Archaea

A

prokaryotes, extremophiles

98
Q

what are 3 reasons why prokaryotes grow and divide quickly

A
  1. small genome, 2. simple morphologies 3. reproduce via binary fission
99
Q

define binary fission

A

cell division in which a prokaryote chromosome replicates and the mother cell pinches in half to form two daughter cells that are identical. form of ASEXUAL reproduction

100
Q

define nucleoid

A

where DNA is concentrated in prokaryotes

101
Q

define plasmids

A

smaller rings of extrachromosomal DNA, may contain genes that provide resistance to antibiotics

102
Q

what are 3 types of gene transfer?

A

transformation, conjugation and transduction

103
Q

define transformation

A

prokaryotes acquire genes from environment

104
Q

define conjugation

A

when 2 living prokaryotic cells physically join with one another. only one way

105
Q

what is the F factor

A

the fertility factor plasmid (F+), they are hereditary and contagious

106
Q

what is transduction

A

the exchange of DNA between prokaryotes by phages

107
Q

2 ways of transduction

A

Lysogenic Cycle and Lytic Cycle

108
Q

what is the Lysogenic Cycle

A

phage integrates directly into the bacteria’s DNA

109
Q

what is the Lytic Cycle

A

phase attaches to cell then produces copies of the phage then the cell bursts and new phages go free

110
Q

what are 5 main functions of protein?

A

digestion, color pigment, muscle movement, attack bacteria and viruses, and transport oxygen to all cells of the body

111
Q

how are two strands of DNA double helix held together?

A

hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases

112
Q

south-facing side of the evolutionary canyons

A

African slopes, yellowish/brownish, extreme variable conditions

113
Q

north-facing side of the evolutionary canyons

A

European slopes, dark brown/black, temperament evolutionary conditions

114
Q

based on what we’ve learned, the first life forms were most likely what?

A

obligate anaerobes

115
Q

what are 2 things that make up domain bacteria

A

peptidoglycin in their cell walls and some are photosynthetic

116
Q

what are 3 things that make up domain archaea

A

they have unique cell membrane lipids, have introns in some genes and are mostly anaerobic

117
Q

define nitrogen fixers

A

plant gets nitrogen from bacteria and bacteria gets carbon from plant

118
Q

what does Vibrio cholerae cause?

A

diarrhea

119
Q

what does Yersina pertsis cause?

A

the plague

120
Q

define saprobe

A

organism that lives off decaying matter