Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CSI > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the coma cocktails of overdosed alcoholics, opioids?

A

alcohol: Thiamine
opioid: Narcan (Naloxone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When should you not give activated charcoal in overdose situations?

A

When the pt is lethargic or not awake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference bw a CMP and a BMP?

A 
BMP = Ca + Na (electrolytes)
CMP = BMP + liver function tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What INR level would you see with Tylenol poisoning?

A

Increased INR (thinner blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If you are ODing on tricyclic antidepressants, what curves in the EKG would you look at?

A

QT and QRS interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is Tylenol metabolized?

A

95% liver -mainly glucoronidation

<5% CYTP450 !!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the formula for Tyelonal breakdown

A

Tylenol + CP450 –> NAPQI

NAPQI + glutathione –> renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

With which metabolite deficiency do you see Tylenol poisoning? What causes cell damage and death?

A

When glutathione stores <30%

NAPQI and proteins cause death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which types of patients are generally glutathione deficient?

A

Alcoholics

AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the levels of toxicity (liver failure) for Tylenol poisoning?

A

140 mg/Kg for single ingestion

7.5 g/24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you use the Rumack Matthew Nomogram?

A

If Tylenol level is above the treatment line, then they need to be treated (liver transplant maybe)
- 4 hours Tylenol level is important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When can you not use the Rumack Matthew Nomogram?

A

multiple ingestion OD

extended release OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a potential mechanism of Mucomyst?

A

Glutathione precursor or reverses damaging NAPQI but no one actually knows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the dosage of Mucomyst?

A

140 mg/kg PO then

70 mg/kg PO every four hours after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What part of Tylenol is toxic?

A

It’s metabolites !

Not Tylenol itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some products that contain aspirin?

A

Pepto Bismol
Oil of Wintergreen
Linemints
Vaporization solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Under which hours interval is Mucomyst nearly always effective?

A

< 8 hours it is always effective

You should still give it - better late than enver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe how different aspirin dosages can cause different clinical presentations

A

< 150 mg/kg = gastric upset
150-300 mg/kg =acid/base effect
300+ mg/kg = severe/lethal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of acid/base state does ASA cause? Why?

A 
metabolic acidosis (but respiratory alkylosis occurs first)
-Uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation and Krebs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does aspirin also cause respiratory alkalosis?

A

Direct effect on brain to increase RR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How can aspirin cause respiratory acidosis?

A

After getting respiratory alkalosis, the pt tires out and RR drops –> resp. acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What effect does aspirin have on the lung?

A

Increases pulmonary vascular permeability –> non cardiogenic pulmonary edema
(cardiac function remains unaffected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are acute adult aspirin OD findings?

A 
tinnitus
sweating
hyperventilating
resp. alkalosis
metabolic acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the key feature of chronic aspirin overdose?

A

neuro/behavior findings

aspirin levels may seem normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What do you observe on an EKG with a cocaine overdose?

A

QRS widening

Prolonged QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is cocaine washout?

A

Essentially a cocaine hangover - lethargy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is abruptio placenta?

A

3rd tri bleeding from cocaine or trauma

Painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is placenta previa?

A

3rd tri bleeding not from cocaine

PAINLESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the treatment of Cocaine OD?

A

Benzodiazepines:

Valium and Adavan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why do you not give Haldol to cocaine OD patients?

A

It lowers the seizure threshold so its more likely to lead to seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Do you give beta blockers to Cocaine OD pts? Why?

A

No - it lowers BP and HR

but it can lead to tachydysrhythmias with cocaine OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do you treat QT prolongations or complex tachycardias in cocaine OD?

A

alkalization on blood pH

7.45-7.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does demerol work?

A

It works at psych receptors - not pain receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the clinical features of an opioid overdose?

A 
Pinpoint pupils (miosis)
Resp depression
Coma
(Histamine release)
(Decreased GI)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the effect of Narcan on opioids?

A

It reverses the effect of opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a potential finding in the lung from opioid OD?

A

non cardiogenic pulomnary edema can occur up to 24 hours after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What drugs or conditions can exhibit similar symptoms to opioid OD?

A

Clonidine
CO
post ictal state
pontine hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How long after EtOH ingestion, does it reach peak blood levels?

A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which organs are involved in the metabolism of EtOH?

A

Liver (90%)
Lungs
Skin
Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do you treat EtOH withdrawal?

A

Benzodiazepines

also Thiamine, fluids…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the Wernicke encephalopathy triad?

A

ataxia
ophthalmoplegia
encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do you get Wernicke encephalopathy?

A

Low thiamine

EtOH abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do you get Korsakoff amnesia and what are the presentations?

A

Low Thiamine and long term EtOH abuse

anterograde and/or retrograde amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do you treat warfarin overdose?

A

Vitamin K

Fresh Frozen Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How much tighter does CO bind to Hb than O2?

A

250 X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How do you diagnose CO poisoning?

A

arterial blood gas

not pulseOx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What percentage of brain neurons are present at burth?

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the HEADSS questionairre? When is it used?

A 
Home and Environment
Education and employment
Activity
Drugs
Sexuality
Suicide/Depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the mini-cog exam?

A

Recall 3 words (1 pt each)
Clock drawing test (2 pts)
2 points and below is impaired cognitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is apraxia? What does it indicate?

A

inability to translate an intention into an action (not paralysis)
Indicates cerebral disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What memory patterns do you see with dementia?

A

Loss of recent memory but retention of remote memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is dysphonia and what does it indicate?

A

Disorder of voice volume or pitch

Indicates disease of larynx or laryngeal nn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is dysarthria?

A

Motor speech disorder (movement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are tactile hallucinations most commonly associated with?

A

EtOH withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

geriatric Depression scale - what is depression?

A

Score greater than 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is thec clinical tetrad of Parkinsonism?

A

Tremor
Rigidity
Bradykinesia
Postural Instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When is Reglan used?

A

Used to reverse parkonsonism.

Also used in pregnancy and diabetic neuropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a pseudobulbar effect? When is it seen?

A

Inverse emotionally

Seen in Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (Parkinson variant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the main treatment for Parkinson Disease early on?

A

Amantadine

Also Anticholinergenics

60
Q

What does Levadopa do and what are some of the drawback of it?

A

Reverses all symptoms of PD
Does not slow down progression
On/Off waxing and waning
Contraindication in Schizo and glaucoma

61
Q

How do COMT inhibitors work in the treatment of PD?

A

Stops metabolism of L-dopa to methyl dopa -> sustained plasma levels

62
Q

What is genetic defect in Huntington;s disease?

A

CAG repeats/ anticipation

More repeats–> onset is eralier

63
Q

Where in the brain would you see atrophy of a Huntingtons patient?

A

Cerebral and caudate nucleus

64
Q

What is a potential treatment option for Huntingtons?

A

ACh/GABA decrease

relative dopamine increase

65
Q

What are genes linked to focal torsion dystonia?

A

DTY6

DTY7

66
Q

What are some various etiologies of restless leg syndrome?

A

Idiopathic vs PD
Preganancy
Fe deficiency
Neuropathy

67
Q

Describe Tourette’s

A

Facial motor tics mostly
Assd w OCD
Chromosome 15
Treat with CBT

68
Q

What is maladaptive behavior in resopnse to a stress?

A

Adaptive disorder

W symptom specified

69
Q

What is the PANICS in panic disorder?

A 
Palpitations Paresthesias
Abdominal Distress
Nausea
Intense Fear of Dying
Chest Pain Chills Choking
Sweating Shaking SOB
70
Q

What is Dissociative Identity disorder?

A

2 or more distinct personality states

71
Q

Describe the rule of 9/s for 2nd and 3rd degree burns

A 
9% upper chest
9% abdominal
4.5 % front arm
9% front leg
4.5% face...
72
Q

Describe what 2nd and 3rd degree burns are

A

2: blistered, partial thickness, blanchable
3: loss of adnexal structures, hair loss, gray…

73
Q

What is the prognostic burn index?

A

PBI = TBSA + age (+20% inhal)

74
Q

What is an associated injury you can develop with a burn + inhalation injury?

A

ARDS

75
Q

Describe the protocol for tetanus vacc. administration

A
  1. Always give tetanus toxoid

2. Tetanus Ig if uknown or they dont have booster. (diff. than toxoid site)

76
Q

What kind of antibiotics do you give for burn patients?

A

Topical Abx

NOT systemic

77
Q

When do 1st and 2nd degree burns spontaneously re-epithelize?

A

7-10 days

78
Q

How many calories do you give to a burn pt?

A

25 kcal/kg + 40 kcal/%TBSA

79
Q

What is a common pathogen involved in burn injuries?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

80
Q

What is the most common type of pneumonia in HIV patient?

A

pneumococcus

81
Q

What imaging modality do you use to test for a pulmonray embolism?

A

CT w contrast

82
Q

What is a clinical presentation of a pneumothorax?

A

tall and skinny kid

Blebs - nonfunctioning lung space

83
Q

What will you see for a tension pneumothorax? And where would you start your treatment?

A

Hypotension and trachea deviated away from side

Needle Decompression bw 2nd and 3rd rib

84
Q

What can cause a pneumomediastinum?

A

Vasalva maneuver
Cocaine or MaryJ use
-The air dissects down

85
Q

How do you diagnose pericarditis? And what Ejection fraction wiill you see?

A

Diagnose w ECHO

Normal EF of 60%

86
Q

What would you see in an MCA stroke?

A

Contralateral paralysis - upper limb and face
contralateral loss of sensation
Possible aphasia

87
Q

What would you see in an ACA stroke?

A

Contralateral paralysis - LOWER limb

contralateral loss of sensation - lower limb

88
Q

Difference bw cluster, tension, and migraines?

A

Cluster and Migraine: Unilateral
Cluster: lacrimal, rhinorrhea
Migraine: POUND

89
Q

Horner’s Syndrome

A

Ptosis
Anhidrosis - no sweating
Miosis

90
Q

What is anterior cord syndrome?

A

Loss of motor, pain, T distal to lesion
CST and spinothalamic tract damage
-ASA or spinal contusion

91
Q

What is central cord syndrome?

A

CST and spinothlamic damag

Greater impairment in UE than LE

92
Q

What is Brown Sequard Syndrome?

A

aka hemisection from stab or gun
Ipsilateral loss of DC-ML
Contralateral loss of pain and T

93
Q

Describe the Glascow Coma Scale

A

4 Eyes, Jackson 5, 6 cylinder engine
Eyes - spontaeous movement
Speech

94
Q

What does decorticate mean?

A

you flexed to your core

95
Q

What are the main mechanisms of brain injury?

A
  1. Contusion
  2. Increased ICP
  3. Diffuse Axonal Injury
96
Q

What is the only way out of the intracrainla vault?

A

foramen magnum

97
Q

What is the most life threatening hernitaion of the brain?

A

brainstem herniation through foramen magnum

98
Q

Where do most diffuse axonal injuries in the brain occur?

A

Where gray and white matter meet.

99
Q

What is SCIWORA?

A

Spinal Cord Injury without radiological

100
Q

What is the goal of Rapid Sequence Intubation in a traumatic brain injury?

A

blunt rise in ICP

maintain MAP

101
Q

Specificaly, what is the most common basilar fracture?

A

petrous portion of temporal bone

EAC and TM

102
Q

What are some signs of a basilar fracture?

A 
battle sign (mastoid)
Racoon sign (eyes)
7th nerve palsy
103
Q

What aa and bone are assoicated with an epidural hematoma?

A

Middle Meningeal a
Tempral bone fracture
Lucid Interval
CN 3 palsy

104
Q

What is a subdural hemorrhage?

A

Rupture of bridging veins

Crescent shaped

105
Q

What usualy causes a subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

aneurysm (Berry)

secondary to hypertension

106
Q

What is the first refelx to return after spinal shock?

A

bulbocavernosus

107
Q

Which 3 systems work together to prevent vertigo?

A

Visual
Vestibular
Propioceptive

108
Q

Describe central vestibular disease

A

Gradual Onset
Severe
variable Nystagmus
Worsened w rapid movement

109
Q

What diseases are associated with peripheral vestibular diseases?

A

Menier’s disease
Vestibular Neuritis
benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

110
Q

What diseases are associated with central vestibular diseases?

A

MS
Neoplasm
Vertebral a dissection
cerebellar infarct

111
Q

What are pain insensitive structure of the head?

A

Choroid plexuses
Brain parenchyma
Ventricles

112
Q

How do you treat migraines and tension headaches?

A

Acetomenaphin, aspirin, NSAIDs

113
Q

How do you treat Cluster headaahces?

A

O2

114
Q

What are signs and symptoms of a headache indicating a pathology?

A 
Fever
Nuchal Rigidity
Reflex asymmetry
AMS
Papilledema
115
Q

What is Wallenberg Syndrome?

A

Lateral Medullary syndrome
Stroke of PICA possible
Loss of pain and T contralateral body and ipsilateral face

116
Q

In what type of pt will you see a central venous thrombosis in a sagittal sinus?

A

pregnant pt

117
Q

When do you give tpa?

A

Less that 3 hours - need consent

bp must be below 180

118
Q

How can you tell the difference bw Bell’s Palsy and stroke?

A

Bells: effects forehead - droopy
stroke: does not effect forehead

119
Q

What is autoregulation in terms of a stroke?

A

brain maintains constant CBF despite verying cerebral perfusion pressures

120
Q

Describe autoregulation in terms of HTN and stroke

A

the lower/upper levels of autoregulation are reset higher.
This allows tolerance.
BUT more intolerance of lower BPs

121
Q

Prolonged ischemia of the brain results in what?

A

infarction

122
Q

What is the penumbra?

A

Tissue around the stroke that is ischemic and still viable

123
Q

What is amaurosis fugax?

A

sudden vision loss in one eye - transient

124
Q

Which way is the gaze preference in an MCA stroke?

A

Away from side of weakness

towards side of brain stroke

125
Q

What do you see in MCA stroke in non-dominant hemisphere?

A

anosognosia - unawareness

126
Q

When would you see ‘locked in syndrome’ ?

A

Basilar stroke

can only communicate w vertical eye movemnts

127
Q

What is a central venous thrombosis?

A

occlusion of saggital sinus
Pregnancy, hypercoaguable state
do CT w IV contrast

128
Q

What is Todds paralsysi?

A

unilateral weakness after a seizure

129
Q

What should ALL patients having acute ischemic CVA receive?

A

Antiplatelet therapy

Aspirin or plavix

130
Q

What are some exclusion to use tpa?

A

BP > 185
Seizures at onset
Sure about time of onset
……

131
Q

How would you prevent vasospasms following 2-3 days after subarrachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Nicardipine

132
Q

What is intraparenchymal hemorrhage most often caused by?

A

HTN

133
Q

How Many points is the Mini mental status out of?

A

30

less than 10 is severe

134
Q

What is Dissociative Fugue?

A

Sudden travel away from home wo recalling recent past

135
Q

SIGECAPS

A 
Sleep disturbance
Interest loss
Guilt
Energy Loss
Concentration Problem
Psychomotor retardation
Suicide
136
Q

What is the most common subtype of depression? Who would it be?

A

Atypical depression

‘moody teenager’

137
Q

What are the treatments for Schizo?

A 
"Old Closet Whisper Quitely"
Olanzapine
Clozapine
Risperidone
Quetiapine
138
Q

What is the exact definition of meningitis?

A

inflammation of arachnoid and pia mater and CSF

139
Q

How can you tell bacterial meningitis?

A

> 1000 leuko
Low glucose
Elevated CSF Protein
PMNs

140
Q

Describe the morphology of bacteria assd w miningitis?

A

Gram neg. cocci: Meningococci
Gram neg rod: Hem. influenzae
Gram pos rod: Lysteria
Gram pos cocci: pneumococcus

141
Q

What conditions predispose pts to meningococal meningitis?

A

C5-9 def.

asplenia

142
Q

What doses drugs do you give to meningitis pts?

A

Ceftriaxone

Vancomycin

143
Q

What is the most common bacterial agent of bacterial meningitis in adults?

A

pneumococcal meningitis

144
Q

How do you treat listeria meningitis?

A

ampicilin

meropenem

145
Q

What is cryptococcal meningitis?

A

pidgeon droppings
construction
+India ink

CSI (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions