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Animal Physiology Final Exam > Exam 1 & 2 Material - MC Style > Flashcards

Exam 1 & 2 Material - MC Style Flashcards

1
Q

An example of chronic response to an animal’s environment would be which of the following?

a) Heart rate increase
b) Fatigue
c) Thicker hair coat
d) Shivering

A

Thicker hair coat

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2
Q

Which of the following correctly describes peristalsis?
-The main propulsive motility pattern in the GIT tract in which circular muscle contracts
and longitudinal muscle relaxes behind the bolus, while circular muscle relaxes and
longitudinal muscle contracts in front of the bolus.
-The only propulsive motility pattern in the GIT tract in which circular muscle contracts
and longitudinal muscle relaxes behind the bolus, while circular muscle relaxes and
longitudinal muscle contracts in front of the bolus.
-The main propulsive motility pattern in only the large intestine in which circular muscle
contracts and longitudinal muscle relaxes behind the bolus, while circular muscle relaxes
and longitudinal muscle contracts in front of the bolus.
-The main propulsive motility pattern in the GIT tract in which circular muscle relaxes
and longitudinal muscle contracts behind the bolus, while circular muscle contracts and
longitudinal muscle relaxes in front of the bolus.

A

The MAIN propulsive motility pattern in the GIT tract in which circular muscle contracts
and longitudinal muscle relaxes behind the bolus,

while circular muscle relaxes and
longitudinal muscle contracts in front of the bolus.

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3
Q 
What type of glial cell is responsible for myelination of axons of neurons in the peripheral 
nervous system. 
a) Oligodrendricytes 
b) Astrocytes 
c) Microglial 
d) Schwann
A

Schwann Cells

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4
Q

What are the four segments of vertebrate Gastrointestinal tracts?

a) Headgut, Foregut, Midgut, Hindgut
b) Headgut, thorgut, accessory organs, midgut
c) There are only two not four- foregut and hindgut
d) Mouth, stomach, accessory organs, anus

A

Headgut, Foregut, Midgut, and Hindgut.

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5
Q

What is the correct pairing of nervous system and its role:

a) Peripheral Nervous System- Brain and Spinal Cord
b) Autonomic nervous system- non-visceral organs with a voluntary aspect
c) Somatic Nervous system- Enteric, sympathetic and parasympathetic
d) Autonomic Nervous System- parasympathetic, sympathetic and enteric nervous system

A

Autonomic nervous system which includes the parasympathetic, sympathetic and enteric nervous system.

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6
Q
  • *What type of calcium channel releases calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum after depolarization of the membrane?
    a) Voltage-gated dihydropyridine receptor
    b) Voltage-gated ryanodine receptor
    c) Ligand-gated ryanodine receptor
    d) Stretch-gated channel
A

Voltage-gated ryanodine receptor

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7
Q

What type of neuron conducts messages/signals away from the central nervous system?

a) Afferent neurons
b) Interneurons
c) Efferent neurons
d) Sensory neurons

A

Efferent Neurons

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8
Q

Which is a characteristic of metabotropic chemical synapse?

a) Produce a metabolic change in the post-synaptic cell
b) Fast
c) Directly alter membrane permeability
d) Excitory and inhibitory effects

A

Produce a metabolic change in the post-synaptic cell

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9
Q

Which of the following is not one of the stomach regions of the horse?

a) cardiac
b) nonglandular
c) body
d) pyloric

A

Cardiac

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10
Q

Which section of the small intestine receives secretions from the pancreas and liver?

a) jejunum
b) ileum
c) duodenum
d) gallbladder

A

Duodenum

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11
Q

Which of the following correctly describes what molecules bind to skeletal muscle filaments?

a) Calcium binds to myosin and ATP binds to troponin on actin.
b) Calcium binds to troponin on actin and ATP binds to myosin.
c) Calcium binds to myosin and acetylcholine binds to troponin on actin.
d) Calcium binds to troponin on actin and acetylcholine binds to myosin.

A

Calcium binds to troponin on actin and ATP binds to myosin.

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12
Q

What gated channel is a neurotransmitter receptor an example of?

a) Voltage gated channels
b) Stretch gated channels
c) Ligand gated channels
d) Phosphorylation gated channels

A

LIGAND GATED

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13
Q

The rate of heat transfer is determined by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Temperature gradient
b) Air speed
c) Shape of body parts
d) Moisture content of the air

A

Moisture content of the air

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14
Q

These junctions restrict the movement of water and dissolved substances between cells:

a) Tight junctions
b) Desmosomes
c) Gap Junctions
d) T-tubules

A

Tight junctions

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15
Q

Which of the following animal species is not ruminant?

a) Bison
b) Cows
c) Antelope
d) Swine

A

Swine

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16
Q

Which of the following answers about resting membrane potential is right?

a) +65 mV
b) +58 mV
c) -65 mV
d) -80 mV

A

-65mV

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17
Q

Which of the following answers about the criteria of neurotransmitter is wrong?

a) Must be present in the pre-synaptic terminal
b) Mechanism for removal doesn’t need to exist.
c) Neurotransmitter in extracellular fluid must elicit same response as the synaptic event
d) Released upon stimulation

A

Mechanism for removal doesn’t need to exist.

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18
Q

Sensation generally involves what part of the brain?

a) Pons
b) Cerebellum
c) Cerebral Cortex
d) Medulla

A

Cerebral Cortex

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19
Q 
Name the regions of the spinal cord where the ganglion (synapse) is located for Parasympathetic 
and Sympathetic nervous systems. 
a) Thoracolumbar and Lumbar 
b) Thoracolumbar and Craniosacral 
c) Cervical and Craniosacral 
d) Craniosacral and Thoracolumbar
A

Craniosacral and Thoracolumbar

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20
Q

Which of the following is not considered to be key criteria for a neurotransmitter?

a) Released upon stimulation (depolarization and calcium)
b) Neurotransmitter in extracellular fluid must elicit a different response than the synaptic event
c) Mechanism for removal must exist
d) Must be present in the pre-synaptic terminal

A

Neurotransmitter in extracellular fluid must elicit a different response than the synaptic event

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21
Q

Which of the following cannot pass through a plasma membrane freely?

a) Oxygen
b) Water
c) Sodium
d) Carbon Dioxide

A

Sodium

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22
Q

The type of gastrointestinal motility in which circular muscle creates areas of constriction and
dilation so that the digesta can be retained longer for absorptive purposes is referred as:
a) Adaptive relaxation
b) Segmentation
c) Retropulsion
d) Peristalsis

A

Segmentation

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23
Q

The key structural parts of a neuron include all of the following except:

a) Synapse
b) Cell Body
c) Axon
d) Axon Terminal

A

Synapse

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24
Q

Which of the following digestive organs is NOT found in the avian GI tract?

a. Salivary glands
b. Pancreas
c. Omasum
d. Cecum

A

Omasum

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25
Q
  • *Which muscle type does not display striation?
    a. Skeletal
    b. Smooth
    c. Cardiac
    d. Fast twitch
A

Smooth

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26
Q

Which digestive enzyme is NOT secreted by the pancreas?

a. Amylase
b. Trypsin
c. Chymotrypsin
d. Pepsin

A

Pepsin

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27
Q
  • *The parietal glands contain which of the following cells?
    a) Mucus producing, parietal cells, chief cells
    b) Mucus producing, G cells, parietal cells
    c) G cells, chief cells, duct cells
    d) Mucus producing, duct cells
A

Mucus producing, parietal cells, chief cells

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28
Q
  • *When smooth muscle contracts:
    a) The heart beats
    b) You can lift a pencil
    c) Filaments turn pink
    d) It goes from being spindle shaped to globular
A

It goes from being spindle-shaped to globular

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29
Q

Which of the following is an accessory organ?

a) Pancreas
b) Ileum
c) Reticulum
d) Pharynx

A

Pancreas

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30
Q 
This type of glandular tissue, found in the pancreas, is responsible for endocrine secretions. 
A. Acinar cells 
B. Duct cells 
C. Islet cells 
D. Pancreatic cells
A

Islet cells

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31
Q

Which of the following describes an Ionotropic chemical synapse?
A. Modulation of neuronal function
B. Slow
C. Produce metabolic change in the post-synaptic cell
D. Directly alter membrane permeability to ions

A

Directly alter membrane permeability to ions

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32
Q 
This system is composed of a network of neurons entirely in the walls of the gut \_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A. Enteric nervous system 
B. Central nervous system 
C. Autonomic nervous system 
D. Sympathetic nervous system
A

Enteric Nervous System

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33
Q 
**Cells are separated by:
A. Synaptic Cleft
B. Axon
C. Dendrite 
D. Neurotransmitters
A

Synaptic Cleft

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34
Q

Which is not true concerning the Enteric Nervous System:
A. Controls Gut Motility
B. Modulated by Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
C. Contains submucosal plexus and myenteric plexus
D. Always excitory

A

Always excitory

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35
Q 
Which of the following receptors is defined by sensitive touch and being shallow: 
A. Merkel Disk 
B. Ruffini Ending
C. Meissner's Corpuscle
D. Pascinian Corpuscle
A

Meissner’s corpuscle

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36
Q

Which of the following is a part of the GI midgut?

a. Rumen
b. Pharynx
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine

A

Small Intestine

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37
Q

Which of the following is not a role of saliva in ruminants?

a. A buffer in the rumen
b. Lubricates the walls of the small intestine
c. Contains urea for microbial protein synthesis
d. Provides fluid to rumen

A

Lubricates the walls of the small intestine

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38
Q

What is the function of the nucleolus?

a. rRNA synthesis
b. Lipid synthesis
c. Formation of ribosomal subunits

A

rRNA synthesis AND Formation of ribosomal subunits

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39
Q

Why are Secondary Messengers important?

a. Allow very low concentrations of a signal to elicit a large cellular response
b. Used for G-protein linked receptors and enzyme-linked receptors
c. Play role in the regulation of metabolism
d. All of the above.

A

All of the above

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40
Q

What kind of mastication do Herbivores use?

a. Vertical motion only
b. Vertical and lateral motion
c. Lateral motion only
d. None of the above

A

Vertical and Lateral motion

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41
Q

During muscle contraction,
a. The individual filaments shorten, leading to muscle contraction.
b. The sarcomere shortens, increasing the degree of overlap between the thick and thin
filaments.
c. The A Band gets shorter.
d. The H zone and I band stay the same.

A

The sarcomere shortens, increasing the degree of overlap between the thick and thin
filaments.

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42
Q

What is not a type of Glial cell?

a) Schwaan Cells
b) Astrocytes
c) Leukocytes
d) Oligodendricytes

A

Leukocytes

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43
Q

What is a factor (s) that controls action potential velocity?

a) Axon diameter
b) Temperature
c) Myelination
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

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44
Q

What is a characteristic of monocular vision?

a) Eyes on the front of the head
b) Good peripheral vision
c) Used by predators
d) Good depth perception

A

Good peripheral vision

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45
Q

Which of the following is a structural class of membrane proteins?

a) Enzymes
b) Channels
c) Peripheral proteins
d) Receptors

A

Peripheral proteins

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46
Q 
Which of the following ruminant organs does not correspond correctly to its function or 
structure? 
a) Reticulum: honeycomb structure 
b) Omasum: grinding particles 
c) Abomasum: glandular stomach 
d) Rumen: same as monogastric stomach
A

Rumen: same as monogastric stomach

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47
Q

Which of the following is not a secondary messenger as discussed in the metabolism lecture?

a) cAMP
b) water
c) cGMP
d) diacylglycerol “DAG”

A

Water

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48
Q

Which of the following is not part of the foregut?

a) Pharynx
b) Esophagus
c) Stomach
d) Omasum

A

Pharynx

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49
Q

Which of the following is not a ruminant

a) Sheep
b) Cow
c) Giraffe
d) Lion

A

Lion

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50
Q

Which of the following is not a taste sensation

a) Salty
b) Spicy
c) Sweet
d) Sour

A

Spicy

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51
Q

A feed high in protein is:

a) Hay
b) Molasses
c) Corn
d) Soybean meal

A

Soybean meal

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52
Q

Which of the following phrases BEST describe the shape of an herbivore’s molars:

a) hard molars
b) flat molars
c) sharp molars
d) no molars

A

Flat Molars

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53
Q

Peristalsis:

a) Consists of long, sweeping contractions
b) By definition mixes digesta together
c) Originates in the esophagus
d) Affects circular muscle only

A

By definition mixes digesta together

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54
Q

Which of the following is not a form of heat transfer?

a) Conduction
b) Convention
c) Convection
d) Evaporation

A

Convention

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55
Q

A benefit of monocular vision is:

a) Excellent depth perception
b) Sharp night vision
c) Ability to see all colors
d) Increased field of view

A

Increased field of view

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56
Q

Which Nervous System is associated with “fight or flight”?

a) Sympathetic Nervous System
b) Parasympathetic Nervous System
c) Somatic Nervous System
d) Sensory Nervous System

A

Sympathetic Nervous System

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57
Q

Which if the following is an example of an exocrine gland?

a) Sweat gland
b) Pituitary gland
c) Hypothalamus gland
d) Thyroid gland

A

Sweat gland

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58
Q

Which of the following uses active transport?

a) Amino Acids
b) Oxygen
c) Neither A nor B
d) Both A and B

A

Amino acids

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59
Q

Where are peptide neurotransmitters made in the neuron?

a) Axon
b) Axon terminal
c) Cell body (soma)
d) Dendrites

A

Cell body (soma)

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60
Q

Which one correctly identifies metabolic rate?

a. Rate at which animals make energy
b. Rate at which animals consume energy
c. Measurement of animals body size to heat ratio
d. Amount of average physical activity achieved in a single day

A

Rate at which animals consume energy

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61
Q

Which statement incorrectly identifies with roles of saliva in ruminants?

a. Acts as a buffer in the rumen
b. Provides fluid to the rumen
c. Contains urea-source of nitrogen for microbial synthesis
d. Contains low amount of bicarbonate

A

Contains low amount of bicarbonate

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62
Q

Which of the following correctly names 5 organelles in the endomembrane system of a cell?

a. Nucleus, Nucleolus, golgi apparatus, mitochondrian, lysosome
b. Nucleolous, golgi apparatus, mitochondrian, ribosomes, plasma membrane
c. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, lysosomes, plasma membranes
d. Nucleus, Nucleolous, golgi apparatus, cytoskelton, desmosomes

A

Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, lysosomes, plasma membranes

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63
Q

Mammalians lack the enzyme to digest

a) β [1-4] linkages
b) α [1-4] linkages
c) α [1-6] linkages
d) β [1-6] linkages

A

β [1-4] linkages

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64
Q

Peptide neurotransmitters are made in the _______, but released into the axon terminal:

a) dendrite
b) vesicles
c) axon hillock
d) cell body (soma)

A

Cell body (soma)

65
Q

**Which is true about ionotropic synapses?
a) Ach binds to a membrane channel and decreases permeability to both Na and K
b) Ach bind to a membrane channel and decreases permeability to Na while increasing
permeability to Na
c) Ach bind to a membrane channel and decreases permeability to K while increasing
permeability to Na
d) Ach binds to a membrane channel and increases permeability to both Na and K

A

Ach binds to a membrane channel and increases permeability to both Na and K

66
Q

What is the difference between an endocrine and an exocrine gland?
a) An endocrine gland releases tears and an exocrine gland releases hormones.
b) An exocrine gland releases things anywhere but the blood and an endocrine gland
releases items into the blood.
c) An endocrine gland releases things anywhere but the blood and an exocrine gland
releases items into the blood.
d) They are the same.

A

An exocrine gland releases things anywhere but the blood and an endocrine gland releases items into the blood.

67
Q

Grey matter and white matter are terms associated with which system?

a) Gastrointestinal tract
b) Musculature
c) Respiratory Systems
d) Central Nervous System

A

Central Nervous System

68
Q

**The skeletal muscle is the only type of muscle regulated by which section of the autonomic
nervous system?
a) Sympathetic
b) Parasympathetic
c) It is not regulated by the autonomic nervous system
d) It is regulated by both sections.

A

Sympathetic

69
Q

What is the name of the contraction that is involved with eructation and which direction does the contraction travel?
A) Primary contraction; Clockwise
B) Secondary contraction; Clockwise
C) Secondary contraction; Counterclockwise
D) Primary contraction; Counterclockwise

A

Secondary contraction; Counterclockwise

70
Q 
What is the name of the calcium receptors found in the T-tubules of a muscle fiber? 
A) DHPR 
B) RyR 
C) cAMP 
D) ionic receptors
A

DHPR

71
Q 
Which environmental condition can be found in both the internal environment and external 
environment? 
A) Atmospheric Pressure 
B) Water Saline Concentration 
C) Humidity 
D) Temperature
A

Temperature

72
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding the function of efferent neurons?
a. Conduct signals away from the CNS
b. Conduct signals towards the CNS
c. Conduct signals towards the Peripheral NS
d. Conduct signals away from the Parasympathetic
NS

A

Conduct signals away from the CNS

73
Q 
Which of the following muscle types are involved in voluntary movements that are regulated by 
the somatic nervous system? 
a. Smooth muscle 
b. Cardiac muscle 
c. Skeletal muscle 
d. None of the above
A

Skeletal muscle

74
Q

Which of the following methods of heat transfer is characterized by transferring heat through a
substance due to visible movement of the substance?
a. Conduction
b. Radiation
c. Evaporation
d. Convection

A

Convection

75
Q

What makes a phospholipid amphipathic?

a) It contains a polar head and two non-polar tails.
b) The membrane is thermodynamically stable.
c) It can have different fatty acid tails.
d) It forms a bilayer.

A

It contains a polar head and two non-polar tails.

76
Q

Which of the following is true regarding osmosis?

a) It is a form of active transport.
b) It moves from low to high osmotic pressure.
c) It moves from low to high water concentrations.
d) It is the diffusion of ions.

A

It moves from low to high osmotic pressure.

77
Q
  • *Which of the following can increase the velocity of an action potential?
    a) A small axon diameter
    b) A cold temperature
    c) A lot of myelination
    d) Hyperpolarization
A

A lot of myelination

78
Q

What type of linkages do starch and glucose have respectively?

a) β[1-4], α[1-4]
b) α[1-4], β[1-4]
c) α[1-6], α[1-4]
d) β[1-4], α[1-6]

A

STARCH:α[1-4],
GLUCOSE: β[1-4]

79
Q
  • ***What processes involve aerobic (oxygen requiring) conditions?
    a) glycolysis, Kreb’s (citric acid) cycle, electron transport, oxidative phosphorylation
    b) glycolysis, lactic acid production
    c) glycolysis, electron transport,
    d) lactic acid production, oxidative phosphorylation
A

Glycolysis, Kreb’s (citric acid) cycle, electron transport, oxidative phosphorylation ?

80
Q

What description correctly matches the definition of grey matter in the central nervous system?

a) tracts of myelinated axons
b) cell bodies, synapses, unmyelinated axons
c) bundle of myelinated axons
d) groups of nerve cell bodies

A

Cell bodies, synapses, unmyelinated axons

81
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of the endocrine system?

a) Reproductive
b) Growth
c) Structural
d) Digestive

A

Structural

82
Q

What is responsible for directing food to the GIT?

a) Esophagus
b) Pharynx
c) Trachea
d) Epiglottis

A

Epiglottis

83
Q

Which of the following is part of the brainstem?

a) Thalamus
b) Medulla
c) Cerebellum
d) Hypothalamus

A

Medulla

84
Q
  • *Which of the following is the receptor for a Type 2 synapse?
    a) Voltage gated Na+channel
    b) Ligand gated Na+/K+ channel
    c) Voltage gated Cl- channel
    d) Ligand gated Cl- channel
A

Ligand gated Cl- channel

85
Q

Which ion/solute can freely cross through the plasma membrane?

a) Glucose
b) Oxygen (O2)
c) Amino Acids
d) Sodium (Na+)

A

Oxygen (O2)

86
Q 
Which of the following is the type of starch that can be digested by ruminants but not by 
nonruminants? 
a) β(1,4) 
b) β(1,6) 
c) α(1,4) 
d) α(1,6)
A

β(1,4) linkages

87
Q

The study of origin can be best described as

a. The study of the reasons behind a mechanism
b. The study of evolutionary origins

A

Mechanism AND Origin

88
Q

Which of the following determines the rate of diffusion through a membrane?

a. Concentration gradient
b. Distance between the two different concentrations

A

Concentration gradient AND the distance between the two different concentrations

89
Q

Which of the following is an example of an acute response?

a. Thicker hair coat
b. Improved body composition (leaner muscle)
c. More efficient oxygen metabolism
d. Shivering

A

Shivering

90
Q

Which of the following is a group of specialized cells?

a) Organ
b) Tissue
c) System
d) Gland

A

Tissue

91
Q

Which of the following is NOT a key feature of facilitated diffusion?

a) Solutes move in the direction of electrochemical equilibrium
b) Faster than simple diffusion for these solutes
c) Involves reversible binding with transporter protein
d) Requires ATP

A

Requires ATP

92
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 pairs of salivary glands in the mammal mouth?

a) Parotid
b) Sublingual
c) Subincisor
d) Submandibular

A

Subincisor

93
Q

Which of the following parts of a cell is not part of the endomembrane system?

a) Endoplasmic reticulum
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Nucleus

A

Mitochondria

94
Q

What kind of channel does lidocaine “block”?

a) Ligand gated channel
b) Voltage gated potassium channel
c) Voltage gated sodium channel
d) Voltage gated calcium channel

A

Voltage gated sodium channel

95
Q

Which type of heat transfer can only involve the loss of heat

a) Evaporation
b) Radiation
c) Convection
d) Conduction

A

Evaporation

96
Q

Which of these phases is not a gastric acid secretion phase?

a) Cephalic phase
b) Gastric phase
c) Pepsin phase
d) Intestinal phase

A

Pepsin phase

97
Q
  • *What is the name of the vesicle stored at the active site or the interior of the axon terminal? What does it contain?
    a) Neuro-vesicle, neurons
    b) Quantal packet, neurotransmitters
    c) Quantal packet, sodium
    d) Calcium packet, calcium
A

Quantal packet, neurotransmitters

98
Q
  • *How is muscle classified?
    a) Based on the type of myosin ATPase (ex: slow, fast)
    b) By how quickly actin can bind ATP
    c) By the length of contraction
    d) Based on the amount of Ca2+ channels in it
A

Based on the type of myosin ATPase (ex: slow, fast)

99
Q

Saliva secretion is controlled by:

a) Amount of digesta
b) Autonomic nervous system
c) Type of diet
d) Respiratory system

A

Autonomic nervous system

100
Q

What is the rate at which animals consume energy?

a) Metabolic
b) Metatropic
c) Respiratory
d) None or the above

A

Metabolic

101
Q

A group of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system is

a) Grouping
b) Mucosa
c) Ganglion
d) All the above

A

Ganglion

102
Q

Which of the following is NOT a key role of saliva?

a) Acts as a buffer in the rumen
b) Provides urea
c) Provides fluid to the rumen
d) It absorbs the nutrients

A

It absorbs the nutrients

103
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor that controls action potential velocity (speed)?

a) Myelination
b) Temperature
c) Time
d) Axon diameter

A

Time

104
Q

Which of the following senses require both ionotropic and metabotrophic mechanisms?

a) Smell
b) Taste
c) Touch
d) Vision

A

Taste

105
Q

Which of the following is responsible for mechanical digestion of food?

a. Esophagus
b. Rumen
c. Mouth
d. Colon

A

Mouth

106
Q

Which pancreatic enzyme is released into the lumen to break down amino acid chains?

a. Trypsin
b. Bile
c. Secretin
d. Trypsinogen

A

Trypsinogen

107
Q

Which is NOT a characteristic of Ionotropic synapses?

a. Fast
b. Only excitatory
c. Directly alters membrane potential
d. Signal transduction

A

Only excitatory

108
Q

There are 3 pairs of salivary glands in non-ruminant animals. Choose the statement that is false:

a. ) Parotid glands secrete serous cells acinar cells. b.) The (Sub)mandibular glands secrete mucous acinar cells.
c. ) Parotid glands secrete mucous acinar cells.
d. ) The (Sub)mandibular glands secrete serous acinar cells.

A

Parotid glands secrete mucous acinar cells.

109
Q

Which of the following are criteria of a neurotransmitter?

a. ) Must be present in the pre-synaptic terminal.
b. ) Released upon stimulation.
c. ) Mechanism for removal must exist.
d. ) All of the above.

A

All of the above.

110
Q

The primary mixing contractions of the ruminant GI tract move in the direction of:

a. ) Cranial to caudal in the dorsal and ventral sacs. b.) Proximal to distal in the dorsal and ventral sacs.
c. ) Cranial to dorsal in the proximal to ventral sacs. d.) Doral to caudal in the ventral to proximal sacs.

A

Cranial to caudal in the dorsal and ventral sacs.

111
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the plasma membrane?

a) Cholesterol
b) Protein
c) Pepsinogens
d) Phospholipids

A

Pepsinogens

112
Q

Which is an example of skeletal motality?

a) Chewing
b) Mixing
c) Grinding
d) Swallowing

A

Chewing

113
Q

What does saliva contain that is a source of nitrogen for microbial protein synthesis?

a) Urea
b) Calcium
c) Phosphorus
d) Amylase

A

Urea

114
Q

Which is not a characteristic of Ionotropic chemical synapses?

a) Excitory and inhibitory effects
b) Fast
c) Modulation of neural function
d) Directly alter membrane permeability

A

Modulation of neural function

115
Q

When comparing the cell organelles to different parts of the city, which place would have a similar function to the Golgi Apparatus of an animal cell?

a) City Hall
b) Post Office
c) Transportation Center
d) School

A

Post Office

116
Q

How are the cardiac cells joined together?

a) Desmosomes
b) Tight Junctions
c) Gap Junctions
d) Epithelial Fission

A

Gap junctions

117
Q

Which type of homeostatic response results in a non-reversible change in an animal’s genotype?

a) Acute Response
b) Chronic Response
c) Metabolic Response
d) Evolutionary Response

A

Evolutionary Response

118
Q

Of the three types of salivary glands, which one contains only serous cells?

a) Parotid
b) Mandibular
c) Lingual
d) Endothelial

A

Parotid

119
Q
  • *Which of the following statements about ATP is true?
    a) ATP stands for Adenosine Triglycerol
    b) ATP can be stored in large amounts in the muscles
    c) ATP cannot be transported from one cell to another.
    d) ATP is absorbed directly from the feed.
A

ATP cannot be transported from one cell to another.

120
Q

Which system is responsible for a stimulatory effect on digestion?

a) Sympathetic NS
b) Parasympathetic
c) Enteric
d) Somatic

A

Parasympathetic

121
Q

Which of the following is not an accessory organ?

a. Salivary glands
b. Pancreas
c. Gallbladder
d. Pharynx

A

Pharynx

122
Q
  • *Muscle contraction does not require which of the following?
    a. ATP
    b. Calcium
    c. Myelination
    d. Acetylcholine
A

Myelination

123
Q

The following are types of gated channels located in membranes except?

a. Ligand
b. Osmotic
c. Voltage
d. Stretch

A

Osmotic

124
Q

Which of the following is not a macronutrient?

a. carbohydrates
b. vitamins
c. fats
d. proteins

A

Vitamins

125
Q

Which enzyme breaks down the bacteria in a ruminant?

a. Lysozyme
b. Trypsinogen
c. Pepsidase
d. Amylase

A

Lysozyme

126
Q

Which Glial cells help with immune response and help protect neurons from damage?

a. Astrocytes
b. Oligodendricytes
c. Schwann cells
d. Microglial cells

A

Microglial cells

127
Q

When this branch of the of the autonomic nervous system is activated, effects include a decrease
in heart rate and an increase in digestive function
a) Sympathetic
b) Enteric
c) Parasympathetic
d) Peripheral

A

Parasympathetic

128
Q

This part of the brain is responsible for motor coordination

a) Hippocampus
b) Thalamus
c) Medulla
d) Cerebellum

A

Cerebellum

129
Q 
Which of the following is needed to convert the inactive pancreatic enzyme pepsinogen to the 
active enzyme pepsin in the stomach? 
a) HCl 
b) Trypsin 
c) Chymotrypsin 
d) Enterokinase
A

HCl

130
Q
  • *The axon length in Parasympathetic Nervous System is:
    a) Short pre-ganglionic neuron
    b) Long post- ganglionic neuron
    c) Short post-ganglionic neuron
    d) Long pre-ganglionic neuron
A

Short post-ganglionic neuron

131
Q
  • *What animal has the ability to absorb and utilize dietary glucose?
    a) Cow
    b) Horse
    c) Cat
    d) Both A and B.
A

Horse

132
Q

Water can travel across a membrane using:

a) Diffusion
b) Transport Protein
c) Channel Protein
d) Osmosis

A

Osmosis

133
Q

The plasma membrane contains four major membrane components, of those four, which is a
major building block of the animal body?
A) Phospholipids
B) Cholesterol
C) Protein
D) Glycoproteins and Glycolipids

A

Protein

134
Q

**Hormones are chemical messengers produced by endocrine organs. Every hormone has certain
physiological attributes, which of the following attributes is incorrect?
A) Produce a specific effect on other (distant) cells
B) Released from glands or specialized cells within a tissue
C) Function in extremely small concentrations
D) Produce a specific effect on other (local) cells

A

Produce a specific effect on other (local) cells

135
Q 
Ruminants are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ fermenters, while horses are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ fermenters. 
A) Foregut, hindgut
B) Foregut, midgut 
C) Hindgut, foregut 
D) Midgut, hindgut
A

Ruminants - Foregut

Horses - Hindgut

136
Q

Which of the following is an incorrect example of a type of junction found among cells?

a. Gap
b. Desmosome
c. Basolateral
d. Tight

A

Basolateral

137
Q

During which phase of an action potential are the voltage-gated Na+ channels inactivated (not
closed) while the voltage-gated K+ channels are fully open allowing K+ ions to flow out of the
cell?
a. Falling Phase
b. Overshoot
c. Rising Phase
d. Overshoot

A

Falling Phase

138
Q

Which of the following proteins is not part of the thin filament?

a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Troponin
d. Tropomyosin

A

Myosin

139
Q

Which type of gland secretes substances into the blood stream?

a. Pancreatic
b. Endocrine
c. Exocrine
d. Cephalic

A

Endocrine

140
Q
  • *Which of the acid phases is associated with anticipation?
    a. Cephalic
    b. Gastric
    c. Intestinal
    d. Parietal
A

Cephalic

141
Q

Which part of the ruminant stomach resembles a honeycomb-like structure for sorting digesta?

a. Rumen
b. Reticulum
c. Omasum
d. Abomasum

A

Reticulum

142
Q

The Frontal plane divides an animal into…
A. Left and right
B. Top and bottom
C. Towards the spine and away from the spine
D. Male and female

A

Top and Bottom

143
Q 
Which of these is not a neurotransmitter? 
A. Glutamate 
B. Acetylcholine 
C. Cortisol 
D. They are all neurotransmitters
A

Cortisol

144
Q 
What are the 4 segments of all vertebrate organisms in order? 
A. Midgut, Foregut, Hindgut, Headgut 
B. Foregut, Headgut, Midgut, Hindgut 
C. Headgut,Foregut, Hindgut, Midgut 
D. Headgut, Foregut, Midgut, Hindgut
A

Headgut, Foregut, Midgut, Hindgut

145
Q

Which of these is not true regarding saliva in ruminants?

a) Contains urea
b) Provides fluid to the rumen
c) Acts as a buffer in rumen
d) Contains low amounts of Bicarbonate

A

Contains low amounts of Bicarbonate

146
Q

Which one of these is not included in grey matter?

a) Cell bodies
b) Synapses
c) Unmyelinated axons
d) Myelinated axons

A

Myelinated axons

147
Q
  • ***Which factor increases action potential velocity?
    a) Longer axon
    b) No myelination of axon
    c) Smaller axon diameter
    d) Higher temperature
A

Higher Temperature, more myelination, and bigger diameter

148
Q

**The ___________________ in ruminants and the ___________________ in hind-gut fermentors
are the primary sites of microbial digestion.
a) abomasum, colon
b) rumen, colon
c) reticulum, cecum
d) rumen, cecum

A

Ruminants - Rumen

Horses - Cecum

149
Q
  • *Which of the following statements regarding cardiac muscle is false?
    a) Cardiac muscle contains sarcomeres and has a striated appearance.
    b) Cardiac muscle is uninucleated.
    c) Ca2+ is released from the pre-synaptic neuron and enters cardiac muscle via active
    transport.
    d) Cardiac muscle can spontaneously depolarize.
A

Ca2+ is released from the pre-synaptic neuron and enters cardiac muscle via active
transport.

150
Q

Which of the following factors does not play an important role in maintaining resting membrane
potential?
a) Cl- can be easily transported into and out of the cell to offset changes in the electrochemical equilibrium.
b) Ions must pass through membrane channels or be actively transported.
c) Membrane channels are selectively permeable to different ions.
d) Membrane channels may open and close at different times.

A

Cl- can be easily transported into and out of the cell to offset changes in the electrochemical equilibrium.

151
Q

Physiology can be described as?

a) How the body works
b) The structure of the body
c) Origin of the body
d) The whole animal and how it operates to live

A

How the body works

152
Q

All of the following are true about Active Transport except

a) Binding transporter
b) No ATP is used
c) Goes against the equilibrium
d) primary and secondary degrees present

A

No ATP is used

153
Q

The enzyme produced in the Pancreas to help with starch digestion are?

a) Trypsinogen
b) Lipase
c) Bicarbonate
d) Amylase

A

Amylase

154
Q
  • *Which of the following zones of the sarcomere only contains myosin?
    a) I-band
    b) H-zone
    c) Z-disk
    d) A-band
A

H-zone

155
Q
  • *Which of the following zones is composed of parts of two adjacent sarcomeres?
    a) I-band
    b) H-zone
    c) Z-disk
    d) A-band
A

I-band

156
Q

What part of the neuron is responsible for propagating the action potential?

a) Cell body/soma
b) Dendrite
c) Axon
d) Presynaptic Terminal

A

Axon

157
Q 
**Which membrane component helps maintain the structure of the cell? 
A. Cholesterol 
B. Glycoproteins & glycolipids 
C. Protein 
D. Phospholipids
A

Cholesterol

158
Q

What determines whether or not a voltage-gated channel is opened or closed?
A. Changes in membrane tension
B. If a specific molecule is bound to the protein
C. Charge gradient across the membrane
D. If channel protein is phosphorylated

A

Charge gradient across the membrane

159
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a chronic response? 
A. Fatigue 
B. Thicker hair coat 
C. Shivering 
D. Increase in heart rate
A

Thicker hair coat

Animal Physiology Final Exam (5 decks)

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