Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Antihistamine Action

A

Antianxiety agent that exerts CNS depressant activity at the subcortical level of the CNS, particularly the limbic system & the reticular formation. They potentate the effects of the powerful inhibitory neurotransmitter, GABA, thereby producing calming effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Antihistamine side effects

A

Antianxiety agent whose side effects include dry mouth, drowsiness, and/or pain at IM sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Antihistamine Drug names

A

hydroxyzine, vistaril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sublimation

A

rechanneling of drives or impulses that are personally or socially unacceptable into activities that are constructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

isolation

A

separating a thought or memory from the feeling tone or emotion associated with it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

regression

A

retreating in response to stress to an earlier level of development & the comfort measures associated with that level of functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

rationalization

A

attempting to make excuses or formulate logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

intellectualization

A

an attempt to avoid expressing actual emotions associated with a stressful situation by using the intellectual processes of logic, reasoning, & analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

identification

A

an attempt to increase self-worth by acquiring certain attributes & characteristics of an individual one admires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

denial

A

refusing to acknowledge the existence of a real situation or the feelings associated with it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

compensation

A

covering up a real or perceived weakness by emphazing a trait one considers more desirable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

undoing

A

symbolically negating or canceling out an experience that one finds intolerable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

reaction formation

A

preventing unacceptable or undesirable thoughts or behaviors from being expressed by exaggerating opposite thoughts or types of behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

introjection

A

integrating the beliefs and values of another individual into one’s own ego structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

displacement

A

the transfer of feelings from one target to another that is considered less threatening or that is neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

suppression

A

the voluntary blocking of unpleasant feelings and experiences from one’s awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

repression

A

involuntarily blocking unpleasant feelins and experiences from one’s awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

projection

A

attributing feelings or impulses unacceptable to one’s self to another person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Neurons are composed of…

A

cell body, axon, dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

classes of neurons

A

afferent, efferent, interneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

neurotransmitters

A

allow nerves to communicate with other nerves & surrounding tissues/funcation can be disrupted by systemic chemical changes,disease, and drugs/allow normal behaviors,emotions & cognition when WNL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

receptors

A

are the binding sites for neurotransmitters in the brain/ when activated cause nerve cells to be excited or inhibited/ can be dysfunctional in brain disease states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

major categories of neurotransmitters

A

cholinergics, monoamines, amino acids, neuropeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

monoamines

A

norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

acetylcholine

A

cholinergic responsible for sleep, arousal, pain perception, movement, memory

increased levels= depression
decreased levels= Alzheimer’s, Huntington’s, Parkinson’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

norepinephrine

A

monoamine responsible for mood, cognition, perception, locomotion, cardiovascular function, sleep, arousal

increased levels= mania, anxiety states, schizophrenia
decreased levels= depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

dopamine

A

monoamine responsible for movement & coordination, emotion, voluntary judgment, release of prolactin

increased levels= mania, schizophrenia
decreased levels= depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

serotonin

A

monoamine responsible for sleep, arousal, libido, appetite, mood, aggression, pain perception, coordination, judgment

increased levels= anxiety states
decreased levels= depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

histamine

A

monoamine responsilbe for wakefulness, pain sensation, inflammatory response

increased levels= associated with wakefulness
decreased levels= depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

GABA

A

inhibitory amino acid that slows down body acitivity, calming peacemaker in the brain

increased levels= decreases anxiety, reduces stress, increases focus
decreased levels= anxiety disorder, Huntington’s, schizophrenia, epilepsy, hypertension, cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Glycine

A

inhibitory amino acid responsible for recurrent inhibition of motor neurons

increased levels= toxic, encephalopathy, hyptonia, lethargy, muscle twitching
decreased levels= spastic motor movements, poorly controlled seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

excitatory amino acids

A

glutamate & aspartate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

glutamate & aspartate

A

excitatory amino acids responsible for relay of sensory information in the regulation of various motor & spinal reflexes

increased levels=Huntington’s, temporal lobe epilepsy, spinal cerebellar degeneration
decreased levels= may contribute to developing schizophrenia & psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

endorphins & enkephalins

A

neuropeptides that modulate pain & reduce peristalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

substance P

A

neuropeptide that regulates pain & processing of inflammation

increased levels= depression, increases anxiety & disrupts sleep
decreased levels= Alzheimer’s, Huntington’s, increased itching in eczema, insensitive to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

somatostatin

A

neuropeptide that dependent upon the part of the brain being affected stimulates release of dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine & acetylcholine OR inhibits the release of norepinephrine, histamine & glutamate. Neuromodulator of serotonin in hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

hormones of the posterior lobe of the pituitary

A

vasopressin and oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

hormones of the anterior lobe of the pituitary

A

growth hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, prolactin, gonadotropic hormones, melanocyte-stimulating hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

sleep stages

A
0-Alpha
1-Beta
2- Theta
3-Delta
4-Delta
REM-Beta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

neurochemical influences on sleep/wake cycle

A

serotonin, & L tryptophan, norepinephrine, GABA, actylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

genotype

A

total set of genes in an individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

phenotypes

A

characteristics that are not only genetic but also may be acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

neurochemicals that may influence the immune system

A

growth hormone, testosterone, epinephrine, norepinephrine, serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

antidepressants work by

A

blocking the reuptake of serotonin & norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

antipsychotics work by

A

blocking specific neurotransmitter receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

benzodiazepines facilitate

A

the transmission of GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

psychostimulants increase

A

the release of norepinephrine, serotonin, & dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

nucleus acumbens

A

compulsions, locomotor activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

thalamus

A

weigh station for incoming sensory signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

hypothalamus

A

instinctive & appetite systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

brainstem

A

alerting, stimulus filtering, sleep, autonomic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

stress

A

the state manifested by a specfic syndrome that consists of all the nonspecifically induced changes within a biologic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

adaption

A

restoration of homeostasis to the internal environmental system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

general adaption syndrome

A
  1. alarm reaction stage
  2. stage of resistance
  3. stage of exhaustion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

precipitating event

A

a stimulus arising from the internal or external environment & perceived by the individual in a specific manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

primary appraisal

A

a judgment about the situation in one of the following ways: irrelevant, benign-positive, stress appraisal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

seondary appraisal

A

an assessment of skills, resources, & knowledge that the person possesses to deal with the situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

cognitive appraisal

A

an individual’s evaluation of the personal significance of an event or occurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

stress management

A

the use of coping strategies in the response to stressful situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

adaptive coping strategies…

A

protect the individual from harm & restore physical and psychological homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

list some adaptive coping strategies

A

awareness, relaxation, meditation, problem-solving, pets, music, interpersonal communication with caring individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Who associated mental illness with an irregularity in the interaction among the four humors?

A

Hippocrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What four humors did Hippocrates associate with mental illness?

A

blood, black bile, yellow bile & phlegm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

practice of the middle ages where the mentally ill were sent out to sea to search for their lost rationality

A

ship of fools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

1st asylums for the mentally ill were established

A

in the middle ages in Middle Eastern Islamic countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

1st hospital in America to admit mentally ill

A

Philadelphia- mid 18th century

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

father of American psychiatry initiated the 1st humane treatment for mentally ill in the United States

A

Benjamin Rush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

19th century lobbyist successful in establishing state hospitals for the humane treatment of the mentally ill

A

Dorothea Dix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

1st American psychiatric nurse helped establish 1st school of psychiatric nursing 1882

A

Linda Richards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

the successful adaption to stressors from the internal or external environment, evidenced by thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate & congruent with local & cultural norms.

A

mental health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

maladpative responses to stressors from the internal and external enviroment, evidenced by thoughts, feelings, & behaviors that are incongruent with the local & cultural norms & interfere with the individual’s social, occupational, or physical functioning

A

mental illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

anxiety disorder, somotaform disorders & dissociative disorders

A

psychoneurotic patterns of behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Peplau’s 4 levels of anxiety

A

mild, moderate, severe, panic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

a diffuse apprenhension that is vague in nature and is associated with feelings of uncertainty & helplessness

A

anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

the “normality” of behavior is determined by the culture

A

cultural relativity

76
Q

the inability of the general population to understand the motivation behind the behavior

A

incomrenhensibility

77
Q

examples of psychoses

A

schizophrenia, schiozaffective delusional disorders

78
Q

the subjective state of emotional, physical, & social responses to the loss of a valued entity; loss may be real or perceived

A

grief

79
Q

Kubler-Ross Five stages of grief

A

denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

80
Q

anticipatory grief

A

the experiencing of the grief process before the actual loss occurs

81
Q

Resolution is delayed by…

A

guilt for having had a love-hate relationship with the lost entity/ experiencing multiple losses & inability to complete one grieving process before another one begins

82
Q

Resolution is facilitated by…

A

anticipatory grieving

83
Q

length of the grief process is entirely individual, it can last a few weeks to years

A

resolution

84
Q

Resolution of the grief response is thought to occur when…

A

an individual can look back on the relationship with the lost entity & accept both the pleasures & the disappointments of the association

85
Q

maladaptive grief response

A

prolonged response/ delayed or inhibited response/ distorted response

86
Q

clinical disorders & other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention

A

Axis I

87
Q

personality disorders & mental retardation

A

Axis II

88
Q

general medical conditions

A

Axis III

89
Q

psychosocial & environmental problems

A

Axis IV

90
Q

global assessment of functioning rated on the GAF scale, which measures an individual’s psycological, social, and occupational functioning

A

Axis V

91
Q

needs at this level on Maslow’s hierarchy are for avoiding harm, maintaining comfort, order, structure, physical safety, freedom from fear & protection

A

safety & security

92
Q

basic, fundamental needs on Maslow’s hierarchy include food, water, air, sleep, exercise, elimination, shelter & sexual expression

A

physiological needs

93
Q

needs on Maslow’s hierarchy are for giving & receiving affection, companionship, satisfactory interpersonal relationships, and identification with a group

A

Love & Belonging

94
Q

Maslow- the individual seeks self-respect & respect from others, works to achieve success & recognition in work, and desires prestige from accomplishments

A

self-esteem/ esteem of others

95
Q

Maslow- the individual possesses a feeling of self-fulfillment & the realization of his or her highest potential

A

self actualization

96
Q

a collection of individuals whose association is founded on shared commonalities of interest, values, norms or purpose

A

group

97
Q

Membership is a group…

A

is generally by chance, choice or circumstance.

98
Q

function of a group-socialization

A

the teaching of social norms occurs through groups

99
Q

function of a group-support

A

fellow members are available in time of need

100
Q

function of a group- task completion

A

groups can assist in endeavors that are beyond the capacity of a single individual

101
Q

function of a group- camaraderie

A

individuals receive joy & pleasure from interactions with significant others

102
Q

function of a group- informational

A

learning takes place when group members share their knowledge with the others in the group

103
Q

function of a group- normative

A

different groups enforce established norms in various ways

104
Q

function of a group- empowerment

A

change can be made by groups at times when individuals alone are ineffective

105
Q

function of a group- governance

A

large organizations often have leadership that is provided by groups rather than by a singel individual

106
Q

types of groups

A

task, teaching, therapeutic, self-help

107
Q

the way in which group members interact with each other

A

group process

108
Q

the topic or issue being discussed in the group

A

group content

109
Q

members leave and others join at any time during the existance of the group

A

open-ended groups

110
Q

all members join at the time the group is organized & terminate membership at the end of a designated period of time

A

close-ended groups

111
Q

instillation of hope

A

by observing the progress of others in the group with similar problems, a group member garners hope that his/her problems can also be resolved

112
Q

universality

A

individuals come to realize that they are not alone in the problems, thoughts, & feelings they are experiencing

113
Q

imparting of information

A

group members share their knowledg with each other; leaders of teaching groups also provide information to group members

114
Q

Altruism

A

individuals provide assistance & support to each other, thereby helping to create a positive self-image & promote self growth

115
Q

corrective recapitulation of the primary family group

A

group members are able to re-experience early family conflicts that remain unresolved

116
Q

development of socializing techniques

A

through interaction with & feedback from other members of the group, individuals are able to correct maladaptive social behaviors & learn to develop new social skills

117
Q

imitative behavior

A

group members who have mastered a particular psychosocial skill or developmental task serve as valuable role models for others

118
Q

interpersonal learning

A

group offers varied opportunities for interacting with other people

119
Q

group cohesiveness

A

members develop a sense of belonging that separates the individual (I am) from the group (we are)

120
Q

catharsis

A

within the group, members are able to express both positive & negative feelings`

121
Q

existential factors

A

the group is able to assist individual members to undertake direction of their own lives & to accept responsiblity for the quality of their existence

122
Q

leadership style where focus is on the leader, on whom the members are dependent for problem-solving, decision making, & permission to perform

production is high, but morale is low

A

autocratic leadership

123
Q

leadership style where focus is on members, who are encouraged to participate fully in problem solving of group issues, including taking action to effect change

production lower, but morale much higher

A

democratic leadership

124
Q

leadership style with no focus, goals are undefined & members do as they please

productivity & morale are low

A

Laissez-faire

125
Q

a type of group therapy that employs a dramatic approach in which clients become “actors” in life-situation scenarios

A

psychodrama

126
Q

3 roles played by members of a group

A

task roles, maintenance roles, individual (personal) roles

127
Q

enduring patterns of perceiving, relating to, & thinking about the environment & oneself that are exhibited in a wide range of social and personal contexts

A

personality traits

128
Q

inborn personality characteristicis

A

temperament

129
Q

Personality disorder occur when…

A

personality traits become inflexible & maladaptive, causing either significant functional impairment or subjective distress.

130
Q

Freud’s 3 components of personality

A

id, ego, superego

131
Q

Freud’s Stages of Development of Personality

A
oral stage (birth-18 months)
anal stage (18 months-3 years)
phallic stage (3-6 years)
latency stage (6-12 years)
genital stage (13-20 years)
132
Q

the study of the biological foundations of cognitive, emotional, & behavioral processes

A

psychobiology

133
Q

cerebrum, diencephalon

A

forebrain

134
Q

mesencephalon

A

midbrain

135
Q

pons, medulla, cerebellum

A

hindbrain

136
Q

cerebral cortex

A

intelligence, judgment & inhibitory control

137
Q

prefrontal cortex

A

planning, reasoning, decision making

138
Q

hippocampus

A

cognitive learning & memory

139
Q

amygdala

A

emotional memory

140
Q

basal ganglia

A

reaction time, fine motor control

141
Q

anthihistamine indications

A

antianxiety agent that treats anxiety disorders, relief of anxiety, acute alcohol withdrawa, allergic reactions producing puritic or asthmatic conditions, antiematic, reduction of narcotic requirement

142
Q

antianxiety chemical classes

A

antihistamines, benzodiazepines

143
Q

antidepressants chemical classes

A

tricyclics, SSRIs, MAOIs

144
Q

barbiturates - contraindications

A

hypersensitivity, severe renal, hepatic, cardiac or respiratory disease; history of OD drug or alcohol abuse; porphyria, intra-arterial or subcutaneous administrations/use cautiously in elderly & debilitated, depressed or suicidal clients, children, pregnancy or lactation

145
Q

Heterocyclics- drug names

A

Antidepressants named

Bupropion, Marpotiline, Mirtazapine, Trazodone

146
Q

Nonselective reuptake inhibitors -drug names

A

antidepressants named

Nefazodone, Venlafaxine

147
Q

Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors-drug names

A

anitdepressants named

Isocarbozazid, Phenelzine, Tranylcypromine

148
Q

MAOIs - side effects

A

antidepressants that can cause dizziness, headache, orthostatic hypertension, contstipation, nausea, edema, sexual dysfunction, weight gain, disturbance of circadian rhthym, insomnia, hypertensive crisis

149
Q

MAOIs- actions

A

antidepressants that inhibit the enzyme MAO, resulting in an increase in the concentration of endogenous epinephrine, norepinephrine, & serotonin in storage sites throughout the nervous system

150
Q

MAOIs - indications

A

antidepressants used to treat depression

151
Q

SSRIs- drug names

A

antidepressants named

Citalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline

152
Q

SSRIs - side effects

A

headache, insomnia, nervousness, sweating, anxiety, dizziness, nausea, sexual dysfunction, somnolence & dry mouth

153
Q

barbiturates - action

A

depresses CNS; interferes with transmission through the reticular formation which is concerned with arousal; action on neurotransmitters is not well defined; all levels of CNS depression can occur from mild sedation to hypnosis to coma to death

154
Q

SSRIs - actions

A

antidepressants that selectively inhibit the CNS neuronal uptake of serotonin, thus potentiating its activity

155
Q

SSRIs - indications

A

antidepressants used to treat depression, OCD, Bulima Nervousa, & panic disorders. Unlabeld uses include alcoholism, anorexia nervosa, ADHD, PMS, migraine headaches, & obesity

156
Q

Tricyclics - drug names

A

antidepressant drugs named

Amitriptyline, Clomipramine, Doxepin, Desipramine, Imipramine, Nortriptyline, Protriptyline, Trimipramine

157
Q

Tricyclics -side effects

A

antidepressants that can cause drowsiness, dry mouth, orthostatic hyptension, tachycardia, constipation urinary retention, blood dyscrasias, nausea, vomiting, and photosensitivity

158
Q

Tricyclics - indications

A

antidepressants used to treat major depression, dysthymic drug overdose, depression associated with bipolar drug overdose & anxiety, childhood enuersis & OCD, investigatory uses include ADHD, Panic disorders, chronic pain & alcoholism

159
Q

Tricyclics - action

A

antidepressants that inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine or serotonin at the presynaptic neurons

160
Q

Benzodiazepines- indications

A

antianxiety agents used to treat anxiety disorders, anxiety symptoms, acute alcohol withdrawal, skeletal muscle spasms, convulsive disorders & status epilepticus, preop sedation

161
Q

Benzodiazepines - action

A

antianxienty agents thought to potentiate the effects of GABA, a powerful inhibitory neurotransmitter, thereby producing a calming effect/ effect may involve the spinal cord, brain stem, cerebellum, limbic system & cortical areas

162
Q

Benzodiazepines - drug names

A

antianxiety agents named

Alprazolam, Clonazepam, Chloridiazepoxide, Clorazepate, Diazepa, Lorazepam, Oxazepam

163
Q

Benzodiazepines - side effects

A

antianxiety agents can cause drowsiness, dizziness, ataxia, lethargy, hypotension, tolerance, physical and psychological dependence

164
Q

antipsychotics - chemical classes

A

phenothiazines, benzisoxazole, butyrophenone

165
Q

antipsychotic - side effects

A

anticholinergic, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, nausea, GI upset, skin rashes, sedation, orthostatic hypotension, photosensitivity, reduction of seizure threshold, agranulocytosis, salivtion, EPS, tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, weight gain, decreased libido, retrograde ejaculation, amenorrhea, gynecomastia

166
Q

Phenothiazines - indications

A

antipsychotic used to treat acute & chronic psychoses, mania, recurrent psychotic symptoms in dementia, as an antiemmetic, intractable hiccups, control of tics and vocal utterances

167
Q

Phenothiazines- action

A

antipsychotic agent thought to work by blocking post-synaptic dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia, hyothalamus, limbic system, brain stem & medulla. Also demonstrates affinity for cholinergic, alpha 1- adrenergic & histamine receptors. May also be related to inhibition of dopamine mediated transmission of neural impulses at the synapse.

168
Q

Phenothiazine - drug names

A

Antipsychotic agents named

Fluphenazine, Mesoridazine, Perphenazine, Prochlorperazine, Promazine, Thioridazine, Trifluuoperazine, Triflupromazine

169
Q

Benzisoxazole - indications

A

Antipsychotic agents used to manage manifestations of psychotic drug overdose

170
Q

Benzisoxazole - actions

A

Antipsychotic agent that exerts antagonistic effects on dopamine type 2, serotonin type 2, alpha 1 & alpha 2 adrenergic & H1 histaminergic receptors.

171
Q

Benzisoxasole - drug name

A

Antipsychotic agent named

Risperidone

172
Q

Butyrophenone - indications

A

Antipsychotic agent used in the management of manifestations of psychotic drug overdose, psychotic symptoms in dementia in elderly, control of hyperactivity & severe behavior in children

173
Q

Butyrophenone - actions

A

Antipsychotic agents that block postsynaptic dopamine receptors in the hypothalamus, limbic system, and reticular formation, demonstrates for cholinergic, alpha 1-adrenergic & histaminic receptors

174
Q

Butyrophenone- drug name

A

antipsychotic agent named

Haloperidol

175
Q

Phase of group development

  1. leader/members work together to establish rules & goals for group
  2. leader promotes trust & ensures that rules do not interfere with goal achievement
  3. members are superficial & overly polite/ trust not established
A

Inital Phase of group development

176
Q

Phase of group development

  1. productive work towards completion of the task is undertaken
  2. leader role diminishes & becomes facilitator
  3. trust established between members, cohesiveness exists
  4. conflict manged by group members themselves
A

Middle/ Working phase of group development

177
Q

Phase of group development

  1. a sense of loss, precipitating the grief process that may be experienced by member
  2. leader encourages members to discuss feelings of loss & reminisce about accomplishments of the group
  3. feelings of abandonment & grief for previous losses may be triggered for members
A

Final/ Termination phase of group development

178
Q

Peplau’s Nursing Model stages of personality development

A

stage 1- learn to count on others
stage 2- learn to delay gratification
stage 3- identifying oneself
stage 4-developing skills in participation

179
Q

Peplau’s Nursing Model of Development - Roles

A

resource person, counselor, teacher, leader, technical support, surrogate

180
Q

Kohlberg’s Levels of Moral development

A
preconventional level (4-10 years)
conventional level (10-13 years & into adulthood)
post conventional level (from adolescence on)
181
Q

Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive Development

A

sensorimotor (birth - 2 years)
peroperational (2-6 years)
concrete operations (6-12 years)
formal operations (12-15+ years)

182
Q

Erikson’s Theory of Psychosocial development stages

A
trust vs mistrust (birth-18 months)
autonomy vs shame/doubt (18 mo- 3 years)
initiative vs guilt (3-6 years)
industry vs inferiority (6-12 years)
identity vs role confusion (12-20 years)
intimacy vs isolation (20-30 years)
generativity vs stagnation (30-65 years)
ego integrity vs despair (65 years - death)
183
Q

Mahler’s Theory of Object Relations Stages

A

phase I: autism (birth-1 month)
phase II: symbiosis (1-5 months)
phase III: separation-individuation (5-36 months)

184
Q

Mahler’s phase III subphases

A

differentiation (5-10 months)
practicing (10-16 months)
rapprochement (16-24 months)
consolidation (24-36 months)

185
Q

Sullivan’s Interpersonal Theory Major Concepts

A

anxiety, satisfaction of needs, interpersonal security, self-esteem.

186
Q

Sullivan’s Interpersonal Theory Stages of Development

A
infancy (birth -18 months)
childhood (18 months to 6 years)
juvenile (6-9 years)
preadolescence (9-12 years)
early adolescence (12-14 years)
late adolescence (14-21 years )