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anatomy 2 > exam 1 > Flashcards

exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  • connective tissue
    1. developmental origins
    2. more matrix than cells
  • structural components: ground substance, fibers, cells
A

blood

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2
Q
  • fluid connective tissue
  • cells dont produce the matrix (most proteins made by live + others are made by endocrine and immune cells)
    • no insoluble fiber *
A

blood differs from other connective tissues

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3
Q

transport of:
- gases (O2 + CO2)
- nutrients (amino acids, glucose)
- metabolic wastes (CO2, nitrogenous wastes, acids)
- hormones
- stem cells

A

functions of blood: transport, protection, and regulation

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4
Q
  • immune defenses (especially roles of plasma proteins, WBS, immune system components)
  • preventing blood loss
A

blood protection

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5
Q
  • fluid volume
  • body temp
  • pH and ion composition
A

blood regulation

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6
Q

what is the pH of blood

A

7.35 - 7.45

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7
Q

acts as a solvent and suspending medium for blood components

A

water

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8
Q

partly responsible for blood viscosity and osmotic pressure; act as buffers; transport fatty acids; free bilirubin, + thyroid hormones

A

albumins (most abundant 58% in plasma)

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9
Q

protection from damage by inflammation; transport thyroid hormones, cortisol, and testosterone + estrogen; transport lipids, which promotes iron transport by transferrin; transport hemoglobin released from damaged RBCs

A

globulins alpha

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10
Q

transport iron; transport lipids, especially cholesterol in low density lipoproteins; involved with immunity; prevent blood loss

A

globulins beta

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11
Q

involved in immunity

A

globulins gamma

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12
Q

functions blood clotting

A

fibrinogens

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13
Q

involved in osmosis, membrane potentials, and acid-base balance

A

ions

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14
Q

source of energy and basic building blocks of more complex molecules
- promote enzyme activity

A

nutrients

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15
Q

breakdown products of protein metabolism; excreted by the kidneys

A

urea, uric acid, creatine, ammonia salts

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16
Q

breakdown products of RBCs; exerted as part of the bile from the liver into the small intestine

A

bilirubin

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17
Q

end product of anaerobic respiration; converted to glucose by the liver

A

lactate

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18
Q

necessary for aerobic respiration; terminal electron acceptor in ETC

A

O2

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19
Q

waste product of aerobic respiration; as bicarbonate, helps buffer blood

A

CO2

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20
Q

inert

A

nitrogen

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21
Q

55% of the whole blood

A

plasma

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22
Q

buffet coat: _____ + _____
1% of whole blood

A

leukocytes and platelets

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23
Q

45% of the whole blood

A

erythrocytes (RBCs)

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24
Q

bright color blood

A

oxygen enriched

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25
Q

dark color blood

A

oxygen deprived

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26
Q

t/f warmth scale —- skeletal > blood > core

A

false

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27
Q

____ is plasma - clotting proteins

A

serum

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28
Q

pH of acidosis

A

less than 7.35

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29
Q

pH of alkalosis

A

7.45

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30
Q

protein - 7% : albumin 58%, globulins 38%, fibrinogen 4%

water 91%

other solutes 2%: ions, nutrients, waste products, gases, regulatory substances

A

plasma composition

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31
Q

abnormal excess of RBCs

A

polycythemia

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32
Q

not enough RBCs or RBCs dont form properly –> decreased O2 carrying capacity of blood

A

anemia

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33
Q

blood loss

A

hemorrhagic anemia

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34
Q

bone marrow doesn’t make enough blood cells

A

aplastic anemia

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35
Q

dont make enough hemoglobin

A

iron defiency anemia

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36
Q

vitamin b12 deficiency

A

pernicious anemia

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37
Q

premature lysis of RBCs ex. sickle cell anemia

A

hemolytic anemia

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38
Q

thrombocytes, considered cell fragments

A

platelets

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39
Q

blood cell formation generally occurs in the ___ ___

A

bone marrow

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40
Q

some ____ blood cells can be made from pre-existing cells in other locations

  • myeloid + lymphoid lineages
A

white

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41
Q
  • efficiency of gas exchange
  • ability to move through small blood vessels (capillaries)
  • turbulence reduction (less spinning)
A

disc shape in RBCs beneficial

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42
Q

mature ___ blood cells are anucleate and lack organelles (including mitochondria)

A

red

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43
Q

most of the RBC volume is taken up by the respiratory pigment _____

A

hemoglobin

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44
Q

O2 binds reversibly to ___ of heme groups, some carbon dioxide binds to amino acids of protein subunits

45
Q
  • early stages have organelles, later ejected
  • hemoglobin accumulation affects cell appearance under microscope
  • enter blood as reticulocytes that mature into RBCs
A

major stages occurring in the cell of erythropoiesis

46
Q

T/F There MUST be a basal level of erythropoiesis in the body in order to replace damaged RBCs

47
Q

the main stimulus to increase erythropoiesis is ___, kidneys respond by releasing the hormone ___

A

hypoxia, erythropoietin (EPO)

48
Q
  • hormones (EPO + testosterone)
  • diet/ nutrition : iron, vitamin B folic acid
  • other factors that alter balance between RBCs production and degradation
A

major factors that influence erythropoiesis

49
Q

antibodies can only interact with the RBCs and cause them to clump together if antigen is present on the RBCs

A

agglutination

50
Q

mix blood sample with antiserum + visualize against a light background

A

how agglutination assays work

51
Q

_____ is administered to prevent sensitization problems with the future pregnancies

52
Q
  • defending body against pathogens
  • removing toxins and wastes
  • attacking abnormals or damaged cells
    2. possess both nuclei + organelle
    3. capable of laboring blood stream at capillaries
    —— usually spend short art of time in circulation
    4. amoeboid movement
    5. attract to specific chemical stimuli
A

characteristics of WBCs

53
Q
  • especially helpful combatting with bacterial infections
  • phagocytic
  • use defensins, digestive enzymes, and respiratory burst
  • usually die in process
  • multi-lobed nuclei (3-6 lobes)
    -“neutral-loving” granules that take up either acidic and basic dyes (stain lighter than other granulocytes)
A

neutrophils aka polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN)

54
Q
  • generally aid in killing that’s that are too large to be engulfed (for ex. parasitic worms)
  • also phagocytic
  • granules stain pink/red (take up pacific dyes such as eosin)
  • typically bilobed nucleus, some describe as resembling earmuffs
A

eosinophils

55
Q
  • promote local inflammation
  • histamine (vasodilator)
  • heparin ( anticoagulant)
  • granules stain dark blue
  • bilobed nucleus that may be obscured by stained granules
56
Q
  • b lymphocytes (b-cells) - humoral immunity
  • t lymphocytes (T-cells) = cell mediated immunity
  • natural killer cels - immune surveillance
  • lack obv granules
  • large, spherical nucleus surrounded by a halo of cytoplasm
A

lymphocytes

57
Q

blood cell formation

A

hematopoiesis

58
Q

white blood cell formation

A

leukopoiesis

59
Q

mediated by chemical signals called colony stimulating factors CSF

A

leukopoiesis

60
Q

produced at higher rate due to short lifespans

A

granulocytes

61
Q

can be made form pre-existing cells in other locations

A

lymphocytes

62
Q

thrombopoietin promotes platelet (thrombocyte) formation via promoting growth of megakaryocytic precursors and generation of mature megakaryocytes

A

thrombopoiesis

63
Q

_____ are cell fragments that develop from megakaryocytes

64
Q
  • glycoproteins and proteins on surface allow them to attach to things for platelet plug formation
  • have granules that contain secretions important for hemostasis
  • contractile proteins (actin + myosin) important for reducing size of opening in vessel wall
  • Short lived (5-9 days)
65
Q

functions:

  • form a temporary patch when vessel wall is damaged
  • release chemicals important to hemostasis and tissue repair
  • reduce size of breaks in vessel walls
A

platelets – thrombocytes that are cell fragments that are activated when blood vessels are damaged

66
Q

immediate but temporary constriction of blood vessel involving smooth muscle in vessel wall
- mediated by chemicals released from endothelial cells and platelets and nervous system

A

vascular spasm

67
Q

what are the 3 stages of hemostasis

A
  1. vascular spasm
  2. platelet plug formation
  3. coagulation
68
Q
  • normally aggregation is prevented by PROSTACYCLIN RELEASE from endothelial cells
  • plates adhere to exposed collagen fibers and a factor released by damaged blood vessels
  • platelets release chemicals that bind and activate more platelets
  • platelets can then change shape and interact with fibrinogen
A

platelet plug formation

69
Q
  • network of fibrin forms a “mesh” that traps fluids, platelets, and RBCs
  • clotting factors become activated, cascades end in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
  • 2 ways to initiate –
  1. extrinsic = faster, outside blood
  2. intrinsic = slower, within blood
  • converge at common pathway
A

coagulation

70
Q

breakdown of fibrin = gradually dissolving clots over days

A

fibrinolysis

71
Q
  • platelet repulsion (healthy endothelial cells release prostacyclin)
  • dilution (normal blood flow quickly dilutes out any release chemicals/activated clotting factors)
  • anticoagulants — antithrombin deactivates thrombin; heparin transfers with prothrombin activator formation, + promotes action of antithrombin
A

how excessive clotting is prevented

72
Q

leftward tilt from the base towards the apex

A

position of the heart

73
Q

stabilizes + protects the heart

A

fibrous pericardium

74
Q

surrounds pericardial cavity, important for reducing friction

A

serous pericardium

75
Q

_____ has a simple squamous epithelium overlaying a thin areolar tissue layer (no adipose tissue)

A

endocardium

76
Q

endocarditis is a potentially life-threatening inflammatory condition often associated with bacterial infection

A
  • endocardium is associated
  • Risk: blood clots –> heart attacks
77
Q
  • anchors cardiac muscle cells
  • thicker around valves + great vessels
  • not electrically excitable
A

cardiac skeleton

78
Q

preventing backwards flow of circulatory fluid

79
Q

both sides of the heart pump unequal or equal volumes of blood, but the workload is equal or unequal?

A

equal, unequal

80
Q

= bicuspid valve = mitrial valve

A

left atrioventricular valve

81
Q

tricuspid valve

A

right atrioventricular valve

82
Q

blood tries to flow backward into the left ventricle from the aorta but is stopped by the ____ ____ valves closing

A

aortic semilunar valves

83
Q

chp 19 slide 26

A

FLOW OF BLOOD THROUGH THE HEART AND CIRCUITS

84
Q

_____ vessels run on the surface of the heart

85
Q

vessels converge at various points inside the heart to provide alternative routes of flow should the primary route become obstructed (_____ _____)

A

arterial anastomoses

86
Q

what supplies half of the heart

A

left anterior interventricular artery; if blocked, half of the blood supply is blocked

87
Q

____ contract before the ventricles

88
Q

____ muscles begin contracting slightly before the rest of the ventricles

89
Q

t/f pattern of ventricular contraction facilitates pushing blood towards the base

90
Q

t/f heart cannot contract in the absence of signals from the nervous and endocrine system

A

false, it can

91
Q

pacemaker cells display ______ - spontaneously depolarize due to unstable resting membrane potential

A

autorhythmicity

92
Q

signals from the autonomic nervous modify how long it takes to reach the threshold and thus affect the ____ ____

A

heart rate

93
Q

pleteau phase in cardiac muscle cell repolarize prevents ____

94
Q

the heart is fatigue-resistant and relies on ____ ____

A

aerobic respiration; way more mitochondria than skeletal muscle and can use multiple “fuel types: to generate ATP

95
Q
  • branch at ends and connect with other cells to form a network
  • using sliding filament mechanism of contraction, similar to skeletal muscle
  • pull against the cardiac skeleton when contract
  • possess key differences that enable coordination among cells, anchor cardiomyocytes together and help prevent fatigue and tetanus
A

cardiac contractile cells (cardiomyocytes)

96
Q
  1. interdigitating folds
  2. mechanical junctions - fascia adherens and desmosomes
  3. electrical junctions – gap junctions
A

structure of intercalated disks

97
Q

______ prevent tetanus by extending the absolute refractory period

A

cardiomyocytes

98
Q

pacemaker cells found at ____ node and ____ node

99
Q

pacemaker cells of the ___ node spontaneously depolarize faster than those of the ____ node

100
Q

____ activity affects the rates of repolarization and depolarization

101
Q

inflow of NA+ is not balanced with outflow of K+ –> moves toward threshold

A

pacemaker potential

102
Q

cardiac has a longer plateau due to what

A

CA2+ flowing in more than K+ leaving out

103
Q
  1. sa node fires
  2. excitation spreads through atrial myocardium
  3. av node fires
  4. excitation spreads down AV bundle
  5. subendocardial branches distribute excitation through the ventricular myocardium
A

action potential of the SA node

104
Q

there is approximately ____ ms delay btw when the action potentials reach the AC node and pass to the AV bundle

A

100
- reduction in diameter of conducting cell fivers
- fewer gap junctions btw cells

105
Q

what does ECG monitor

A

electrical signals of the heart muscles

106
Q

Function(s):
* Differentiate into macrophages
once in tissues = phagocytic
* Helps recruit other WBCs and
fibroblasts
Identifying features:
* Largest of WBCs in blood
* Lack obvious granules
* Kidney bean-shaped or U-shaped
nucleus

107
Q
  1. atrial systole
  2. atrial diastole
  3. ventricular systole
  4. ventricular diastole
A

cardiac cycle

anatomy 2 (3 decks)

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