exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  • connective tissue
    1. developmental origins
    2. more matrix than cells
  • structural components: ground substance, fibers, cells
A

blood

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2
Q
  • fluid connective tissue
  • cells dont produce the matrix (most proteins made by live + others are made by endocrine and immune cells)
    • no insoluble fiber *
A

blood differs from other connective tissues

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3
Q

transport of:
- gases (O2 + CO2)
- nutrients (amino acids, glucose)
- metabolic wastes (CO2, nitrogenous wastes, acids)
- hormones
- stem cells

A

functions of blood: transport, protection, and regulation

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4
Q
  • immune defenses (especially roles of plasma proteins, WBS, immune system components)
  • preventing blood loss
A

blood protection

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5
Q
  • fluid volume
  • body temp
  • pH and ion composition
A

blood regulation

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6
Q

what is the pH of blood

A

7.35 - 7.45

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7
Q

acts as a solvent and suspending medium for blood components

A

water

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8
Q

partly responsible for blood viscosity and osmotic pressure; act as buffers; transport fatty acids; free bilirubin, + thyroid hormones

A

albumins (most abundant 58% in plasma)

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9
Q

protection from damage by inflammation; transport thyroid hormones, cortisol, and testosterone + estrogen; transport lipids, which promotes iron transport by transferrin; transport hemoglobin released from damaged RBCs

A

globulins alpha

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10
Q

transport iron; transport lipids, especially cholesterol in low density lipoproteins; involved with immunity; prevent blood loss

A

globulins beta

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11
Q

involved in immunity

A

globulins gamma

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12
Q

functions blood clotting

A

fibrinogens

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13
Q

involved in osmosis, membrane potentials, and acid-base balance

A

ions

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14
Q

source of energy and basic building blocks of more complex molecules
- promote enzyme activity

A

nutrients

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15
Q

breakdown products of protein metabolism; excreted by the kidneys

A

urea, uric acid, creatine, ammonia salts

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16
Q

breakdown products of RBCs; exerted as part of the bile from the liver into the small intestine

A

bilirubin

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17
Q

end product of anaerobic respiration; converted to glucose by the liver

A

lactate

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18
Q

necessary for aerobic respiration; terminal electron acceptor in ETC

A

O2

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19
Q

waste product of aerobic respiration; as bicarbonate, helps buffer blood

A

CO2

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20
Q

inert

A

nitrogen

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21
Q

55% of the whole blood

A

plasma

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22
Q

buffet coat: _____ + _____
1% of whole blood

A

leukocytes and platelets

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23
Q

45% of the whole blood

A

erythrocytes (RBCs)

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24
Q

bright color blood

A

oxygen enriched

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25
dark color blood
oxygen deprived
26
t/f warmth scale ---- skeletal > blood > core
false
27
____ is plasma - clotting proteins
serum
28
pH of acidosis
less than 7.35
29
pH of alkalosis
7.45
30
protein - 7% : albumin 58%, globulins 38%, fibrinogen 4% water 91% other solutes 2%: ions, nutrients, waste products, gases, regulatory substances
plasma composition
31
abnormal excess of RBCs
polycythemia
32
not enough RBCs or RBCs dont form properly --> decreased O2 carrying capacity of blood
anemia
33
blood loss
hemorrhagic anemia
34
bone marrow doesn't make enough blood cells
aplastic anemia
35
dont make enough hemoglobin
iron defiency anemia
36
vitamin b12 deficiency
pernicious anemia
37
premature lysis of RBCs ex. sickle cell anemia
hemolytic anemia
38
thrombocytes, considered cell fragments
platelets
39
blood cell formation generally occurs in the ___ ___
bone marrow
40
some ____ blood cells can be made from pre-existing cells in other locations - myeloid + lymphoid lineages
white
41
- efficiency of gas exchange - ability to move through small blood vessels (capillaries) - turbulence reduction (less spinning)
disc shape in RBCs beneficial
42
mature ___ blood cells are anucleate and lack organelles (including mitochondria)
red
43
most of the RBC volume is taken up by the respiratory pigment _____
hemoglobin
44
O2 binds reversibly to ___ of heme groups, some carbon dioxide binds to amino acids of protein subunits
iron
45
- early stages have organelles, later ejected - hemoglobin accumulation affects cell appearance under microscope - enter blood as reticulocytes that mature into RBCs
major stages occurring in the cell of erythropoiesis
46
T/F There MUST be a basal level of erythropoiesis in the body in order to replace damaged RBCs
TRUE
47
the main stimulus to increase erythropoiesis is ___, kidneys respond by releasing the hormone ___
hypoxia, erythropoietin (EPO)
48
- hormones (EPO + testosterone) - diet/ nutrition : iron, vitamin B folic acid - other factors that alter balance between RBCs production and degradation
major factors that influence erythropoiesis
49
antibodies can only interact with the RBCs and cause them to clump together if antigen is present on the RBCs
agglutination
50
mix blood sample with antiserum + visualize against a light background
how agglutination assays work
51
_____ is administered to prevent sensitization problems with the future pregnancies
RhoGAM
52
- defending body against pathogens - removing toxins and wastes - attacking abnormals or damaged cells 2. possess both nuclei + organelle 3. capable of laboring blood stream at capillaries ------ usually spend short art of time in circulation 4. amoeboid movement 5. attract to specific chemical stimuli
characteristics of WBCs
53
- especially helpful combatting with bacterial infections - phagocytic - use defensins, digestive enzymes, and respiratory burst - usually die in process - multi-lobed nuclei (3-6 lobes) -"neutral-loving" granules that take up either acidic and basic dyes (stain lighter than other granulocytes)
neutrophils aka polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN)
54
- generally aid in killing that's that are too large to be engulfed (for ex. parasitic worms) - also phagocytic - granules stain pink/red (take up pacific dyes such as eosin) - typically bilobed nucleus, some describe as resembling earmuffs
eosinophils
55
- promote local inflammation - histamine (vasodilator) - heparin ( anticoagulant) - granules stain dark blue - bilobed nucleus that may be obscured by stained granules
basophil
56
- b lymphocytes (b-cells) - humoral immunity - t lymphocytes (T-cells) = cell mediated immunity - natural killer cels - immune surveillance - lack obv granules - large, spherical nucleus surrounded by a halo of cytoplasm
lymphocytes
57
blood cell formation
hematopoiesis
58
white blood cell formation
leukopoiesis
59
mediated by chemical signals called colony stimulating factors CSF
leukopoiesis
60
produced at higher rate due to short lifespans
granulocytes
61
can be made form pre-existing cells in other locations
lymphocytes
62
thrombopoietin promotes platelet (thrombocyte) formation via promoting growth of megakaryocytic precursors and generation of mature megakaryocytes
thrombopoiesis
63
_____ are cell fragments that develop from megakaryocytes
platelets
64
- glycoproteins and proteins on surface allow them to attach to things for platelet plug formation - have granules that contain secretions important for hemostasis - contractile proteins (actin + myosin) important for reducing size of opening in vessel wall - Short lived (5-9 days)
platelets
65
functions: - form a temporary patch when vessel wall is damaged - release chemicals important to hemostasis and tissue repair - reduce size of breaks in vessel walls
platelets -- thrombocytes that are cell fragments that are activated when blood vessels are damaged
66
immediate but temporary constriction of blood vessel involving smooth muscle in vessel wall - mediated by chemicals released from endothelial cells and platelets and nervous system
vascular spasm
67
what are the 3 stages of hemostasis
1. vascular spasm 2. platelet plug formation 3. coagulation
68
- normally aggregation is prevented by PROSTACYCLIN RELEASE from endothelial cells - plates adhere to exposed collagen fibers and a factor released by damaged blood vessels - platelets release chemicals that bind and activate more platelets - platelets can then change shape and interact with fibrinogen
platelet plug formation
69
- network of fibrin forms a "mesh" that traps fluids, platelets, and RBCs - clotting factors become activated, cascades end in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin - 2 ways to initiate -- 1. extrinsic = faster, outside blood 2. intrinsic = slower, within blood - converge at common pathway
coagulation
70
breakdown of fibrin = gradually dissolving clots over days
fibrinolysis
71
- platelet repulsion (healthy endothelial cells release prostacyclin) - dilution (normal blood flow quickly dilutes out any release chemicals/activated clotting factors) - anticoagulants --- antithrombin deactivates thrombin; heparin transfers with prothrombin activator formation, + promotes action of antithrombin
how excessive clotting is prevented
72
leftward tilt from the base towards the apex
position of the heart
73
stabilizes + protects the heart
fibrous pericardium
74
surrounds pericardial cavity, important for reducing friction
serous pericardium
75
_____ has a simple squamous epithelium overlaying a thin areolar tissue layer (no adipose tissue)
endocardium
76
endocarditis is a potentially life-threatening inflammatory condition often associated with bacterial infection
- endocardium is associated - Risk: blood clots --> heart attacks
77
- anchors cardiac muscle cells - thicker around valves + great vessels - not electrically excitable
cardiac skeleton
78
preventing backwards flow of circulatory fluid
valve
79
both sides of the heart pump unequal or equal volumes of blood, but the workload is equal or unequal?
equal, unequal
80
= bicuspid valve = mitrial valve
left atrioventricular valve
81
tricuspid valve
right atrioventricular valve
82
blood tries to flow backward into the left ventricle from the aorta but is stopped by the ____ ____ valves closing
aortic semilunar valves
83
chp 19 slide 26
FLOW OF BLOOD THROUGH THE HEART AND CIRCUITS
84
_____ vessels run on the surface of the heart
largest
85
vessels converge at various points inside the heart to provide alternative routes of flow should the primary route become obstructed (_____ _____)
arterial anastomoses
86
what supplies half of the heart
left anterior interventricular artery; if blocked, half of the blood supply is blocked
87
____ contract before the ventricles
atria
88
____ muscles begin contracting slightly before the rest of the ventricles
papillary
89
t/f pattern of ventricular contraction facilitates pushing blood towards the base
T
90
t/f heart cannot contract in the absence of signals from the nervous and endocrine system
false, it can
91
pacemaker cells display ______ - spontaneously depolarize due to unstable resting membrane potential
autorhythmicity
92
signals from the autonomic nervous modify how long it takes to reach the threshold and thus affect the ____ ____
heart rate
93
pleteau phase in cardiac muscle cell repolarize prevents ____
tetanus
94
the heart is fatigue-resistant and relies on ____ ____
aerobic respiration; way more mitochondria than skeletal muscle and can use multiple "fuel types: to generate ATP
95
- branch at ends and connect with other cells to form a network - using sliding filament mechanism of contraction, similar to skeletal muscle - pull against the cardiac skeleton when contract - possess key differences that enable coordination among cells, anchor cardiomyocytes together and help prevent fatigue and tetanus
cardiac contractile cells (cardiomyocytes)
96
1. interdigitating folds 2. mechanical junctions - fascia adherens and desmosomes 3. electrical junctions -- gap junctions
structure of intercalated disks
97
______ prevent tetanus by extending the absolute refractory period
cardiomyocytes
98
pacemaker cells found at ____ node and ____ node
SA + AV
99
pacemaker cells of the ___ node spontaneously depolarize faster than those of the ____ node
SA; AV
100
____ activity affects the rates of repolarization and depolarization
ANS
101
inflow of NA+ is not balanced with outflow of K+ --> moves toward threshold
pacemaker potential
102
cardiac has a longer plateau due to what
CA2+ flowing in more than K+ leaving out
103
1. sa node fires 2. excitation spreads through atrial myocardium 3. av node fires 4. excitation spreads down AV bundle 5. subendocardial branches distribute excitation through the ventricular myocardium
action potential of the SA node
104
there is approximately ____ ms delay btw when the action potentials reach the AC node and pass to the AV bundle
100 - reduction in diameter of conducting cell fivers - fewer gap junctions btw cells
105
what does ECG monitor
electrical signals of the heart muscles
106
Function(s): * Differentiate into macrophages once in tissues = phagocytic * Helps recruit other WBCs and fibroblasts Identifying features: * Largest of WBCs in blood * Lack obvious granules * Kidney bean-shaped or U-shaped nucleus
monocytes
107
1. atrial systole 2. atrial diastole 3. ventricular systole 4. ventricular diastole
cardiac cycle
108