Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what immunoglobulin mediates type 1 reaction?

A

IgE

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2
Q

immediate-type hypersensitivity characterizes what type of ADR?

A

type 1

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3
Q

anaphylaxis characterizes what type of drug reaction?

A

type 1

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4
Q

antibody-dependent cytotoxicity, what type of drug reaction?

A

type 2

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5
Q

heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is an example of which drug reaction type?

A

type 2

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6
Q

graft rejection is an example of which drug reaction type?

A

type 2

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7
Q

heparin-induced thrombocytopenia and graft rejection, examples of which drug reaction type?

A

type 2

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8
Q

immune complex hypersensitivity- which drug reaction type?

A

type 3

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9
Q

arthus reaction to tetanus vaccine- which drug reaction type?

A

type 3

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10
Q

lupus is an example of which drug reaction type?

A

type 3

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11
Q

cell-mediated or delayed hypersensitivity- which drug reaction type?

A

type 4

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12
Q

rash, eosinophilia, PPD test, poison ivy- which drug reaction type?

A

type 4

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13
Q

eosinophilia- which drug reaction type?

A

type 4

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14
Q

what is the term for drugs that produce receptor site stimulation?

A

agonists

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15
Q

agonists, think WHAT?

A

act

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16
Q

what do agonists produce?

A

receptor site stimulation

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17
Q

antagonists, think WHAT?

A

block

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18
Q

what type of drugs block receptor site stimulation?

A

antagonists

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19
Q

what do antagonists block?

A

receptor site stimulation

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20
Q

what do antagonists do?

A

block receptor site stimulation

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21
Q

parasympathetic nervous system is part of what system?

A

autonomic nervous system

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22
Q

what NT does parasympathetic nervous system release?

A

acetylcholine

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23
Q

acetylcholine is released by what system?

A

parasympathetic nervous system

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24
Q

what system counterbalances sympathetic activity?

A

parasympathetic nervous system

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25
Q

what two types of receptors does acetylcholine activate?

A

muscarinic and nicotinic

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26
Q

what are the two cholinergic receptors?

A

muscarinic and nicotinic

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27
Q

muscarinic and nicotininc receptors are activated by what?

A

acetylcholine

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28
Q

what effect does parasympathetic nervous system have on pupils?

A

constriction

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29
Q

what effect does PNS have on salivation?

A

stimulates salivation

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30
Q

what effect does PNS have on heart rate?

A

decreases HR

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31
Q

what effect does PNS have on contractility?

A

decreases contractility

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32
Q

what effect does PNS have on bronchi?

A

bronchial constriction

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33
Q

what effect does PNS have on digestion?

A

stimulates digestion

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34
Q

what effect does PNS have on gallbladder?

A

stimulates gallbladder

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35
Q

what effect does PNS have on bladder?

A

contracts bladder

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36
Q

what effect does PNS have on rectum?

A

relaxes rectum

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37
Q

what effect does PNS have on peripheral vascular system?

A

peripheral vasodilation

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38
Q

what do most postganglionic neurons release? (NT)

A

norepinephrine

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39
Q

what do adrenal medullary neurons release? (NT)

A

mix of epinephrine and norepinephrine

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40
Q

sympathetic nervous system is under which nervous system?

A

autonomic nervous system

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41
Q

what are the three types of receptors activated by epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

alpha, beta, dopamine

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42
Q

what are the three types of adrenergic receptors?

A

alpha, beta, dopamine

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43
Q

alpha, beta, and dopamine are what type of receptors?

A

adrenergic

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44
Q

what effect does SNS have on pupils?

A

dilates pupils

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45
Q

what effect does SNS have on salivation?

A

inhibits salivation

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46
Q

what effect does SNS have on bronchi?

A

bronchial dilation

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47
Q

what effect does SNS have on heart rate?

A

increased heart rate

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48
Q

what effect does SNS have on digestion?

A

inhibits digestion

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49
Q

what effect does SNS have on contractility?

A

increases contractility

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50
Q

what effect does SNS have on glucose release?

A

stimulates glucose release by liver

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51
Q

what effect does SNS have on bladder?

A

relaxes bladder????

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52
Q

what effect does SNS have on rectum?

A

contracts rectum

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53
Q

what effect does SNS have on peripheral vascular system?

A

peripheral vasoconstriction

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54
Q

what type of drug is clonidine?

A

central acting adrenergic agonists

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55
Q

can you stop taking central acting adrenergic agonists abruptly? (e.g. clonidine)

A

no

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56
Q

what type of receptors are found in the eyes, salivary glands, arterioles, GI and GU tract?

A

alpha 1 receptors

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57
Q

where are alpha 1 receptors located?

A

eyes, salivary glands, arterioles, GI and GU tract

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58
Q

what happens when alpha 1 receptors are stimulated?

A

cause vascular and GI smooth muscle contraction

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59
Q

what effect do alpha 1 agonists have on peripheral vascular resistance?

A

increased peripheral vascular resistance

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60
Q

what effect do alpha 1 agnosists have on contractility?

A

increased contractility

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61
Q

what effect do alpha 1 agonists have on blood pressure?

A

increased blood pressure

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62
Q

alpha 1 agonists- vasoconstriction or vasodilation?

A

vasoconstriction

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63
Q

phenylephrine is an example of what type of drug?

A

alpha 1 agonists

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64
Q

methoxamine is an example of what type of drug?

A

alpha 1 agonists

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65
Q

what are two examples of alpha 1 agonists?

A

phenylephrine and metoxamine

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66
Q

what are the side effects of alpha 1 agonists?

A

headache, bradycardia, excitability, and restlessness

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67
Q

headaches, bradycardia, excitability, restlessness- side effects of what drug class?

A

alpha 1 agonists

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68
Q

what type of medication should be avoided with alpha 1 antagonists?

A

NSAIDS

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69
Q

doxazosin/cardura- what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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70
Q

prazosin (for PTSD) what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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71
Q

terazosin- what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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72
Q

alpha 1 antagonists are often given for what condition?

A

BPH

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73
Q

what do alpha 1 antagonists do in the context of BPH?

A

block contraction of the GU smooth muscle so patients can urinate

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74
Q

what do alpha 1 antagonists do in the context of HTN?

A

help lower blood pressure through vasodilation as it inhibits norepinephrine

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75
Q

what NT do alpha 1 antagonists inhibit?

A

norepinephrine

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76
Q

alpha 1 antagonists cause vasoconstriction or vasodilation?

A

vasodilation

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77
Q

reflex tachycardia- SE of what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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78
Q

orthostatic hypotension- seen with what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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79
Q

fluid retention- seen with what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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80
Q

peripheral edema- seen with what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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81
Q

nasal congestion- SE what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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82
Q

blurred vision- SE what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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83
Q

dry mouth- SE what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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84
Q

syncope- SE what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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85
Q

impotence- SE what drug class?

A

alpha 1 antagonist

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86
Q

what is heart rate trying to compensate for as SE of alpha 1 antagonists?

A

hypotension (blood vessels become bigger when relaxed)

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87
Q

increased HR is compensating for what with alpha 1 antagonists?

A

hypotension (blood vessels become bigger when relaxed)

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88
Q

where are alpha 2 receptors located?

A

presynaptic nerve terminal of the smooth muscles, platelets, and lipocytes

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89
Q

what receptors are located in the presynaptic nerve terminal of the smooth muscles, platelets, and lipocytes?

A

alpha 2

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90
Q

what effect do alpha 2 agonists have on NE?

A

decreases NE

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91
Q

what effect do alpha 2 agonists have on peripheral vascular system?

A

cause vasodilation

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92
Q

what effect do alpha 2 agonists have on peripheral vascular resistance?

A

decreased PVR

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93
Q

what effect do alpha 2 agonists have on renal vascular resistance?

A

decreased renal vascular resistance

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94
Q

what effect do alpha 2 agonists have on HR?

A

decrease HR

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95
Q

what effect do alpha 2 agonists have on sympathetic response?

A

blocks body’s sympathetic response

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96
Q

what effect do alpha 2 agonists have on cardiac output/blood flow?

A

decreased cardiac output/blood flow

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97
Q

clonidine is an example of what drug class?

A

alpha 2 agonist

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98
Q

methyldopa is an example of what drug class?

A

alpha 2 agonist

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99
Q

clonidine and methyldopa are examples of what drug class?

A

alpha 2 agonist

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100
Q

what drug class should be avoided with coronary insufficiency, CVD, MI, renal function impairment and reacts with beta blockers?

A

alpha 2 agonist

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101
Q

what are the side effects of alpha 2 agonists?

A

hypotension, dry mouth/mucous membranes, bradycardia, impotence, nightmares, sedation

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102
Q

hypotension, dry mouth/mucous membranes, bradycardia, impotence, nightmares, sedation- SE what drug class?

A

alpha 2 agonist

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103
Q

what drug class increases release of norepinephrine?

A

alpha 2 antagonist

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104
Q

what drug class increases NE release and can be used in some cases to treat sexual dysfunction?

A

alpha 2 antagonist

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105
Q

what are two examples of alpha 2 antagonists?

A

yohimibine and idazoxan

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106
Q

yohimbine and idazoxan- what drug class?

A

alpha 2 antagonist

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107
Q

three common side effects of alpha 2 antagonists?

A

dizziness, headaches, and reflex tachycardia

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108
Q

dizziness, headaches, reflex tachycardia- common SE of what drug class?

A

alpha 2 antagonist

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109
Q

beta 1 antagonist- what effect on heart rate?

A

decrease heart rate

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110
Q

beta 1 antagonist- what effect on contractility?

A

decrease contractility

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111
Q

beta 1 antagonist- what effect on conduction velocity?

A

decrease conduction velocity

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112
Q

three examples of beta 1 antagonists?

A

atenolol, metoprolol, esmolol

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113
Q

atenolol, metoprolol, esmolol- what drug class?

A

beta 1 antagonist

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114
Q

mild bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, hypotension, impotence- commone SE what drug class?

A

beta 1 antagonist

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115
Q

common SE of beta 1 antagonists?

A

mild bronchoconstriction, bradycardia, hypotension, impotence

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116
Q

why do you want to avoid beta 1 antagonists in asthmatic patient?

A

fear of bronchoconstriction

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117
Q

what happens if you stop beta 1 antagonists abruptly? (CV)

A

cardiac spasms that may potentially lead to MI

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118
Q

location of beta 2 agonist receptors?

A

smooth muscle of eye, arterioles, venules, bronchioles, liver, pancrease, GI and GU

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119
Q

what receptors are located in the smooth muscle of the eye, arterioles, venules, bronchioles, liver, pancreas, GI and GU tracts?

A

beta 2 agonist

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120
Q

what drug class- acts as a bronchodilator that can treat bronchospasms?

A

beta 2 agonist

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121
Q

what drug class- decreases GI tone and motility?

A

beta 2 agonist

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122
Q

what drug class- relaxes uterine contractions?

A

beta 2 agonist

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123
Q

what drug class- activates gluconeogenesis in the liver to inrease blood sugar?

A

beta 2 agonist

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124
Q

what effect does beta 2 agonist have on bronchi?

A

bronchodilator

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125
Q

what effect does beta 2 agonist have on GI tone and motility?

A

decreased GI tone and motility

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126
Q

what effect does beta 2 agonist have on uterine contractions?

A

relaxes uterine contractions

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127
Q

albuterol and terbutaline- examples what drug class?

A

beta 2 agonist

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128
Q

what are two examples of beta 2 agonists?

A

albuterol and terbutaline

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129
Q

what class SE- trembling, nervous tension, palpitations, muscle cramps?

A

beta 2 agonist

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130
Q

common SE of beta 2 agonists?

A

trembling, nervous tension, palpitations, muscle cramps

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131
Q

what class- cause bronchoconstriction on beta 2 receptors, oppose vasodilation, increase PVR?

A

beta 2 antagonists

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132
Q

what effect do beta 2 antagonists have on bronchi?

A

bronchoconstriction

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133
Q

what effect do beta 2 antagonists have on PVR?

A

increase PVR

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134
Q

what effect do beta 2 antagonists have on vasodilation?

A

oppose vasodilation

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135
Q

what class- used for angina, HTN, post-MI, migraines, glaucoma?

A

beta 2 antagonists

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136
Q

what are uses for beta 2 antagonists?

A

angina, HTN, post-MI, migraines, glaucoma

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137
Q

common SE what class? Tachycardia, tremors, anxiety, depression, hypotension, sexual dysfunction, arrhythmias

A

beta 2 antagonists

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138
Q

what are common SE of beta 2 antagonists?

A

tachycardia, tremors, anxiety, depression, hypotension, sexual dysfunction, arrhythmias

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139
Q

beta 2 antagonists- avoid giving this med to who? (more than B1)

A

asthmatics

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140
Q

beta 2 antagonists should be avoided more than B1 in asthmatic patients why?

A

bronchoconstriction

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141
Q

beta 2 antagonists- use caution in what patient popultion?

A

diabetic patients

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142
Q

why should beta 2 antagonists be used cautiously in diabetic patients?

A

block symptoms of hypoglycemic episoes

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143
Q

what is an example of a beta 2 antagonist?

A

propranolol

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144
Q

propranolol- what drug class?

A

beta 2 antagonists

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145
Q

where is sodium bicarbonate most likely to be absorbed?

A

intestines

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146
Q

what is the most frequent category of drug-WHAT interaction?

A

food

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147
Q

why is drug-food interaction the most common?

A

food affects the GI absorption of drugs

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148
Q

how should oral enteric-coated tablets be taken?

A

to achieve the best effect take the tablet with at least 8 oz of fluid

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149
Q

how much fluid should be taken orally with EC tablets?

A

8 oz

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150
Q

food in the GI tract affects drug absorption by?

A

altering gastric emptying time

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151
Q

food can alter the Ph of the stomach leading to…?

A

altered drug bioavailability

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152
Q

lipid solubility of the drug affects what?

A

drug absorption

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153
Q

a rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to what?

A

better drug absorption

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154
Q

term- the fraction of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation?

A

bioavailability

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155
Q

what is the definition of bioavailability?

A

the fraction of drug that reaches the system circulation

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156
Q

what factors (5) affect bioavailability?

A

solubility, chemical structure, size, polarity, pre-systemic biotransformation

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157
Q

solubility, chemical structure, size, polarity, pre-systemic biotransformation affect what?

A

bioavailability

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158
Q

what (4) things do drug absorption depend on?

A

first pass metabolism, food, surface area, drug size

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159
Q

first pass metabolism, food, surface area, drug size- affect what?

A

drug absorption

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160
Q

fasting for an extended period of time can do what to absorption?

A

cause vasoconstriction which leads to decreased drug absorption

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161
Q

a low-carb, high-protein diet may what?

A

increase drug metabolizing enzymes

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162
Q

why do you not crush a sustained-release capsule?

A

if you crush the capsule the coated beads of drug can lead to toxicity

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163
Q

why is medroxyprogesterone/depo provera given IM?

A

to create a storage reservoir

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164
Q

what does the storage reservoir create (depo)?

A

increased length of time the drug is available and can be actively distributed

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165
Q

the ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by…?

A

unbinding a nonvolatile drug from the plasma protein

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166
Q

until drugs are changed or excreted they continue to what?

A

act in the body

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167
Q

what is the difference in drug effects between men and women? (pharmacokinetics)

A

percentage of fat differs between the genders

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168
Q

nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by what?

A

state board of nursing

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169
Q

three facets of therapeutic goals when prescribing medications?

A

curative, palliative, and preventative measures

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170
Q

patient education regarding prescription medication should include discussion of what?

A

expected adverse drug reactions

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171
Q

assessment to determine diagnosis is what type of factor in prescribing medication?

A

factor associated with clinical judgement

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172
Q

review of potential alternative therapies is what type of factor in prescribing medication?

A

factor associated with clinical judgement

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173
Q

least invasive, least expensive, and least likely to cause an adverse reaction- what type of factor in prescribing medication?

A

factor associated with clinical judgement

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174
Q

assessment of other medications and supplements the patient is taking- what type of factor in prescribing medication?

A

factor associated with clinical judgement

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175
Q

what are the four factors associated with clinical judgement in prescribing medication?

A

(1) assessment to determine diagnosis (2) review of potential alternative therapies (3) least invasive, least expensive, least likely to cause an adverse reaction, (4) assessment of other medications and supplements that the patient is taking

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176
Q

what criteria should be followed for choosing an effective drug?

A

consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management

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177
Q

what are three cultural factors that must be considered when prescribing medications?

A

(1) who is the decision maker in the family for health-care decisions (2) patient’s view of health and illness (3) attitudes regarding use of drugs to treat illness

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178
Q

pharmacodynamic considerations in prescribing with different ethnicities?

A

ethnic differences have been found in drugs in regard to hepatic metabolism

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179
Q

what are patient benefits to having an APRN prescriber?

A

nurses care for the patient from a holistic approach and include patient in decision making regarding their care

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180
Q

why may NP thrive under healthcare reform?

A

the demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes

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181
Q

what are the four clinical influences affecting how providers make decisions?

A

(1) competing demands (2) knowledge of and agreement with clinical guidelines (3) organizational issues- ancillary support; follow-up appointments (4) assessment of patient adherence

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182
Q

(1) competing demands (2) knowledge of and agreement with clinical guidelines (3) organizational issues- ancillary support; follow-up appointments (4) assessment of patient adherence are WHAT?

A

four clinical influences affecting how providers make decisions

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183
Q

what are the five medication-related factors affecting how providers make decisions?

A

(1) side effects (2) contraindication (3) cost (4) convenience/complexity/dosing (4) patient/provider medication knowledge

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184
Q

diabetes-related knowledge is part of what consideration?

A

patient attitudes and values (how providers make decisions)

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185
Q

what factors are considerations involving patient attitudes and values? (3) (how providers make decisions)

A

(1) perceived risk (2) belief in treatment efficacy (3) health goals/values

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186
Q

cognitive skills (memory) affect what?

A

how providers make decisions- patient influences

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187
Q

health literacy affects what?

A

how providers make decisions- patient influences

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188
Q

autonomous motivation affects what?

A

how providers make decisions- patient influences

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189
Q

self-efficacy affects what?

A

how providers make decisions- patient influences

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190
Q

social support- affects what?

A

how providers make decisions- patient influences

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191
Q

environmental barriers- affects what?

A

how providers make decisions- patient influences

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192
Q

general adherence affects what?

A

how providers make decisions- patient influences

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193
Q

symptom burdon affects what?

A

how providers make decisions- patient influences

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194
Q

comorbidities affect what?

A

how providers make decisions- patient influences

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195
Q

diabetes-specific emotional distress affects what?

A

how providers make decisions- patient influences

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196
Q

drugs with a significant WHAT are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little, if any, desired action?

A

first pass effect

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197
Q

drugs with a significant first pass effect are what?

A

rapidly metabolized by the liver

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198
Q

drugs with a signifcant first pass effect that are rapidly metabolized by the liver may have what?

A

little if any desired action

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199
Q

what percentage of drugs are eliminated in the liver at first?

A

0.5

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200
Q

50% of drugs are eliminated in the liver at first and then go where?

A

systemic circulation

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201
Q

how many half lives are required to eliminate a drug? (significant FPE)

A

4-5 half lives

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202
Q

drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver in what two reactions?

A

phase I and phase II

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203
Q

phase I and phase II reactions change drug molecules into…?

A

a form that an excretory organ can excrete

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204
Q

WHAT may be more active, less active, or totally deactivated compared to parent drug?

A

metabolites

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205
Q

metabolies may be WHAT (3 things) than parent drug?

A

more active, less active, or totally deactivated

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206
Q

term? The proportion of a drug which enters the circulation when introduced into the body and so is able to have an active effect

A

bioavailability

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207
Q

bioavailability is what?

A

the proportion of a drug which enters the circulation when introduced into the body so is able to have an active affect

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208
Q

when are bioavailability issues especially important?

A

drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained-release mechanisms

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209
Q

term? The time it takes for the concentration of the drug in the body to fall by halg/50%

A

half-life

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210
Q

what is the half life?

A

the time it takes for the concentration of the drug in the blood to fall by half/50%

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211
Q

term? The amount of drug needed to get the concentration in the plasma to a therapeutic level quicker

A

loading dose

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212
Q

what is the loading dose?

A

the amount of drug needed to get the concentration in the plasma to a therapeutic level quicker

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213
Q

Example of what? Z-pack with 2 pills the first day to achieve a therapeutic range

A

loading dose

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214
Q

term? The time between drug administration and the minimum concentration of a drug to produce an effect

A

onset of action

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215
Q

what is the onset of action?

A

the time between drug administration and the minimum concentration of a drug to produce an effect

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216
Q

how is the onset of action seen on drug concentration curve?

A

first sign of therapeutic effect

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217
Q

term? The time between drug administration and the maximum concentration of a drug in the blood stream

A

peak of action

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218
Q

another term for peak of action

A

best therapeutic effect

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219
Q

what is the definition of peak of action?

A

the time between drug administration and the maximum concentration of a drug in the blood stream

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220
Q

what is the definition of best therapeutic effect?

A

the time between drug administration and the maximum concentration of a drug in the blood stream

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221
Q

term? The time between the onset of action and metabolism of the drug below the minimum needed for an effect

A

duration of action

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222
Q

what is the definition of duration og action?

A

the time between the onset of action and metabolism of the drug below the minimum needed for an effect

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223
Q

the length of time you have the drug in your system reflects what?

A

duraction of action

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224
Q

duration of action reflects what?

A

the length of time you have the drug in your system

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225
Q

term? The ability of a drug to produce a maximum effect at any dosage

A

efficacy

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226
Q

what is the definition of efficacy?

A

the ability of a drug to produce a maximum effect at any dosage

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227
Q

term? The expression of the maximum effect a drug can produce

A

efficacy

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228
Q

efficacy example- asians are known to be fast WHAT- meaning that they require higher doses of drugs to achieve efficacy?

A

acetylators

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229
Q

effects of tylenol versus morphine is an example of what?

A

efficacy- morphine is much stronger than tylenol as it produces more pain blocking power

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230
Q

what levels are used to determine therapeutic level of drugs?

A

peak/trough

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231
Q

peak/trough levels are used to determine what?

A

therapeutic level of drugs

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232
Q

if a lab result indicates the peak level of a drug is above the WHAT, this means that this will produce an adverse response?

A

minimum toxic concerntration

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233
Q

if a lab result indicates the peak level of a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration, this means that this will produce an ….

A

adverse response

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234
Q

examples of meds with peak/trough (2)?

A

phenytoin; vancomycin

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235
Q

term? The amount of drug in the body that remains constant

A

steady state

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236
Q

steady state definition?

A

the amount of drug in the body that remains constant

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237
Q

term? The rate of drug intake that is equal to the rate of drug elimination; attained after approximately four, occasionally five half-lives

A

steady state

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238
Q

when is steady state attained?

A

after approximately four, sometimes five half-lives

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239
Q

what does lipophilic mean?

A

lipid loving

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240
Q

term? Lipid loving

A

lipophilic

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241
Q

lipophilic drugs generally have a high WHAT?

A

high volume of distribution

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242
Q

lipophilic drugs are primarily cleared by what organ?

A

liver

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243
Q

lipophilic drugs have what two properties?

A

non-ionized, uncharged

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244
Q

lipophilic drugs are small or large in size?

A

small in size?

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245
Q

do lipophilic drugs cross the membranes easily?

A

yes

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246
Q

term? Water loving

A

hydrophilic

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247
Q

hydrophilic definition?

A

water loving

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248
Q

hydrophilic drugs generall have a low WHAT?

A

low volume of distribution

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249
Q

lipophilic drugs generally have a LOW or HIGH volume of distribution?

A

high

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250
Q

hydrophilic drugs generally have a LOW or HIGH volume of distribution?

A

low

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251
Q

organ that primarily clears hydrophilic drugs?

A

kidneys

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252
Q

kidneys or liver primarily clear lipophilic drugs?

A

liver

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253
Q

kidneys or liver primarily clear hydrophilic drugs?

A

kidneys

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254
Q

hydrophilic drugs- small or large in size?

A

large

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255
Q

hydrophilic drugs cross membranes easily?

A

no

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256
Q

hydrophilic or lipophilic drugs cross membranes easily?

A

lipophilic

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257
Q

ionized/charged or non-ionized uncharged- lipophilic?

A

non-ionized, uncharged

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258
Q

ionized/charged or non-ionized uncharged- hydrophilic?

A

ionized/charged

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259
Q

term? Moving from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

A

passive diffusion

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260
Q

passive diffusion- definition?

A

moving from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

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261
Q

what type of drugs can cross the membrane through passive diffusion?

A

lipid-soluble drugs

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262
Q

what type of drugs have to be filtered through the aqueous pore/paracellular space?

A

non-lipid soluble drugs

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263
Q

passive diffusion involves moving from an area of WHAT concentration to an area of WHAT concentration?

A

high to low

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264
Q

hypoalbuminemia affects what?

A

distribution of drugs to target tissues

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265
Q

what condition? If not enough protein available to bind with the drug

A

hypoalbuminemia

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266
Q

what condition causes too much free drug to build up in the system and become toxic?

A

hypoalbuminemia

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267
Q

what happens when drugs are bound to albumin?

A

they stay in the system longer and are not eliminated

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268
Q

what should you do if giving two protein bound drugs?

A

consider giving them at different times

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269
Q

what kind of diseases can affect production of albumin?

A

liver diseases

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270
Q

what are three examples of liver diseases that can affect production of albumin?

A

AIDS, cancer, cirrhosis

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271
Q

AIDS, cancer, cirrhosis can affect what?

A

production of albumin

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272
Q

what term? Protects the brain from substances that may harm the brain,

A

blood brain barrier

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273
Q

term? Protects the brain from hormones and neurotransmitters that are in the rest of the body?

A

blood brain barrier

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274
Q

blood brain barrier protects brain from what two things in the rest of the body?

A

hormones and neurotransmitters

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275
Q

WHAT helps maintain a constant environment for the brain?

A

blood brain barrier

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276
Q

do large molecules pass through BBB easily?

A

no

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277
Q

low lipid (fat) soluble molecules cross BBB fast or slow?

A

fast

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278
Q

molecules with a high or low electrical charge cross BBB fast or slow?

A

slow

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279
Q

typically, only meds that are WHAT cross the BBB?

A

lipid-soluble

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280
Q

WHAT slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells?

A

BBB

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281
Q

term? Lipid membrane that allows passage of drugs by simple diffusion

A

fetal placental barrier

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282
Q

smaller molecule or larger molecule drugs pass more easily across fetal placental barrier?

A

smaller molecule drugs

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283
Q

simultaneous use of several different drugs (drug-drug interactions) increase risk for what?

A

adverse drug reactions

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284
Q

age groups (2) at risk for ADRs?

A

young or old

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285
Q

pregant pts are at risk for what?

A

ADRs

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286
Q

breast feeding patients are at risk for what?

A

ADRs

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287
Q

hereditary factors play a role in the risk for what?

A

ADRs

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288
Q

disease states with may affect drug absorption, metabolism, and/or elimination increase risk for what?

A

ADRs

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289
Q

dry mouth, dry eyes, decreased urine output, increased stomach acid- examples of what?

A

anticholinergic effects

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290
Q

cannot see, cannot pee, cannot spit, cannot shit—- memory device for what?

A

anticholinergic effects

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291
Q

anticholinergic prototype drug?

A

atropine

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292
Q

atropine- drug prototype?

A

anticholinergic

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293
Q

two types of adverse reactions?

A

intrinsic and idiosyncratic

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294
Q

term? Predictable and dose-related adverse reaction

A

intrinsic

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295
Q

term? Unpredictable and not dose-related advserse reaction

A

idiosyncratic

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296
Q

example of idiosyncratic adverse reaction?

A

rash

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297
Q

rash is an example of what type of ADR? Intrinsic or idiosyncratic

A

idiosyncratic

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298
Q

term? Using an FDA approved drug for an indication not on the label

A

off label prescribing

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299
Q

what is the definition of off label prescribing?

A

using an FDA approved drug for an indication not on the label

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300
Q

example of off label prescribing?

A

trazodone (antidepressant) used for sleep

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301
Q

what medications (think patient population) are often used off label?

A

pediatric medications

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302
Q

term? Types of drug effects- valued response (BP, HR, Pain, coma score)

A

graded effect

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303
Q

valued response? Term

A

graded effect

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304
Q

yes/no response (seizure, pregnancy, rash) term?

A

quantal effect

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305
Q

graded effect definition?

A

valued response

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306
Q

quantal effect definition?

A

yes/no response

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307
Q

examples of quantal effect?

A

seizure, pregnancy, rash

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308
Q

seizure, pregnancy, rash are examples of what drug effect?

A

quantal effect

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309
Q

examples (4) of graded effect?

A

BP, HR, Pain, coma score

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310
Q

which will predominate in combined alpha and beta?

A

alpha

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311
Q

example (two drugs) of combined alpha and beta?

A

coreg and labetalol

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312
Q

3 uses of combined alpha and beta drugs?

A

(1) hypertension (2) decreased CHF progression (3) left ventricular dysfunction after MI

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313
Q

(1) hypertension, (2) decreased CHF progression (3) left ventricular dysfunction after MI- what type of drugs used?

A

combined alpha and beta

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314
Q

hypotension, bradycardia, bronchospasm exacerbation, dizzy, drowsy, mask low blood sugar- SE of what drugs?

A

combined alpha and beta

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315
Q

common SE of combined alpha and beta?

A

hypotension, bradycardia, bronchospasm exacerbation, dizzy, drowsy, mask low blood sugar

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316
Q

another term for cholinergic agonists?

A

parasympathomimetics

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317
Q

another term for parasympathomimetics?

A

cholinergic agonists

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318
Q

where do cholinergic agonists act? (7)

A

eyes, heart, blood vessels, lungs, GIT, bladder, sweat glands

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319
Q

what drugs work on eyes, heart, blood vessels, lungs, GIT, bladder, sweat glands?

A

cholinergic agonists

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320
Q

what are the two types of cholinergic agonists?

A

muscarinic and nicotinic

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321
Q

two drug examples of muscarinic agonists?

A

carbachol and pilocarpine

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322
Q

carbachol and pilocarpine are examples of what drug class?

A

muscarinic agonists

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323
Q

what type of poisoning can occur with poison mushrooms?

A

muscarinic poisoning

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324
Q

what is the antidote for muscarinic poisoning?

A

atropine

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325
Q

what three things are muscarinic agonists used for?

A

treats glaucoma, improves GI tone, and urinary bladder tone

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326
Q

what class? Treats glaucoma, improves GI tone, urinary bladder tone

A

muscarinic agonists

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327
Q

what class? Metabolize acetylcholinesterase to metabolize and break down acetylcholine at synapses

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

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328
Q

what class? Use for myasthenia gravis (against nicotinic receptors)

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

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329
Q

neostigmine and pyridostigmine help what?

A

swallow, raise eyelids, treat Alzheimers

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330
Q

when should cholinesterase inhibitors be avoided?

A

if GI/GU obstruction present

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331
Q

side effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?

A

excess GI stimulation, increased salivation, miosis

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332
Q

excess GI stimulation, increased salivation, miosis- SE of what class?

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

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333
Q

donepezil drug class?

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

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334
Q

pesticides? (some) drug class

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

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335
Q

donepezil side effects reversible?

A

yes

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336
Q

pesticide SE reversible?

A

cholinesterase inhibitor SE not reversible

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337
Q

class? Selective blockage specific to organ being targeted

A

anticholinergics

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338
Q

another name for cholinergic blockers?

A

anticholinergics

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339
Q

another name for anticholinergics?

A

cholinergic blockers

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340
Q

how to anticholinergics work?

A

blocks acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors

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341
Q

where to anticholinergics block acetylcholine?

A

muscarininc receptors

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342
Q

class? Decreases heart rate, bronchodilation, salivary glands, sweat glands, treats urinary spasms, excitation, and dilates eyes

A

anticholinergices

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343
Q

anticholinergics dilate or constrict pupils?

A

dilates

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344
Q

anticholinergics increase or decrease HR?

A

decrease

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345
Q

effect of anticholinergics on bronchi?

A

bronchodilation

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346
Q

treats urinary spasms- what class?

A

anticholinergics

347
Q

examples (4) of anticholinergics?

A

atropine, scopolamine, oxybutynin, carbidopa/levodopa

348
Q

atropine, scopolamine, oxybutynin, carbidopa/levodopa- what class?

A

anticholinergics

349
Q

atropine- drug class?

A

anticholinergic

350
Q

scopolamine- drug class?

A

anticholinergic

351
Q

oxybutynin- drug class?

A

anticholinergic

352
Q

carbidopa/levodopa- drug class?

A

anticholinergic

353
Q

SE of what drug class- tachycardia, relaxed respiratory muscles, dry mouth, constipation, urinaty retention, dilated eyes, dizziness, confusion?

A

anticholinergics

354
Q

SE of anticholinergics?

A

tachycardia, relaxed respiratory muscles, dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, dilated eyes, dizziness, confusion

355
Q

term? Referred to as biotransformation/how drug is broken down

A

metabolism

356
Q

drugs with high WHAT will not be given orally?

A

first pass effect

357
Q

CYP450 is what?

A

an oxidative reaction that can vary with genetics

358
Q

an oxidative reaction that can vary with genetics

A

CYP450

359
Q

CYP34A

A

responsible for metabolism of many drugs

360
Q

responsible for metabolism of many drugs? (enzyme)

A

CYP34A (enzyme)

361
Q

Zithromax has a long or short half life?

A

long

362
Q

penicillin has a long or short half life?

A

short

363
Q

drug that is inactive until metabolized?

A

prodrug

364
Q

prodrug is what?

A

inactive until metabolized

365
Q

there is a lack of studies in safety and efficacy for what population?

A

pediatric

366
Q

distribution in what population? Less protein binding sites due to less albumin, immature BBB, and increased total body water and lower fat content

A

infants

367
Q

there are less WHAT type or binding sites in infants?

A

less protein binding sites

368
Q

why are there less protein binding sites in infants?

A

less albumin

369
Q

BBB is WHAT in infants?

A

immature

370
Q

lower or higher fat content in infants?

A

lower

371
Q

increased or decreased TBW in infants?

A

increased

372
Q

(metabolism) what organ is immature in infants?

A

liver

373
Q

there are not enough WHAT (in metabolism) in infants?

A

enzymes

374
Q

older children may require more meds with WHAT metabolism?

A

higher

375
Q

less stomach acid until what age?

A

3 years

376
Q

there is less what until 3 years of age?

A

stomach acid

377
Q

gastric emptying is slowed until what age range?

A

6-8 months

378
Q

WHAT is slowed until 6-8 months of age?

A

gastric emptying

379
Q

immature kidney function- what population?

A

infants

380
Q

immature GFR- what population?

A

infants

381
Q

decreased kidney perfusion and renal clearance/urine output until what age?

A

2 years

382
Q

higher risk for toxicity until what age?

A

2 years

383
Q

first WHO step in prescribing?

A

define the patient’s problem/make a diagnosis

384
Q

define the patient’s problem/make a diagnosis (WHO prescribing)- which step?

A

first step

385
Q

specify the therapeutic objective and approach- (WHO prescribing)- which step?

A

second step

386
Q

choose a drug class, generic med, dose, and suitability- (WHO prescribing)- which step?

A

third step

387
Q

start the treatment/write the script- (WHO prescribing)- which step?

A

fourth step

388
Q

educate the patient- (WHO prescribing)- which step?

A

fifth step

389
Q

monitor effectiveness and for adverse effects (WHO prescribing)- which step?

A

sixth step

390
Q

alter the prescription if necessary- (WHO prescibing)- which step?

A

seventh step

391
Q

what entity- regulates the labeling of all prescriptions, over the counter medications, and medical devices?

A

FDA

392
Q

what entity- collect information and monitor safety of human drugs, animal drugs, biological products, medical devices, food, cosmetics, and radiation emission?

A

FDA

393
Q

what entity? Protecting and promoting publich health through regulation

A

FDA

394
Q

food safety, tobacco products, RX and OTC, vaccines, biopharmeceuticals, blood transfusions, cosmetics, electromagnetic imaging devices, animal food feeds, veterinary products- regulated by what entity?

A

FDA

395
Q

post-marketing surveillance- what entity?

A

FDA

396
Q

determines the official labeling for all Rx and OTC medications?

A

FDA

397
Q

does FDA have regulation over herbal supplements?

A

no

398
Q

definition of off label use?

A

use of prescription drugs for unapproved indications, age groups, dose, route of administration

399
Q

term? Use of prescription drugs for unapproved indications, age groups, dose, route of admin

A

off-label

400
Q

what two types of drugs can be used in off label ways?

A

prescription and OTC

401
Q

off label prescribing is legal unless what?

A

violates ethical or safety guidelines

402
Q

drug development- phase 1?

A

drug is tested on healthy volunteers

403
Q

drug development- phase 2?

A

trials with people who have the disease for which the drug is thought to be effective

404
Q

drug tested on healthy volunteers- what phase?

A

phase 1

405
Q

trials with people who have the disease for which the drug is thought to be effective- what phase?

A

phase 2

406
Q

drug development- phase 3?

A

large number of patients in medical research centers receive the drug in phase 3

407
Q

large numbers of patients in medical research centers receive the drug- which phase?

A

phase 3

408
Q

larger sampling provides information about infrequent or rare adverse effects- which phase?

A

phase 3

409
Q

when will the FDA approve a new drug application?

A

if phase 3 studies are satisfactory

410
Q

what is the minimum number of drug trials?

A

two

411
Q

which phase- confirms clinical doses, frequency, and timing of administration for approval?

A

phase 3

412
Q

single maximal tolerated dose/several dose levels are tested on the target population- which phase?

A

phase 2

413
Q

adverse effects are collected to assess benefit-risk potential- which phase?

A

phase 3

414
Q

designed to test the hypothesis of efficacy- which phase?

A

phase 3

415
Q

which phase- voluntary and involves postmarket surveillance of the drug’s therapeutic effects?

A

phase 4

416
Q

what population- less physiologically tolerate medication error d/t developing renal, immune, and hepatic functions?

A

infants/children

417
Q

age-related differences and medication metabolism and mechanisms of action don’t necessarily apply to what population?

A

pediatric population

418
Q

why are kids at high risk for toxicity and ADRs?

A

immature liver and renal function

419
Q

what is dosing based on in infants/children?

A

weight (mg/kg)

420
Q

infants have more or less water?

A

more

421
Q

infants have more or less fat?

A

less

422
Q

immature liver makes fewer what?

A

serum proteins

423
Q

at what age is renal function fully developed?

A

30 months

424
Q

when does gastric ph reach adult level?

A

1 year

425
Q

acidic environment needed to absorb medication- so MORE or LESS medication will be absorbed by infant?

A

less

426
Q

children have a larger or smaller body surface area?

A

greater

427
Q

greater body surface area in children leads to greater absorption of what type of medication?

A

topical

428
Q

why do infants have greater absorption of topical medication?

A

skin more permeable

429
Q

what anatomical/physio features lead to increased absorption of topical medications in infants?

A

increased hydration; thinner stratum corneum

430
Q

WHAT will prevent the absorption of IM or SQ medications? (infants)

A

immature peripheral circulation

431
Q

less albumin and fewer plasma proteins- what age group?

A

0-6 months

432
Q

fewer WHAT in pediatric patients result in higher blood conceptrations of two or more drugs or less affinity for one of the drugs?

A

fewer BINDING SITES in pediatric patients

433
Q

BBB not fully developed in infants leading to greater risk of what?

A

CNS toxicity

434
Q

cytochrome P-450 3A enzymes play a major role in what?

A

drug metabolism

435
Q

what enzyme is low in neonates and doesn’t reach adult levels until about 6-12 months?

A

34A

436
Q

when does CYP 34A reach adult levels in babies?

A

6-12 months

437
Q

what is the earliest isoenzyme to show activity and present in utero (declines rapidly after birth)?

A

CYP3A7

438
Q

what enzyme decreases throughout the first 6 months?

A

CYP3A7

439
Q

what enzymes INCREASE after the decrease of CYP3A7?

A

CYP3A4 and CYP3A5

440
Q

what enzyme is absent in neonates and does not reach adult levels until 3-5?

A

2D6

441
Q

2D6 is relevant in what type of medication?

A

cold medicine

442
Q

what is the pathway that metabolizes Robitussin and some of the other ingredients in OTC medications?

A

Cytochrome P-450 2D6

443
Q

2d6 reaches adult levels when?

A

about age 5

444
Q

neonates and preterm infants have reduced WHAT 3 things re: kidneys?

A

reduced GFR, reduced tubular secretion, reduced reabsorption

445
Q

renal function does not reach adult levels until what age?

A

at least 6 month

446
Q

decreased renal function in neonates leads to extended WHAT?

A

half life

447
Q

medication errors in pediatrics- top two?

A

1 immunizations; #2 antibiotics

448
Q

two reasons for drug therapy in pregnang women?

A

(1) treat pre-existing medical condition (2) treat pregnancy related conditions

449
Q

five classes of pregnancy/lactation meds?

A

A B C D X

450
Q

which class of meds can be used during pregnancy?

A

B

451
Q

what hormone decreases gastric tone and motility in pregnancy?

A

progesterone

452
Q

what is the effect of progesterone on stomach emptying?

A

prolonged stomach emptying time

453
Q

what hormone in pregnancy alters pharmacokinetics of oral medications?

A

progesterone

454
Q

what hormone in pregnancy promotes respiratory changes?

A

progesterone

455
Q

what effect does progesterone have on tidal volume?

A

increased tidal volume

456
Q

what effect does progesterone have on pulmonary vasodilation?

A

increased pulmonary vasodilation

457
Q

what effect does progesterone have on inhaled drug absorption?

A

inhaled drug absorption increased

458
Q

how much does HR increase in pregnancy?

A

10-15 beats per minue

459
Q

how much does blood volume increase in pregnancy?

A

0.5

460
Q

what does the increase in blood volume during pregnancy cause?

A

hemodilution of plasma albumin

461
Q

plasma levels of what increase during pregnancy?

A

lipid

462
Q

what is the result of increased plasma lipid levels in pregnancy?

A

more unbound and free drug

463
Q

why is there more unbound and free drug during pregnancy?

A

drugs compete for receptor site occupied by hormones

464
Q

what kind of drugs enter fetal circulation?

A

drugs that are not lipophilic

465
Q

is drug metabolism altered by pregnancy or lactation?

A

no

466
Q

what are the two properties of drugs that allows them to pass easily into breast milk?

A

increased lipid solubility and low protein binding (e.g. CNS agents)

467
Q

drugs with low or high molecular weight pass into breast milk?

A

low molecular weight

468
Q

drugs during lactation with LOW ph produce low or high concentrations?

A

high concentrations

469
Q

changes in what in geriatric patients lead to increased reisk for orthostatic hypotension and falls?

A

baroreceptor responsiveness

470
Q

what happens to renal and hepatic blood flow in geriatric patient?

A

decreased renal/hepatic blood flow (stiffer vessels/atherosclerosis)

471
Q

term? Gradual deterioration of the immune system

A

immunosenescence

472
Q

immunosenescence in geriatric patient leads to increased risk for what two things?

A

infection and malignancy

473
Q

what is the #1 cause of morbidity in the elderly?

A

pneumonia

474
Q

gastric acid increased or decreased in elderly?

A

decreased

475
Q

systemic availability of drug increased or decreased in elderly?

A

decreased

476
Q

why is there decreased drug absorption with IM or SQ route in elderly?

A

decreased blood flow at injection site

477
Q

decreased GI motility, decreased gastric acidity, reduced blood flow in elderly lead to what?

A

overall slow drug absorption

478
Q

what are the three most problematic drugs (decreased drug distribution) in the elderly?

A

warfarin, dilantin, SSRIs

479
Q

body mass is increased or decreased in elderly?

A

decreased

480
Q

body fat is increased or decreased in elderly?

A

increased

481
Q

increased body fat leads to what type of meds having greater time to excretion?

A

lipophilic (e.g. benzodiazepines)

482
Q

albumin is increased or decreased in elderly?

A

decreased

483
Q

BBB is more or less effective in elderly?

A

less

484
Q

cardiac output is increased or decreased in elderly?

A

decreased

485
Q

body water is increased or decreased in elderly?

A

decreased

486
Q

decreased body water in elderly leads to increased levels of what kind of meds?

A

hydrophilic

487
Q

decreased blood flow in elderly results in less what? (metabolism)

A

drug clearance

488
Q

what happens to size of liver in elderly?

A

declines

489
Q

what happens to hepatocytes in elderly?

A

decreased

490
Q

what happens to first pass effect in elderly?

A

reduced

491
Q

aging effects the efficiency of what phase of metabolism?

A

phase 1

492
Q

phase 1 metabolism involves which enzyme?

A

cytochrome P450

493
Q

what two enzyme systems are slowed in elderly?

A

34A and 2D6

494
Q

what happens to oxidation in drug metabolism in elderly?

A

reduced

495
Q

what is the effect of reduced oxidation on half life in elderly?

A

extended half life

496
Q

is phase 1 or phase 2 metabolism affected more in elderly?

A

phase 1

497
Q

what is the effect of aging on renal function?

A

decreased

498
Q

what is the effect of aging on glomerular filtration?

A

decreased

499
Q

what is the effect of aging on renal tubule excretion?

A

decreased

500
Q

caution with GFR less than what?

A

60

501
Q

patient is asymptomatic until GFR is less than what?

A

35

502
Q

levels of WHAT may remain normal despite GFR changes?

A

creatinine

503
Q

what happens to muscle mass in elderly?

A

decreases

504
Q

there is less or more overall creatinine in elderly?

A

less

505
Q

five classes of drugs in elderly at risk for ADR?

A

HTN, CAD, analgesics/anti-inflammatory, sedatives, GI meds

506
Q

what meds are often the cause of accidental overdose in elderly?

A

pain meds

507
Q

how much is hepatic blood flow decreased in elderly?

A

nearly one-half

508
Q

what percentage is hepatic flow decreased by in elderly?

A

0.4

509
Q

what percentage of elderly have chronic kidney disease?

A

0.5

510
Q

what percentage of elderly are affected by heart failure? (over age 80)

A

0.4

511
Q

what effect does aging have on the first pass effect?

A

decreases

512
Q

what are the four medications that cause 2/3 of hospitalizations in the elderly?

A

(1) warfarin, (2) insulin, (3) oral antiplatelet, (4) oral hypoglycemic (sulfonylureas)

513
Q

what ratio is decreased in elderly affecting distribution to body compartments?

A

lean body weight to body fat

514
Q

what happens to level of serum protein in the elderly?

A

decrease

515
Q

drug metabolism can be affected by what two types of substance abuse in elderly?

A

alcohol, polypharmacy

516
Q

what are two examples of medication factors- ADRs in elderly?

A

drug to drug or drug to food

517
Q

what are two examples of physiological aging changes- ADRs in elderly?

A

cant hear instructions; can’t see label

518
Q

what are patient-related errors in ADRs in elderly?

A

cognitive; sensory

519
Q

polypharmacy is an example of what type of ADR/error in elderly?

A

system error

520
Q

what age group (elderly) is at high risk for ADR?

A

> 85

521
Q

what BMI (elderly) is at high risk for ADR?

A

<22

522
Q

what creatinine clearance is at high risk for ADR (elderly)?

A

<50 ml/min

523
Q

how many comorbid disorders place elderly at risk for ADR?

A

> 6

524
Q

how many meds place elderly at risk for ADR?

A

> 9 meds

525
Q

how many daily doses place elderly at risk for ADR?

A

> 12 daily doses

526
Q

previous adverse drug effect place elderly at risk for what?

A

ADR

527
Q

what does STOPP stand for?

A

screening tool of older persons’ potentially inappropriate

528
Q

what does START stand for?

A

screening tool to alert doctors to right reatment

529
Q

what is the BBB a barrier to?

A

drug distribution

530
Q

what blocks many types of drugs from getting into or getting access to the brain?

A

BBB

531
Q

what other three things does BBB block?

A

toxins, pathogens (viruses and bacteria), some inflammatory cells

532
Q

what provides protection for the CNS?

A

BBB

533
Q

what does the BBB help transport? (two things)

A

nutrients and oxygen

534
Q

what does the BBB help get rid of? (two things)

A

metabolites and waste products (from cellular function within the brain)

535
Q

what two types of drugs are able to cross the BBB?

A

highly lipid soluble and non-ionized

536
Q

what does the fetal placental barrier operate by?

A

simple diffusion

537
Q

what must drugs be to cross fetal placental barrier?

A

lipid soluble

538
Q

is the fetal placental barrier a perfect barrier?

A

no

539
Q

why is the fetal placental barrier not perfect?

A

many substances a mother takes into her body will reach the fetus

540
Q

what three things does fetal placental barrier help transport to fetus?

A

nutrients, oxygen, fluids

541
Q

what two things does fetal placental barrier remove?

A

waste and CO2

542
Q

does fetal placental barrier protect against infection?

A

yes

543
Q

what does IV med administration take effect?

A

immediate

544
Q

does IV administration bypass first pass?

A

yes

545
Q

does IM bypass first pass?

A

yes

546
Q

does SQ bypass first pass?

A

yes

547
Q

which is faster- SL or PO?

A

SL

548
Q

can SL bypass first pass?

A

yes

549
Q

does topical admin produce systemic absorption?

A

yes

550
Q

is inhalation systemic?

A

yes

551
Q

what isoenzyme? Convert a drug that is less lipid soluble to more water soluble to be excreted

A

CYP450

552
Q

where is CYP450 located?

A

liver

553
Q

what phase of biotransformation? Oxidation metabolites are still able to act in the body (bioactive)

A

phase 1

554
Q

what phase of biotransformation? Conjugation of the drug molecule metabolites are not able to act in the body are water soluble

A

phase 2

555
Q

if two drugs are metabolized by the same metabolic pathway they will what?

A

compete for the site of metabolism

556
Q

term? Adverse effects that appear unpredictably

A

idiosyncratic ADRs

557
Q

which hypersensitivity? Results from production of IgE after exposure to an antigen (most severe)

A

type 1

558
Q

which hypersensitivity? Allergic reaction provoked by re-exposure to a specific type of antigen referred to as allergen

A

type 1

559
Q

which hypersensitivity? Urticaria, wheezing, rhinitis, anaphylaxis

A

type 1

560
Q

which hypersensitivity? Occurs when drug binds to cells and is recognized by an antibody

A

type 2

561
Q

which two antibodies are involved in type 2 hypersensitivity?

A

IgG and IgM

562
Q

which hypersensitivity? Complement and cytotoxic T cells are activated

A

type 2

563
Q

which hypersensitivity is rare?

A

type 2

564
Q

which hypersensitivity? ABO blood incompatibility

A

type 2

565
Q

which hypersensitivity? Occurs when antibodies (IgG and IgM) are formed against soluble antigens

A

type 3

566
Q

which hypersensitivity? Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in tissues like joints and lungs

A

type 3

567
Q

which hypersensitivity? Reaction takes hours, days, or weeks to develop

A

type 3

568
Q

which hypersensitivity? Causes serum sickness

A

type 3

569
Q

which hypersensitivity? Ceclor

A

type 3

570
Q

what antibodies are involved in type 3 hypersensitivity?

A

IgG and IgM

571
Q

which hypersensitivity? Cytotoxic t cells are activated, cell mediated

A

type 4

572
Q

which hypersensitivity? Poison ivy and latex

A

type 4

573
Q

which hypersensitivity? Contact dermatitis

A

type 4

574
Q

which hypersensitivity? Repeated exposure to drugs causes a cytokine storm

A

type 4

575
Q

which hypersensitivity? Delayed-type hypersensitivity

A

type 4

576
Q

which hypersensitivity? Rash

A

type 4

577
Q

term? Drugs dissolve and cross the cell membrane following concentration gradient

A

passive diffusion

578
Q

term? Moving passively with no energy required from a higher to lower concentration area until equilibrium achieved

A

passive diffusion

579
Q

passive diffusion moves from an area of WHAT to WHAT concentration?

A

higher to lower

580
Q

what type of molecules move by passive diffusion?

A

small, mainly lipid soluble, uncharged

581
Q

small or large molecules- passive diffusion?

A

small

582
Q

charged or uncharged molecules- passive diffusion?

A

uncharged

583
Q

ionized or unionized- passive diffusion?

A

unionized

584
Q

stomach- acidic or basic?

A

acidic

585
Q

intestine- acidic or basic?

A

basic

586
Q

term? Moves against concentration gradient; requires energy

A

active transport

587
Q

another term for active transport?

A

carrier mediated transport

588
Q

carrier mediated transport is another term for what?

A

active transport

589
Q

term? Involves specific membrane transport proteins that carrier the drug across the membrane

A

active transport

590
Q

what carries drugs across the membrane in active transport?

A

specific membrane transport proteins

591
Q

does active transport cross entire cell membrane?

A

yes

592
Q

does active transport require energy?

A

yes

593
Q

most drugs are weak WHATs or WHATs?

A

acids or bases

594
Q

term? Characteristic of a drug- the ph at which half the molecules are ionized and the other half is unionized

A

pka

595
Q

henderson-hasselbach equation is involved with what?

A

pka

596
Q

the ionization of drugs may markedly reduce their ability to what?

A

permeate membranes

597
Q

what two factors determine degree of ionization of drugs?

A

ph and pka

598
Q

drus that are weak WHAT are uncharged in an acidic environment?

A

weak acids

599
Q

drugs that are WHAT are uncharged in a basic environment?

A

basic

600
Q

term? Transfer of a drug from its site of administration to the blood stream

A

absorption

601
Q

most absorption occurs through what?

A

passive diffusion

602
Q

what favors charged species?

A

solubility

603
Q

solubility favors what?

A

charged species

604
Q

permeability favors what?

A

neutral species

605
Q

some molecules have what two things to facilitate movement from the lumen into circulation?

A

exchange proteins and channels

606
Q

what is the fastest route of absorption?

A

inhalation

607
Q

the GIT is lined with what?

A

epithelial cells

608
Q

drugs must permeate through what cells to be absorbed into the circulatory system?

A

GI epithelial cells

609
Q

does IV medication need absorption?

A

no- direct to circulation

610
Q

which has greater predictability of absorption? IM/SQ or PO

A

IM/SQ

611
Q

what is drug property is reduced by liver metabolism of drugs?

A

bioavilability

612
Q

term? Before the drug reaches the systemic circulation significant portion of the drug can be metabolized by the liver

A

first pass

613
Q

first pass causes what to be decreased?

A

concentration of drug in systemic circulation

614
Q

what is the pathway of first pass?

A

portal vein

615
Q

does rectal route bypass FPE?

A

yes

616
Q

does buccal route bypass FPE?

A

yes

617
Q

does SL route bypass FPE?

A

yes

618
Q

term? A measure of an amount of administered dose of a drug that actually reaches the systemic circulation in unchanged form

A

bioavilability

619
Q

what is the bioavailability of IV administration?

A

1

620
Q

why is oral drug bioavailability lower?

A

incomplete absorption; first pass metabolism

621
Q

term? Passage of a drug from the circulation to the tissue and its site of action

A

distribution

622
Q

what are the six factors that affect drug distribution?

A

(1) lipid solubility (2) drug ph (pka) (3) blood flow to tissues (4) plasma protein binding (5) specialized barriers (6) disease state

623
Q

what are these? (1) lipid solubility (2) drug ph (pka) (3) blood flow to tissues (4) plasma protein binding (5) specialized barriers (6) disease state

A

factors that affect distribution

624
Q

term? Hypothetical volume of fluid into which the drug is distributed

A

volume of distribution

625
Q

what are the functional water compartments in the body?

A

intracellular fluid, extracellular fluid, plasma, interstitial volume ?

626
Q

what is the only form of a drug that is pharmacologically active?

A

free/unbound drug

627
Q

what is the only form of a drug able to cross membranes?

A

free/unbound drug

628
Q

what happens when a drug travels through the body and comes in contaact with a protein?

A

can remain free or bind to the protein

629
Q

the portion of a drug that is bound to a protein is what?

A

inactive

630
Q

the portion of a drug that is not bound to a protein is what?

A

active (free)

631
Q

a drug is said to be highly protein-bound if more than what percent of the drug is bound to protein?

A

0.8

632
Q

what is the primary serum protein responsible for drug binding?

A

albumin

633
Q

albumin has a strong affininty for what?

A

weak acids

634
Q

drugs that are minimally bound to protein penetrate the tissue BETTER/WORSE than drugs who are highly bound?

A

better

635
Q

drugs that are minimally bound to protein are excreted FASTER/SLOWER?

A

faster

636
Q

if drugs are bound to protein they stay in the plasma to get where they need to go but cannot bind to receptor until WHAT?

A

unbound

637
Q

low albumin= more WHAT?

A

free drug

638
Q

low albumin = more/less free drug?

A

more

639
Q

low albumin= more free drug= more what?

A

adverse effects

640
Q

two drugs that are highly protein bound do what?

A

compete

641
Q

when two highly protein bound drugs compete what happens?

A

can cause increase concentration of the free drug

642
Q

example of highly protein bound competing and increasing free drug concentration?

A

aspirin and sulfa

643
Q

to penetrate the CNS, drugs need to penetrate what?

A

BBB

644
Q

what kind of drugs penetrate the BBB?

A

only highly lipid-soluble ionized drugs are going to penetrate

645
Q

term? Highly selectively permeable barrier that separates the circulating blood from the brain and extracellular fluid on the CNS

A

BBB

646
Q

what kind of cells form the BBB?

A

brain endothelial cells

647
Q

what connects brain endothelial cells in BBB?

A

tight junctions

648
Q

in BBB- brain endothelial cells are connected by tight junctions with extremely high what?

A

electrical resistivity

649
Q

water, some gases, lipid soluble molecules move across BBB by what process?

A

passive diffusion

650
Q

BBB allows passage of what three things by passive diffusion?

A

water, some gases, lipid soluble molecules

651
Q

glucose and amino acids, crucial to neuro function, move across BBB by what?

A

selective transport molecules

652
Q

is the placental membrane a complete barrier?

A

no (incomplete barrier)

653
Q

how do molecules move across placental membrane?

A

simple diffusion

654
Q

what type of molecules move across placental membrane?

A

lipid soluble

655
Q

term? Impedes certain molecules although allows most fat soluble chemicals to cross

A

placental membrane

656
Q

what are the two properties of drugs that tend to make it unlikely to cross placental membrane?

A

drugs that are more water soluble and have a higher molecular weight

657
Q

drugs that are more water soluble and have a higher molecular weight DO/DO NOT as readily cross placental membrane?

A

do not

658
Q

if a drug binds to a large molecule like blood protein/albumin it is MORE/LESS likely to contact fetus?

A

less likely

659
Q

term? Lipid bilayer, semipermeable

A

cell membrane

660
Q

pure lipid bilayers are generally permeable only to what?

A

small and uncharged solutes

661
Q

ionic molecules are charged/uncharged?

A

charged

662
Q

whether or not a molecule is ionized will affect its what?

A

absorption

663
Q

term? Irreversible biochemical transformation of drug into metabolites to increase excretion from body via kidney

A

metabolism

664
Q

where does metabolism mainly occur?

A

liver

665
Q

metabolites are usually more or less ionized?

A

more ionized

666
Q

metabolites are usually more or less lipid soluble?

A

less lipid soluble

667
Q

why are metabolites not absorbed by renal tubule?

A

less lipid soluble

668
Q

non-synthetic reactions, which phase of metabolism?

A

phase 1

669
Q

oxidation- which phase of metabolism?

A

phase 1

670
Q

what is the most important metabolizing reaction?

A

oxidation

671
Q

term? Adds oxygen or a charged radical/involves cytochrome P450 isoenzymes

A

oxidation

672
Q

reduction- which phase of metabolism?

A

phase 1

673
Q

hydrolysis- which phase of metabolism?

A

phase 1

674
Q

metabolite may be active or inactive- which phase of metabolism?

A

phase 1

675
Q

metabolies are only inactive- which phase of metabolism?

A

phase 2

676
Q

synthetic reactions- which phase of metabolism?

A

phase 2

677
Q

glucuronidation- which phase of metabolism?

A

phase 2

678
Q

what enzyme- convert drugs to more water soluble forms?

A

CYP450

679
Q

what enzyme? The major enzymes involved in drug metabolism

A

CYP450

680
Q

what percentage of total metabolism does CYP450 account for?

A

0.75

681
Q

grapefruit is an inducer or inhibitor of CYP450?

A

inhibitor

682
Q

grapefruit will increase/decrease metabolism of drugs?

A

decrease

683
Q

where is CYP450 primarily located within liver cells?

A

endoplasmic reticulum

684
Q

aside from liver, what other organs house CYP450?

A

kidney and intestine

685
Q

what are the 3 CYP enzymes that carry out largest number (50%) of biotransformation?

A

3A, 4, and 5

686
Q

term? Some drugs can induce or stimulate the production of one or more isoforms of the enzymes to increase drug metabolism or decrease amount of one of the drugs

A

enzyme induction

687
Q

what is the result of enzyme induction?

A

decrease the therapeutic effect of one of the other drugs because the enzymes have been induced

688
Q

term? Drugs will inhibit the production of CYP enzymes and decrease drug metabolism to the effect is increased plasma concentration of concurrently used drugs

A

enzyme inhibition

689
Q

enzyme inhibition- what kind of interaction?

A

drug to drug interaction

690
Q

interacting CYP enzymes equates to what?

A

enzyme inhibition

691
Q

five factors that affect metabolism?

A

age (small kids, elderly), genetics, gender, diet and environmental factors, disease state

692
Q

acetylation is involving what metabolism factor?

A

genetics

693
Q

term? Elimination of drugs from the body unchanged or as a metabolite

A

excretion

694
Q

what is the most common organ of elimination?

A

kidney

695
Q

via what route does elimination occur?

A

urine

696
Q

what is the primary organ of excretion?

A

kidney

697
Q

term? To produce drug metabolites that are more water soluble and more easily removed by the kidneys

A

excretion

698
Q

what lab used to monitor renal function in the clinical setting?

A

serum creatinine

699
Q

variability of excretion lies in the WHAT of the patient?

A

renal function

700
Q

patients with poor renal function have LOWER/HIGHER levels of drugs secondary to decreased excretion of metabolites?

A

higher

701
Q

what is the hepatic route of excretion?

A

bile

702
Q

what is the mechanism of lung excretion?

A

exhalation

703
Q

does excretion occur via breast milk?

A

yes

704
Q

does excretion occur via skin?

A

yes

705
Q

what type of compounds can be easily excreted?

A

hydrophilic compounds

706
Q

why are hydrophilic compounds easily excreted?

A

body keeps from being reabsorbed

707
Q

what is the most common method of excretion?

A

renal excretion

708
Q

are protein bound drugs filtered in excretion?

A

no

709
Q

what is normal GFR?

A

120

710
Q

what two things does GFR depend on?

A

plasma protein binding and renal blood flow

711
Q

process? Transported by liver cells from blood to bile then enter GIT and excreted through feces

A

biliary excretion

712
Q

enterohepatic reabsorption is part of what type of excretion?

A

biliary excretion

713
Q

term? Action of a drug on the body

A

pharmacodynamics

714
Q

what receptors do ligand-gated ion channels act on?

A

cholinergic nicotinic

715
Q

cholinergic nicotinic receptors interact with what channels?

A

ligand gated ion channels

716
Q

what receptors do g-protein-coupled receptors act on?

A

alpha and beta adrenoreceptors

717
Q

alpha and beta adrenoreceptors act on what receptor?

A

g protein coupled receptor

718
Q

what receptors interact with enzyme-linked receptors?

A

insulin receptors

719
Q

insulin receptors interact with what receptors?

A

enzyme-linked receptors

720
Q

intracellular receptors interact with what receptors?

A

steroid receptors

721
Q

steroid receptors interact with what receptors?

A

intracellular receptors

722
Q

term? The ability of the drug to bind to the receptor

A

affinity

723
Q

term? How well a drug binds to its receptor

A

affinity

724
Q

definition of affinity?

A

the ability of a drug to bind to the receptor (how well)

725
Q

term? The ability of a drug to produce a pharmacological response once the drug attaches to the receptor

A

efficacy

726
Q

another term for efficacy?

A

intrinsic activity

727
Q

definition of efficacy?

A

ability of the drug to produce a pharmacological response once the drug attaches to the receptor

728
Q

alternative definition of efficacy?

A

how well the drug works to exert its therapeutic effect

729
Q

term? How well a drug exerts its therapeutic effect

A

efficacy

730
Q

term? Drug that has affinity plus intrinsic activity

A

agonist

731
Q

term? Binds to a receptor and produces a pharmacological response

A

agonist

732
Q

term? Binds to receptor and will do something

A

agonist

733
Q

term? Possess some intrinsic activity, but less than a full agonist

A

partial agonist

734
Q

term? Measure of drug activity expressed in terms of the amount required to produce an effect

A

potency

735
Q

term? Amount of drug required to produce an effect of given intensity

A

potency

736
Q

term? The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of therapeutic effect

A

onset of action

737
Q

onset of action, definition?

A

the point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of therapeutic effect

738
Q

first sign of therapeutic effect? Term?

A

onset of action

739
Q

term? The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the max therapeutic effect

A

peak action

740
Q

peak action- definition?

A

maximal effect in the body

741
Q

term? The length of time the drug shows any effect in the body

A

duration of action

742
Q

term? Time between onset of action and metabolism of the drug

A

duration of action

743
Q

term? Amount of drug needed in the body remains constant (five half lives)

A

steady state

744
Q

how long is the steady state?

A

five half lives

745
Q

term? The amount of drug going into the body is the amount of drug being eliminated

A

steady state

746
Q

what is used to determine if a drug is in therapeuti range?

A

peak and trough

747
Q

what is used to decide dosing schedule?

A

half life

748
Q

term? The length of time for the concentration of the drug to decrease to half its starting concentration

A

half life

749
Q

What is the term? What the drug does/action on the body

A

pharmacodynamics

750
Q

What is the term? What the body does to the drug

A

pharmacokinetics

751
Q

What is the term? Factors that affect prescribing- include bioavailability

A

pharmacokinetics

752
Q

Term? Think Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion

A

pharmacokinetics

753
Q

ADME

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion (pharmacokinetics)

754
Q

Description of which route of absorption? Convenient, takes longer to reach blood stream, may be destroyed by stomach acid

A

oral

755
Q

which route of absorption? May be destroyed by stomach acid

A

oral

756
Q

Another term for IV administration route?

A

parenteral

757
Q

which route of absorption? Faster than oral, more readily absorbed, avoids 1st pass effect

A

sublingual

758
Q

route of absorption that avoids 1st pass effect?

A

sublingual

759
Q

which route (absorption) faster than oral, absorbs directly through mucous membranes into blood stream?

A

rectal

760
Q

which route (absorption) can be fast, like IV, but also unreliable?

A

inhalation

761
Q

which route (absorption) must undergo absorption through injection site?

A

IM/SQ

762
Q

which route (absorption), drugs cannot create action if they are not distributed in adequate concentrations?

A

IM/SQ

763
Q

term? Creates equal amounts of un-iodized drug on both sides of the membrane, works best for small unbound, uncharged drugs?

A

passive diffusion

764
Q

term? Creates equal amounts of un-iodized drug on both sides of the membrane

A

passive diffusion

765
Q

passive diffusion works best on what drugs?

A

small, unbound, uncharged drugs

766
Q

what works best on small, unbound, uncharged drugs?

A

passive diffusion

767
Q

define plasma protein binding

A

drugs may compete for protein binring sites

768
Q

two examples od drugs re: plasma protein binding?

A

coumadin, bactrim

769
Q

hypoalbuminemia leads to what?

A

more free (unbound drug) in the blood stream

770
Q

hypoalbuminemia leads to increased risk of what?

A

toxic effect

771
Q

why does hypoalbuminemia have increased risk for toxic effect?

A

drug hanging in the bloodstream and not doing anything productive, less drug available to work in target tissues

772
Q

term? Process in which drugs are transferred from inside the body to outside the body

A

excretion

773
Q

what age group has less ability to excrete?

A

older adults

774
Q

why do older adults have less ability to excrete?

A

decreased kidney function

775
Q

slower excretion increases potential for what?

A

toxicity

776
Q

what is the likely route of excretion of a volatile drug?

A

likely the lungs

777
Q

where does excretion primarily take place?

A

kidneys

778
Q

aside from kidneys, where are the three organs excretion also occurs?

A

liver, lungs, skin

779
Q

what type of reaction is CYP 450?

A

oxidative

780
Q

what can cause variation in CYP 450?

A

genetics

781
Q

what drug? A nonspecific CYP 450 inducer that can induce the metabolism of drugs, like oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure

A

rifampin

782
Q

what type of drug is rifampin?

A

nonspecific CYP 450 inducer

783
Q

what does rifampin induce?

A

metabolism of drugs

784
Q

what enzyme? Drugs may compete for this enzyme, meaning one will not be metabolized?

A

CYP34A

785
Q

term? Drug cannot be metabolized by enzymes properly; block or slow the enzyme

A

inhibitor

786
Q

what does an inhibitor do?

A

block or slow the enzyme

787
Q

what does an inducer do?

A

stimulate the enzyme

788
Q

ter? Drug is metabolized too fast- make enzymes work better

A

inducer

789
Q

what hormone? Decreases gastric tone and prolongs stomach emptying

A

progesterone

790
Q

what are two effects of progesterone in pregnancy?

A

decreases gastric tone and prolongs stomach emptying

791
Q

what special population? Hormones may occupy protein binding sites leading to more free drug in circulation

A

pregnancy

792
Q

what kind of drugs pass through breast milk?

A

highly lipid soluble, low protein binding drugs

793
Q

is drug metabolism changed in pregnancy?

A

no

794
Q

what special population? Peak serum concentrations lower and delayed

A

elderly

795
Q

what happens to peak serum concentrations in elderly?

A

lower and delayed

796
Q

gastric acid increased or decreased in elderly?

A

decreased

797
Q

drug absorption increased or decreased in elderly?

A

decreased

798
Q

body water increased or decreased in elderly?

A

decreased

799
Q

distribution of hydrophilic drugs increased or decreased in elderly?

A

decreased

800
Q

why is there reduced distribution in elderly?

A

less albumin, less body mass, less plasma protein

801
Q
A

why is there increased unbound active drug in elderly?

802
Q
A

why is there slow metabolism in elderly?

803
Q
A

what two changes to liver happen in the elderly?

804
Q
A

what changes to the kidney happen in the elderly?

805
Q
A

renal tubular secretion increased or decreased in elderly?

806
Q
A

kidney size increased or decreased in elderly?

807
Q
A

number of functioning nephrons increased or decreased in elderly?

808
Q
A

increased fat stores in elderly lead to what?

809
Q
A

what effect do increased fat stores have on volume distribution in elderly?

810
Q
A

what increases volume distribution of lipophilic drugs in elderly?

811
Q
A

first pass effect is increased or decreased in elderly?

812
Q
A

why is 1st pass effect increased in elderly?

813
Q
A

role of DEA?

814
Q
A

schedule of drugs with no medical use?

815
Q
A

two examples of schedule 1 drugs?

816
Q
A

heroin and LSD are examples of which drug schedule?

817
Q
A

what drugs have high potential for abuse and dependence?

818
Q
A

refills and telephone orders permitted with schedule 2?

819
Q
A

vicodin, oxycontin, adderall- what schedule?

820
Q
A

what schedule- moderate potential for abuse and dependence?

821
Q
A

scripts rewritten after 6 months for 5 refills- what schedule?

822
Q
A

tylenol with codeine- what schedule?

823
Q
A

ketamine- what schedule?

824
Q
A

steroids- what schedule?

825
Q
A

testosterone- what schedule?

826
Q
A

tylenol with codeine, ketamine, steroids, testosterone? What schedule

827
Q
A

what schedule- drugs with low potential for abuse and dependence?

828
Q
A

xanax, clonazepam, valium, ativan- what schedule?

829
Q
A

what schedule- xanax?

830
Q
A

what schedule- valium?

831
Q
A

what schedule, tramadol?

832
Q
A

what schedule clonazepam?

833
Q
A

what schedule- ativan?

834
Q
A

what schedule- same as all prescrtipion drugs over the counter?

835
Q
A

robitussin AC- what schedule?

836
Q
A

lomotil- what schedule?

837
Q
A

Lyrica- what schedule?

838
Q
A

robitussin AC, lomotil, lyrica- what schedule?

839
Q
A

type 1 reaction is mediated by what?

840
Q
A

immediate type hypersensitivity, which type?

841
Q
A

anaphylaxis- which type?

842
Q
A

antibody-dependent cytotoxicity- which type?

843
Q
A

heparin-induced thrombocytopenia- which type?

844
Q
A

graft rejection- which type?

845
Q
A

immune complex hypersensitivity- which type?

846
Q
A

arthus reaction to tetanus vaccine- which type?

847
Q
A

lupus- which type?

848
Q
A

describe type 3 reaction?

849
Q
A

describe type 2 reaction?

850
Q
A

what do agonists do?

851
Q
A

term? Receptor site stimulation?

852
Q
A

term? Block receptor site stimulation?

853
Q
A

what do antagonists do?

854
Q
A

what do antagonists block?

855
Q
A

which system? Releases acetylcholine and counterbalances sympathetic activity

856
Q
A

which system? ACH activates muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

857
Q
A

what are the two cholinergic receptors?

858
Q
A

what two receptors does ACH activate?

859
Q
A

parasympathetic nervous system is part of which system?

860
Q
A

constricts pupils- which system?

861
Q
A

stimulates salivation- which system?

862
Q
A

decreases heart rate- which system?

863
Q
A

decreases contractility- which system?

864
Q
A

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