Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A&P 2 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What cell types are effector cells of the Autonomic Nervous system?

A

smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, gland cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What neurotransmitter does both neurons of the parasympathetic system release?

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What receptor does acetylcholine bind to?

A

cholinergic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pharmacology of the ANS

A
  1. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
  2. Nicotine
  3. Muscarine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In the sympathetic system, what does the postganglionic neuron release, and onto what?

A

norepinephrine onto a norepinephrine receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neurochemistry of Parasympathetic Pathway

A
  1. CNS stimulates action potential
  2. preganglionic neuron always releases acetylcholine at parasympathetic ganglion
  3. ACh binds to a receptor on postganglionic neuron (nicotinic)
  4. postganglionic neuron release ACh on target cell
  5. ACh binds to receptor (muscarinic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Neurochemistry for Sympathetic system

A
  1. CNS stimulates action potential in preganglionic
  2. pregang neuron release ACh at sympathetic ganglion
  3. ACh binds to receptor on post ganglionic neuron (nicotinic)
  4. postganglionic neuron release norepinephrine onto target cell
  5. Norepinephrine binds to adrenergic receptor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the subtypes of Adrenergic receptors?

A

Alpha 1: causes contraction of smooth muscle
Alpha 2: usually found on the varicosities of sympathetic postganglionic neurons; negative feedback to inhibit further norepinephrine release
Beta 1: found on cardiac muscle cells
Beta 2: usually cause relaxation of smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the two ways to activate targets in the sympathetic system?

A
  1. Activate individual preganglionic neurons through connections in the CNS
  2. Activate release of epinephrine from adrenal gland; this activates receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is “fight or flight”

A

activation of all sympathetic neurons as well as release of epinephrine into the blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does the parasympathetic system operate?

A

By activation of individual preganglionic neurons by the CNS, does not activate all at once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Agonist drug

A

Binds to a receptor and stimulates the same response in the cell as binding the transmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Antagonist drug

A

Binds to a receptor but does not create a response in the cell; it blocks the action of the transmitter by occupying the binding site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Can the body activate all parasympathetic pathways at once?

A

No, this can only be caused by drugs
1. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
2. nictoine
3. muscarine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

A

any drug that blocks the breakdown of acetylcholine prolongs activation of ANS stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nicotine

A

a drug that turns on BOTH sympathetic and parasympathetic systems by activating the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at all ganglionic synapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Muscarine

A

a drug found in certain mushrooms; activates all muscarinic receptors at target organs (tearing, drooling, sweating, slow heart rate, difficulty breathing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Norepinephrine

A

a neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system; it activates all adrenergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Epinephrine

A

a hormone released from the adrenal gland; it also activates all adrenergic receptors (epinephrine=adrenaline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Homeostasis

A

the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hypothalamus as the Master regulator

A

receives info from
-frontal lobe
-limbic system
-circulating hormones and signals
-neural signals from sensory
pathways
sends instructions to
-pituitary gland (endocrine output)
-brainstem centers (neural:automic)
-brainstem centers (neural: somatic)
-spinal cord centers (neural: autonomic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

-cell bodies in CNS
-single neuron from CNS to effector organs (skeletal muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Autonomic nervous system

A

-autonomic pathways are part of the motor system
-anatomically and functionally different from the somatic nervous system
-the 2 divisions of the ANS each have their own anatomy
-sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions work together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What systems control homeostasis

A

nervous and endocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Anatomy of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

-craniosacral system
-rest and digest
-preganglionic neurons in cranial nerves III, IX, X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Anatomy of the Sympathetic nervous system

A

-thoracolumbar system
-preganglionic neurons form all thoracic spinal cord levels and lumbar levels L1 and 2
-fight or flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dual innervation

A

most organs receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What regulates organ function?

A

transmitters and receptors of the ANS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Effector cells of the ANS

A

-smooth muscle: ANS can increase or decrease the amount of contraction in a bed of smooth muscle
-Cardiac muscle: ANS can increase or decrease the amount of contraction in the wall of the heart, and regulate the rate of contraction
-gland cells: ANS can increase or decrease the amount of secretion produced and released from a gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Neurochemistry of the ANS

A

-CNS stimulates action potential
-neurotransmitter binds to a receptor on postganglionic
-binding of transmitter stimulates action potential
-postganglionic releases neurotransmitter onto the target the cell
-binding of transmitter stimulates the target cell (smooth, cardiac, or gland cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the two exceptions in the sympathetic system?

A
  1. Sweat gland: ACh binds to muscarinic receptor
  2. Adrenal medulla: epinephrine and some norepinephrine get release into the blood, then it leaves the bloodstream and bind to any cell with adrenergic receptor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

A

any drug that blocks the breakdown of ACh prolongs activation of ANS stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2 main components of blood

A
  1. plasma
  2. formed elements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hemopoises

A

aka Hematopoiesis
- the process of blood cell formation
-occurs in the hollow center of bone (red marrow)
-with aging, marrow cavity becomes filled with fat (yellow marrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hemocytoblasts

A

stem cells that divide to form all types of blood cells; aka pluripotent stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Erythrocytes

A

-red blood cells
-carry oxygen to cells in the body
account for slightly less than half the blood volume, and 99.9% of the formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hematocrit

A

measures the percentage of whole blood occupied by formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

formation of new red cells
-RBCs pass through erythroblast and reticulocyte stages, during which time the cell actively produces hemoglobin
-process speeds up within the presence of erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

EPO

A

erythropoiesis stimulating hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Bioconcave disc

A

-provides a large surface-to-volume ratio to maximize rate of gas diffusion through membrane
-RBCs lack organelles: no nucleus
-shape allows RBCs to stack, bend, and flex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hemoglobin

A

-accounts for 95% of the proteins in RBCs
-globular protein, formed from 2 pairs of protein subunits
-2 alpha and 2 beta
-each subunit contains 1 molecule of heme
-each heme has an iron ion at its center
-the iron binds and releases an oxygen molecule
-one hemoglobin can bind up to 4 oxygen molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Recycling hemoglobin

A

-aged and damaged RBCs are engulfed by macrophages of spleen, liver, and bone marrow; the hemoglobin is broken down
-raw materials are made available in blood for erythrocyte synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Disorders of the blood

A

-jaundice
-anemia
-sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Jaundince

A

-of the bilirubin formed in RBC breakdown, approximately 85% is removed from the blood and processed by the liver
-failure of the liver to “keep up” with RBC breakdown or blockage of the bile ducts leads to a buildup of bilirubin in the blood
-bilirubin then diffuses out into tissues all over the body, giving yellow color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Anemia

A

-a decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
-symptoms: lethargy, weakness, muscle fatigue, low energy
-can include iron deficiency, hemorrhagic, and anaplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Sickle Cell anemia

A

-caused by a mutation of the amino acid sequence of the beta chain hemoglobin
-without sufficient oxygen bound to it, hemoglobin molecules cluster into rods and force the cell into a stiffened, curved shape which can get stuck in capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Leukocytes

A

-WBCs
-can leave the blood stream in response to chemical signals by squeezing through gaps in vessel wall=diapedesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Granulocytes (WBC)

A

-Neutrophil: 50-70% total WBC
-Eosinophil: phagocytes
-Basophil: migrate to damaged tissue and release histamine and heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Agranulocytes (WBC)

A

-lymphocyte: immune system cells
-monocyte: leave circulation to become macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

A

-one of the most common clinical tests performed
-simple blood test measuring most parameters of blood
-hematocrit and hemoglobin concentrations
-platelet count
-white blood cell count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What granular leukocytes come from a Myeloid stem cell?

A

-eosinophils
-basophils
-neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What agranular leukocytes form from a lymphoid stem cell?

A

-monocytes
-B lymphocytes
-T lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where do myeloid and lymphoid stem cells come from?

A

hematopoietic stem cell (hemocytoblast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Disorders of the blood

A

-Leukemia (lymphoid and myeloid)
-immature and abnormal cells enter circulation, invade tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Platelets

A

fragments of a megakaryocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Steps in platelet formation

A
  1. hemocytoblast
    2.megakaryoblast
  2. megakaryocyte (II/III)
  3. megakaryocyte (IV)
  4. platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Steps in blood clotting

A
  1. smooth muscle contracts (vasoconstriction)
  2. injury to lining of blood vessel exposes collagen fibers; platelets adhere
  3. platelets release chemicals that make nearby platelets sticky; platelet plug forms
  4. fibrin forms a mesh that traps RBCs and platelets, forming the clot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Coagulation

A

-many blood proteins involved
-liver problems give coagulation problems
-drugs can interfere with clotting process
-final step: thrombin catalyses conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin threads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

breakdown of clot
-an inactive plasma enzyme called plasminogen is converted to plasmin
-plasmin digests fibrin threads of clot and clot eventually breaks down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Systemic circuit

A

-blood passes to and from most organs of the body
-arteries carry oxygenated blood
-veins carry deoxygenated blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Pulmonary circuit

A

-blood passing to and from the lungs
-pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood to lungs (need to be oxygenated)
-pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood to left side of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where do arteries carry blood?

A

away from the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where do veins carry blood?

A

toward the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where does the RS of the heart receive blood from?

A

RS of heart receives deoxygenated blood through the superior and inferior vena cavae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where does the RS pump blood to?

A

the pulmonary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Where does the LS of heart receive blood from?

A

The LS of heart receives oxygenated blood from lungs via the pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where does the LS of heart pump blood through?

A

aorta, to the rest of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How many layers make ip a blood vessel?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Tunica intima

A

-innermost layer of a blood vessel
-lined by epithelium
-supported by connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Tunica media

A

-middle layer of a blood vessel
-smooth muscle with various amounts of elastic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Tunica externa

A

-outermost layer of a blood vessel
-connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Composition of arteries

A

-stronger, thicker walls than veins of the same size
-arteries generally contain more smooth muscle and often more elastic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Blood vessels where have the largest diameter?

A

closest to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Elastic arteries

A

largest arteries closest to heart contain lots of elastic fibers, and swell with each heart pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Muscular arteries

A

smaller diameter arteries distributing to organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Resistance vessels

A

arterioles are small diameter with a few layers of smooth muscle; constriction or relaxation

77
Q

Exchange vessels

A

capillaries are the only vessels where materials move through the vessel wall

78
Q

Capacitance vessels

A

veins have little muscle or elastic fibers; little ability to stretch, hold most of blood

79
Q

How do veins move blood up from the lower body?

A

valves and muscular pump

80
Q

function of valves

A

prevent blood from flowing backward

81
Q

muscular pump

A

skeletal muscle activity around deep veins compresses veins and pushes blood toward heart

82
Q

Capillaries

A

-how substances pass through a capillary wall
-through the epithelial cell membrane
-through fenestrations in the epithelial cell membranes
-through spaces between epithelial cells

83
Q

3 types of capillaries

A

-continuous
-fenestrated
-sinusoidal

84
Q

Continuous capillaries

A

-continuous endothelial lining
-permit diffusion of water, small solutes and lipid-soluble solvents
-least leaky

85
Q

Fenestrated capillaries`

A

-have small fenestrations
-permit rapid exchange of water and larger solutes between plasma and interstitial fluid
-medium leakiness

86
Q

Sinusoidal capillaries

A

-have large gaps between adjacent endothelial cells
-permit free exchange of water and large plasma proteins
-most leaky

87
Q

Precapillary sphincter

A

-regulate blood flow through a capillary bed
-smooth muscles in vessels as they branch into a capillary network
-sphincters contract, acting as a valve to decrease blood flow

88
Q

Where does the heart lie in the body?

A

in the thoracic cavity aka the mediastinum, between the two lungs

89
Q

Pericardial sac

A

the fibrous sac in which the heart is enclosed
-pericardial cavity within sac surrounds the heart

90
Q

Visceral pericardium

A

adhered to the hearts surface

91
Q

Parietal pericardium

A

outer layer of pericardium

92
Q

Right side of the heart

A

-right atrium
-right ventricle

93
Q

Left side of the heart

A

-left atrium
-left ventricle

94
Q

Apex

A

most inferior part of the heart

95
Q

Base

A

superior end of the heart where great vessels attach

96
Q

Arteries on the left side of the heart

A

-left coronary immediately splits into circumflex artery and left anterior descending (LAD)

97
Q

Coronary veins

A

collect deoxygenated blood from heart wall and return it to the right atrium

98
Q

Endocardium

A

innermost layer of the heart, supported by connective tissue

99
Q

Myocardium

A

middle layer of the heart, cardiac muscle

100
Q

Epicardium

A

outer layer of the heart, connective tissue with fat, coronary vessels, and visceral pericardium

101
Q

Atrioventricular valves

A

-between atria and ventricles
-right AV valves has 3 flaps (tricuspid)
-left AV valve has 2 flaps (bicuspid or mitral)

102
Q

Semilunar valves

A

-between ventricles and their exit vessel
-leaving right ventricle: pulmonary valve
-leaving left ventricle: aortic valve

103
Q

Anatomy of AV valves

A

-cusps are anchored by string like chordae tendinae to muscular pegs called papillary muscles

104
Q

When the AV valves are open then atrial pressure is ___ than ventricular pressure

A

greater

105
Q

When the AV valves are closed then the atrial pressure is ___ than ventricular pressure

A

less

106
Q

Blood flow through the heart

A
  1. blood –> inferior and superior vena cavae –> right atrium
  2. right atrium –> tricuspid valve–> right ventricle
  3. right ventricle–> pulmonary valve–> pulmonary trunk
  4. pulmonary trunk–> right and left pulmonary arteries –> lungs
  5. lungs–> 2 left and 2 right pulmonary veins–> left atrium
  6. left atrium–> bicuspid valve–> left ventricle
  7. left ventricle–> aortic valve–> aorta–> body
107
Q

Conducting system of the heart

A
  1. SA node (pacemaker)
  2. AV node
  3. AV bundle
  4. bundle branches
  5. purkinje fibers
108
Q

P wave

A

atrial depolarization, initiated by the SA node

109
Q

before QRS

A

when depolarization is complete, impulse is delayed at the AV node

110
Q

QRS

A

ventricular depolarization begins at apex, atrial repolarization occurs

111
Q

after QRS

A

ventricular depolarization is complete

112
Q

T

A

ventricular repolarization begins at apex

113
Q

after T

A

ventricular repolarization is complete

114
Q

bradycardia

A

slow HR

115
Q

tachycardia

A

fast HR

116
Q

pumping blood

A

a mechanical event initiated by electrical events

117
Q

electrical event

A

distribution of electrical excitation, normally initiated by pacemaker cells of the SA node, passed to the contractile cells of the heart wall

118
Q

mechanical event

A

contraction of myocardial cells, which exert pressure on the blood within the chambers to create a driving force for moving blood

119
Q

Action potential of a single contractile cardiac muscle cell

A
  1. Na+ channels open
  2. Na+ channels close
  3. Ca2+ channels open; fast K+ channels close
  4. Ca2+ channels close; slow K+ channels open
  5. resting potential
120
Q

the role of calcium ions in cardiac contractions

A

-contraction is produced by an increase in calcium ion concentration around myofibrils (very sensitive to extracellular Ca+ concentrations)

121
Q

Calcium channel blockers

A

a group of powerful medications for heart patients, reduce calcium in myocytes so they contract less forcefully

122
Q

How long does an action potential last in a contractile cardiac muscle cell?

A

as long as the contraction

123
Q

one cardiac cycle

A

the start of one heartbeat to the start of the second heart beat

124
Q

2 stages of activity in the heart chamber?

A

systole and diastole

125
Q

systole

A

contraction of myocardium

126
Q

diastole

A

relaxation of myocardium

127
Q

what do purkinje fibers produce?

A

action potentials in contractile myocardial cells of both right and left ventricles

128
Q

ventricular systole

A

when both ventricles begin contracting from apex to base

129
Q

ventricular diastole

A

ventricles relax

130
Q

atrial diastole

A

atria relax

131
Q

Stages of heart contraction

A
  1. ventricular filling and atrial contraction (mid-to-late diastole)
    2a. isovolumetric contraction phase
    2b. ventricular ejection phase
    (ventricular systole)
  2. isovolumetric relaxation (early diastole)
  3. ventricular filling (repeats)
132
Q

1st heart sound

A

closure of AV valves

133
Q

2nd heart sound

A

closure of semilunar valves

134
Q

end diastolic volume

A

the amount of blood in the left ventricle just before contraction

135
Q

end systolic volume

A

the amount of blood left in the left ventricle after contraction

136
Q

cardiodynamic

A

control of cardio output

137
Q

cardiac output

A

the volume of blood pumped by the left ventricle in 1 minutes
CO= HR x SV

138
Q

Stroke volume (SV)

A

the amount pumped out of the left ventricle during systole
SV= EDV-ESV

139
Q

Heart rate is directly proportional to___

A

cardiac output

140
Q

cardiovascular center

A

medulla oblongata in the brainstem drives the autonomic nervous system the cardiac center regulates heart activity

141
Q

Cardioacceleratory center

A

increases heart rate
-controls sympathetic neurons, causes them to release norepinephrine at SA node

142
Q

Cardioinhibitory center

A

slows heart rate
-controls parasympathetic neurons of vagus nerve, leading to acetylcholine release at SA node

143
Q

SV is directly proportional to

A

cardiac output

144
Q

filling time

A

duration of ventricular diastole
-longer fill time= longer fill volume
-slower heart rate= more fill time

145
Q

venous return

A

rate of blood flow during ventricular diastole
-determined by venous pressure
-level of vasoconstriction alters venous pressure

146
Q

increased sympathetic activity ___ the degree of constriction, dilating the vessel to increase blood flow=vasoconstriction

A

increases

147
Q

decreased sympathetic activity ___ the degree of constriction, dilating the vessel to increase blood flow= vasodilation

A

decreases

148
Q

preload

A

stretch on ventricle wall during diastole
-directly proportional to EDV
-more blood=more stretch on contractile cells

149
Q

contractility

A

how hard the ventricle contracts
-directly proportional to stroke volume

150
Q

beta blockers

A

block receptors for epinephrine and norepinephrine, so decrease contractility (decrease workload on heart)

151
Q

calcium channel blockers

A

decrease calcium entry or release in contractile cells; less calcium= less actin (myosine interaction=less tension)

152
Q

afterload

A

force the ventricle needs to produce to open the semilunar valve and eject blood
-inversely related to cardiac output

153
Q

ejection fraction

A

important clinical measure of heart function
-50-75% = normal
-36-49% = below normal
-35% and below = ability is low

154
Q

flow

A

a function of pressure and resistance
difference in BP/ peripheral resistance

155
Q

mean arterial pressure (map)

A

diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure (usually 93)

156
Q

pulse pressure

A

difference between systolic and diastolic pressure

157
Q

vascular resistance

A

-due to friction between blood and the vessel wall

158
Q

blood viscosity

A

resistance caused by molecules and suspended materials in a liquid

159
Q

turbulance

A

swirling action within vessel that disturbs smooth flow

160
Q

diffusion

A

movement of ions or molecules along a concentration gradient from high concentration to low concentration

161
Q

filtration

A

water and small solutes squeezed out of the capillary tube into the interstitial fluid

162
Q

reabsorption

A

water drawn back into the capillary from the interstitial fluid
-mainly pulled by osmotic pressure exerted by large plasma proteins trapped in blood

163
Q

net filtration pressure

A

the difference between net hydrostatic pressure and net osmotic pressure

164
Q

lymphatic vessels

A

return interstitial fluid to the blood stream

165
Q

edema

A

the accumulation of interstitial fluid due to abnormal leakage from capillaries

166
Q

Autoregulation

A

causes immediate, localized adjustments
-local regulation of blood flow within tissues
-adjusted by changing peripheral resistance by changing diameter of vessel

167
Q

Neural mechanisms

A

respond quickly to changes
-cardiovascular center controls both heart and vessels
-CNS regulates systematic BP with the baroreceptor reflex

168
Q

Endocrine mechanisms

A

slowest, long-term changes
-activation of hormone pathways

169
Q

Cardiovascular adaptation: standing up

A

sympathetic activation causes HR and ventricular contraction to increase so stroke volume increase and restores cardiac output and BP

170
Q

Cardiovascular adaptation: light exercise

A

increase in venous return, causes increase in EDV and preload, so theres an increase in stroke volume and cardiac output

171
Q

Cardiovascular adaptation: strenuous exercise

A

sympathetic activity increase which causes HR and contractility to increase= CO increases

172
Q

short term response to hemorrhaging

A

fixing BP

173
Q

long term response to hemorrhaging

A

body uses hormones to increase fluid retention

174
Q

circulatory shock

A

life threatening failure of circulatory system to get enough oxygen to tissue

175
Q

Heart Attack

A

decrease in coronary blood flow, can lead to angina pain and eventually to a heart attack

176
Q

Athersclerosis

A

inflammatory disease of the vessel wall
-stiffening of the walls due to the fatty deposits
-high levels of LDL (not good)
-reduces blood flow, increases resistance

177
Q

Treatment for blocked coronary artery

A

-coronary artery bypass graft surgery (CABG)
-ballon angioplasty
-insert a stent

178
Q

hypertension

A

high BP

179
Q

Arrhythmia

A

-atrial fibrillation
-ventricular fibrillation

180
Q

Atrial fibrillation

A

-atrial wall quivers
-blood clots may form near atrial walls

181
Q

Ventricular fibrillation

A

-ventricle wall quivers and fails to pump blood out of heart
-leads to cardiac arrest

182
Q

Abnormalities in the heart

A

-ventricular septal defect
-atrial septal defect
-causes mixing of low O2 blood and high O2 blood

183
Q

heart failure

A

the heart cannot pump enough blood to the heart

184
Q

congestive heart failure

A

heart pumps inadequately, blood backs up on venous side, which can go to the lungs (edema) and interfere with breathing

185
Q

common drug treatments for cardiovascular disease

A

-alpha blockers
-beta blockers
-calcium channel blockers

186
Q

alpha blockers

A

used to dilate blood vessels and decrease BP

187
Q

beta blockers

A

used to decrease contractility to ease workload and decrease HR- decrease CO (lower BP)

188
Q

calcium channel blockers

A

used to decrease contractility in ventricle to decrease SV, CO, and BP

A&P 2 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions