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Equine Rehab > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 physiologic adaptations of the equine athlete

A
  1. Large maximal aerobic capacity
  2. Large intramuscular glycogen stores
  3. High volume of intramuscular mitochondria
  4. Splenic contraction
  5. Gait efficiency
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2
Q

What is the benefit of having max aerobic capacity in the athletic horse

A

It increases cardiac output, stroke volume and hemoglobin concentration which enhances the oxygenation of blood in the lung and supports a high metabolic rate

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3
Q

Why would you want an increased hemoglobin concentration

A

Because it increases the oxygen carrying capacity of blood

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4
Q

What fuels music contraction at high intensity (anaerobic) exercise

A

Glycogen

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5
Q

When does fatty acid oxidation became limited and carbohydrate stores recruited

A

At 40 - 60% VO2 max

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6
Q

What does vo2 max mean

A

The max oxygen the body uses during exercise

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7
Q

What is utilized when carbohydrate stores are used for oxygenation (which is why athletic horses have an advantage)

A

Glycogen

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8
Q

Oxidative capacity of the muscle is directly proportional to

A

The number of mitochondria per unit of muscle

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9
Q

What provides energy for muscle contraction und is critical for aerobic contraction

A

Mitochondria

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10
Q

Compare the amount of mitochondria in equine muscles to cow muscles

A

Equine muscle have 2x the amount of mitochondria than cattle due to work differences

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11
Q

What’s more efficient - aerobic metabolism or anaerobic metabolism

A

Aerobic metabolism

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12
Q

When does splenic contraction occur in horses

A

Before and during exercise

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13
Q

What is the benefit of splenic contraction

A

Increases circulating red cell mass (hemoglobin) without increasing plasma volume and increases oxygen carrying capacity of blood (by 50%)

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14
Q

What is critical for equine athletes muscle perfusion and performance during exercise

A

Splenic contraction because of the increased red cells and increased o2 carrying capacity

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15
Q

What gives the horse the ability to have a catapult like gait and decreases the size of the muscle

A

Stored elastic energy in muscles and muscle tendon units

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16
Q

Gait efficiency in horses allow for more work with less

A

Less muscle mass due to stored elastic energy

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17
Q

What is it called when thoroughbreds race long distances over brush like obstacles

A

Steeplechase

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18
Q

What type of injuries are often seen in steeple chase racing

A

High speed casualties and repetitive injuries from multiple compression cycles - seen often in thoroughbreds

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19
Q

Where are the injuries likely to be when galloping in races like steeplechases

A

Fetlock and carpus injuries common - max hyper per extension of carpus and fetlock particularly the right front because the right front bears all the weight

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20
Q

What horse breed does more of the trotting and pacing and why

A

Standardbreds - more heavily muscled, longer bodies, not as tall

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21
Q

Compare racing injuries between thoroughbreds and Standardbreds

A

Injuries usually less severe in Standardbreds compared to thoroughbreds because Standardbreds use a 2 beat gait, meaning less rotational forces that reduce the risk of overload injuries like the right front overweight bearing of the gallop done by thoroughbreds

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22
Q

What is the benefit of the 2 beat gaits done by standardbred trotters and pacers

A

More equal distribution of load which reduces the risk of overload injury, catastophic injuries, and long bone pathologies

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23
Q

What is a breakdown injury

A

Traumatic disruption of the suspensory apparatus

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24
Q

Slab or chip fractures happen usually at the -

A

Carpus

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25
Q

Stress fractures in race horses usually happen -

A

The pelvis

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26
Q

Soft tissue injury like superficial flexor tendanino ours because of what

A

Hyperextension of the fetlock and carpus like in thoroughbreds who are galloping and hyperextending

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27
Q

What is often second career injuries

A

Osteoarthritis

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28
Q

Dorsal metacarpal disease is also called

A

Bucked shins

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29
Q

What would you be thinking about if a pacer / trotter breaks his gait

A

Trey might be in pain or have a subtle lameness

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30
Q

What event is described as executing specific movements in a predetermined order and being judged based on rumor, collection, etc

A

Dressage

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31
Q

What type of horses perform dressage and what gait do they use

A

Any breed but usually warmbloods, walk, trots or canters but no gallops

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32
Q

What event types requires a lot of hind end engagement todo things like a canter pirouette

A

Dressage

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33
Q

What is the most common injury in dressage horses

A

Suspensory ligament desmitis (a soft tissue injury)

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34
Q

Where do dressage horses commonly get osteoarthritis

A

Hocks, fetlocks, coffins, cervical spine

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35
Q

Show jumpers are judged based on - and

A

Speed and accuracy

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36
Q

Snow hunters are judged based on - and -

A

Rhythm and quality of jumping style

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37
Q

Which horses are most often jumpers

A

Warmbloods and thoroughbreds

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38
Q

What forces affect jumpers

A

Vertical forces during takeoff and ground reaction forces on landing - increase as height increases

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39
Q

What limb bears the majority of the load when jumpers land

A

The trailing limb

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40
Q

Why would a horse with neck pain be a bad jumper

A

The rely on their neck for balance

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41
Q

Where are the common injuries with jumpers

A

Higher up where muscle turns into tendon - most common is superficial and deep digital flexor tendinitis

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42
Q

Where do jumpers tend to get osteoarthritis

A

Neck, hocks, coffin, stifle, fetlocks

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43
Q

What event type sees a lot of issues with pain - for example foot, back and sacroiliac pain

A

Jumpers

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44
Q

79% of injuries during an event occur on the - course

A

Cross country course -where the jump over natural solid obstacles

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45
Q

what are the 3 courses in eventing

A

Dressage, showjumping and cross country

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46
Q

What are 3 important qualities for an eventing horse to have and succeed

A

Cardiovascular fitness , stamina and endurance

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47
Q

Which horse breeds are western performance horses commonly

A

Quarter horses and paints

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48
Q

Describe the common look of western pleasure horses

A

Big bodies, heavily muscled, tiny feet

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49
Q

High speed, lateral movement, high end stressors describes what event type

A

Western performance horses

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50
Q

Why are there so many hind end stressors in wester performance horses

A

Sliding stops, quick spins and turns

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51
Q

What is the most common soft tissue injury in western performance horses

A

Stifles - CCL and meniscus

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52
Q

What are common injuries within the bone that affects western performance horses

A

Acute avulsion fractures of plantar process of P2 due to sliding stops and proximal P2 chip fractures

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53
Q

What horse breeds often participate in endurance races

A

Arabian horses

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54
Q
  • And - are most important in Arabian horses because of the long distances they have to travel over multiple days
A

Fitness and cardiovascular health

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55
Q

What is the most common injury seen in endurance horses

A

Metabolic injuries - dehydration, electrolyte loss, tying up

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56
Q

What is the terrible triad and which event horses experience it

A

Hock pain , foot soreness, and back pain experienced by endurance horses (Arabians)

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57
Q

What are genetic disorders in performance horses that can be affected by nutrition

A

HYPP, PSSM , equine metabolic syndrome

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58
Q

What are the 3 phases of the performance exam

A

Conformation, static /musculoskeletal, dynamic

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59
Q

Conformation of the horse should be evaluated with respect to that

A

Use of the horse

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60
Q

What is the thirds rule in the conformation part of the performance exam

A

Drop a vertical line from withers to the ground and then the sacroiliac to the ground to determine any asymmetries , the size of hindquarters, length of the neck to the back

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61
Q

How can you tell if a horse has a base narrow conformation

A

If you look at its limbs and drop a line down through the carpus, fetlock, pastern, etc and most of the limb is on the inside then it is a base narrow conformation

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62
Q

Which horses often have a base narrow conformation

A

Quarter horses because they are heavily muscled in their chests

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63
Q

If a horse is very straight in conformation from their hock to the hoof , what are you worried abat

A

Suspensory ligament problems (proximal suspensory dermatitis - psd)

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64
Q

What hock (straight hock) angle increases a horses risk for psd - proximal suspensory dermatitis

A

> 150 - 160 degrees

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65
Q

Sway back / thoracic lordosis is often seen in - horses

A

Aging horses - so if seen in young horses indicates a weak back

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66
Q

What is a very important thing to do in phase 2 of the performance exam (the static part)

A

Palpate the muscle separate from the bone - symmetry, pain , focal spasm

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67
Q

Where do you assess muscle during the performance exam

A

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar and pelvic regions

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68
Q

Why should you manipulate the axial skeleton motion during your static exam

A

To check range of motion, can they bend the neck, raise or lower it is there pain

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69
Q

What can you use to measure joint range of motion

A

Goniometry - can be used as a screening tool when rehabbing to assess ROM and symmetry

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70
Q

Define mechanical nociceptive threshold

A

Minimum pressure required to induce a pain response

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71
Q

What can you use to measure mechanical nociceptive threshold

A

Pressure algometer

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72
Q

What is part of the dynamic exam part of the performance exams

A

Evaluate in a straight line, circle, flexion tests to assess pain, stride lengths, etc.

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73
Q

What does a grade 4 lameness indicate

A

Lameness obvious at a walk

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74
Q

What does a lameness grade 3 indicate

A

Lameness obvious and consistent at a trot

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75
Q

What does aloneness grade 2 mean

A

Lameness apparent under certain circumstances - circling, under saddle,etc.

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76
Q

What on cause a slapping gait that t is obvious at a walk

A

Fibrotic myopathy - scar tissue over the semimembranosus and semitrndinosis

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77
Q

The weight of a rider can exacerbate _

A

Axial skeletal lameness

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78
Q

What could white hairs on the back of a horse indicate

A

Chronic sores from poor saddle fit which can eventually lead to scar tissue then chronic muscle pain

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79
Q

What do gait analysis system do

A

Objectively evaluate motion and identify asymmemy in sound or lame horse

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80
Q

What does kinetics study

A

Study of the forces that act on the body

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81
Q

What do kinematic study

A

Study of the description of motion

82
Q

What are the benefits of force plates

A

Measure peak vertical ground reaction forces which best tells lameness

83
Q

What is the mean vertical ground reaction force for a sound horse? How does that change in a lane horse

A

Sound horse is 10 N/kg, lame horse decreases 7% for every 0.5 difference in AAEP lameness

84
Q

A prepurchase exam is a - not as

A

Risk assessment exam, not a warranty

85
Q

The results of a pre purchase exam is the property of the -

A

Buyer

86
Q

Do you pass or fail a horse based On a prepurchase exam

A

No - give all info to buyer so they can decide

87
Q

What are the 4 parts of a prepurchase exam

A

Physical exam, musculoskeletal exam, movement evaluation, ancillary diagnostics

88
Q

What on a prepurchase exam would indicated need for endoscopy

A

Airway noise at rest or after exercise

89
Q

What is a big thing to check for in the gi part of a prepurchase exam

A

Previous colic surgery scar

90
Q

What are many performance horses at-risk for that you would look for on the GI part of a prepurchase exam? What are the signs

A

Gastric ulcers - look for abdominal pain on palpation, inability to gain weight (low bcs but good bcs), high stress (teeth grinding)

91
Q

How do you screen for gastric ulcers

A

Gastroscopy

92
Q

What are 6 tests that should be performed on a prepurchase exam

A

Coggins, CBC / chem, insulin (for equine metabolic syndrome), cushings, genetic testing for HYPP and PSSM and a drug screen

93
Q

What respiratory issues could cause an eventer to retire from racing

A

Laryngeal hemiplasia, EIPH, dorsal displacement of soft palate

94
Q

What injuries could cause an eventer to retire from racing

A

SDF tendinitis, carpal bone Chip fractures, first phalanx chip fractures

95
Q

What happens when you have disruption of the proprioceptive system

A

Ataxia

96
Q

What signs do you see with motor neuron disease

A

Muscle atrophy and weakness

97
Q

What are 3 Neuro signs that indicate locomotor abnormalities

A

Weakness, spasticity, ataxia

98
Q

What are the 2 parts of the somatic nervous system that are major indicators of problems in performance horses

A

Motor (paresis) and proprioception (ataxia)

99
Q

What could a horse with a stiff neck during gait indicate

A

Arthritis or pain - does not want to flex their neck

100
Q

What do you think of first in draft horses with poor performance

A

PSSM - polyscharide storage myopathy (inherited muscle disease causing pour performance, muscle atrophy)

101
Q

When performing the ortho exam , what should you palpate last

A

Neck and back - if paint will try to kick then will be angry

102
Q

How can you detect pain on the spinous processes

A

Apply lateral pressure to each individual process

103
Q

What could pain on palpation of spinous processes indicate

A

Kissing spines, infringement of joint space, arthritis, fracture, rib pain

104
Q

What are 4 causes of poor performance that you might’ve could identify with a cranial nerve exam

A

Visual dysfunction, airway disfunction, vestibular dysfunction, EPM (equine protozoal myeloencephalitis)

105
Q

What is EPM (equine protozoal myeloencephalitis)

A

The host opossum carries sporocysts and passes then in the feces, horses ingest contaminated feed or water and the sporocusts move from git to blood to brain - leads to ataxia, abnormal gait, weakness, muscle chrophy, paralysis of face muscles, etc

106
Q

Why should you test a horse over a curb or step

A

To check for stumbling and proproception

107
Q

Describe the static sway test in a neuro exam

A

Pull on tail and see resistance level

108
Q

What does it indicate if there is a failure to resist a static stay test? Dynamic sway test?

A

Lover motor neuron weakness if static, upper motor neuron if dynamic

109
Q

What ave no watching for with a circling test

A

Crossing over of legs, stepping on itself, pivoting

110
Q

Define ataxia

A

Uncoordinated movement that is not the result of muscle weakness

111
Q

What are the 3 classic signs of ataxia

A

Hypotonia, incoordination, intention tremors

112
Q

What and cause ataxia (3 general categories)

A

Sensory, vestibular, cerebella

113
Q

What are clinical signs of ataxia

A

Swaying of trunk or limbs, abduction or adduction when turning delayed movement of a limb

114
Q

What on exam would localize ataxia to a cervical problem

A

It the front limb was 1 grade less than the hindlimb

115
Q

What on exam would localize ataxia to C6 - T2

A

If the front limb was one grade higher than the hind limb

116
Q

What is the localization if the front and hind limbs are equally ataxic

A

Multifocal / diffuse

117
Q

What is the ataxic localization if the front limbs are normal but the hind limbs are ataxic

A

Sacral Or thoracolumbar

118
Q

What are signs of upper motor neuron dysfunction

A

Spasticity, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, minimal atrophy , no fasiculations - the muscles themselves are not weak

119
Q

What are signs of lover motor neuron distinction

A

Flaccid, decreased tone, reduced reflexes, atrophy, muscle fasculations - related to the loss of muscle strength due to an issue with the lower motor neurons

120
Q

Which tend to cause more weakness - UMN or LMN problems

A

LMN

121
Q

Where does UMN weakness come from

A

Originates due to decreased activation of lower motor neurons

122
Q

What are clinical signs of weakness

A

Dragging toes, stumbling or knuckling, muscle fascinations, pour response to the sway test

123
Q

Describe physic weakness in the performance horse

A

Weakness when walking suggests UMN lesion (an interruption of CMN input to lmn)

124
Q

Where will weakness occur with UNN lesions

A

Weakness occurs distal to site of UMN lesion

125
Q

Define spasticity

A

Condition of increased muscle tone and exaggerated reflexes when inhibitory effects of the UMN are removed

126
Q

Is the increased tone constant with spasticity

A

No - velocity dependent and will abruptly release

127
Q

What are clinical signs of spasticity

A

increased muscle tone, exaggerated extension of the limb (floating), excesses firm foot placement (spat end of step) I strides stiff and shortened

128
Q

What is a big differentiating factor between muscloskeletel causes and neurologic causes

A

Musculoskeletal deficits are more regular step to step near causes are more intermittent

129
Q

What should you do prior to exams to better differentiate between misclosteletel and Neuro deficits

A

Give NSAIDs 72 hard before exam

130
Q

What are articular facets

A

Flat surfaces on the vertebrae where 2 vertebrate articulate/meet

131
Q

What is benefit of a CT myelogram

A

Allows visualization of lateral compression

132
Q

A horse is having pain when trying to reach neck down to graze, is vey thin and in a downward dog stance. differential?

A

Cervical facet osteoarthritis

133
Q

What drugs are contraindicated if a horse has a previous history of laminitis

A

Corticosteroids

134
Q

What are common disorder of the foot/ pastern that we look for on rads

A

Osteoarthritis, enthesopathy, bone cysts, osteochondral fragments, navicular changes

135
Q

What should Normal bone look like on rads

A

Radiolucent medullary cavity, radio opaque cortex

136
Q

What changes to the bone could sclerosis cause on rads

A

The medullary cavity could be more opaque or the cortex could be thicker

137
Q

Enlarged circles within a radiopaque naval bone could indicate what

A

Enlarged vascular channels trying to increase vascular supply due to sclerosis

138
Q

What is sidebone

A

Collateral cartilage ossification

139
Q

What are you looking for on the fetlock rads

A

Osteoarthritis, entreseopathy, osteochondral fragments, palmar metacarpal disease, bone cysts

140
Q

What shard normal joints look like on rads

A

Smooth, landed edges, clear space all the way across the joint

141
Q

What are we looking for on rads of the carpus

A

Osteoarthritis, entresopathy , osteochandal fragments , slab fractures, bone cysts

142
Q

What changes to the hock are we looking for on rads

A

Osteoarthritis, entresopathy , tarsal bone sclerosis, osteochandal fragments , bone cysts

143
Q

What changes to the stifle are we looking for on rads

A

Osteoarthritis, enthesopathy, osteochandal fragments, bone cysts

144
Q

What changes to the back are we looking for on rads

A

Spinous process impingement (kissing spines) , articular facet osteoarthritis, vertebral spondylosis ,enthesopathy

145
Q

Define diarthrodial joint

A

Freely moving joint characterized by its mobility and joint cavity within a synovial membrane encased in the joint capsule

146
Q

What is the difference between articular facets and article processes of bone in axialskeleton

A

Articles facets - smooth flat areas for bone attachment
Articular processes - areas of provision off the bone for muscle attachment

147
Q

What view on rads would not be helpful to see compression of the spinal cord

A

Lateral view - but these will help you see if the the intervertebral foremen has been compromised (the space that the spinal cord travels between)

148
Q

What is the best rad to assess particular processes

A

Obliques

149
Q

What is the benefit of a cervical myelogram

A

To see if there is lateral compression of the spinal cord - looking for a 50% change in due column

150
Q

How is a CT myelogram performed

A

Under gen anesthesia with CT

151
Q

Is a thin or a thick joint capsule normal

A

Thin with little fluid

152
Q

What is me purpose of an acs injection

A

Ads is a blood product containing anti inflammatory proteins - used to treat early signs of osteoarthritis (like with cervical facet osteoarthrins)

153
Q

What is a grade I ataxia

A

Neuro deficits just detected at normal gait that worsen with backing, turning, loin pressure or neck extension

154
Q

What should you do next with a grade 1 ataxia

A

Rads, myelogram or CT myelogram: basically need to focus on imaging

155
Q

Define a fibrous joint and give an example

A

Fibrous joint is a fixed, immovable joint where collagenous fibrous connect tissue connects 2 bones and there is no joint cavity (an example is the sacroiliac joint between spine and hind legs)

156
Q

What ligament in the pelvic region often can get sore

A

Intertransverse ligament

157
Q

What 3 ligaments in the thoracolumbar region helps stabilize the vertebrae

A

Interspinous lig, ventral longitudinal lig and supraspinous ligament

158
Q

What 2 ligaments are found could to the sacroiliac joint

A

Dorsal sacroiliac ligament and the lateral sacroiliac ligament

159
Q

What ligament is found between the sacrum and the Tuber coxae

A

Lateral sacroiliac ligament

160
Q

Atrophy of the epaxial muscles indicates what

A

Chronic back pain /disease in the spinal area

161
Q

Will impinging spinous processes always be painful or cause lameness

A

No - often have this condition without signs and the severity on rads does not always match the horses behavior

162
Q

What are some possible signs of impinging spinous processes

A

Pain on palpation, resentant of heavy tack like surcingles, stiff back while working on lunge line and/or not bending neck

163
Q

How do you diagnose /work up suspected impinging spinous processes

A

Ortho exam, rads, ultrasound to assess soft tissue injuries, local block and saddle ridden exam, check saddle fit

164
Q

How do you treat spinous process impingement or kissing spines

A

If severe - surgically cut bone or cut the interspinous ligament , if mild - injectable steroids and rehab

165
Q

What is a grade 2 ataxia

A

Deficits easily seen at a walk, exaggerated by turns, backing up, etc

166
Q

What is a grade 3 ataxia

A

Deficits prominent at a walk tendency to buckle or fall with turning, neck extension, etc

167
Q

What is a grade 4 ataxia

A

Stumbling, tripping, falling at a normal gait

168
Q

What is a grade 5 ataxia

A

Recumbent horse

169
Q

How can HYPP (hypokalemic periodic paralysis) be affected by nutrition

A

Lower k+ in the diet can help manage this genetic disorder

170
Q

What is Hypp

A

Hyperkalenic periodic paralysis - genetic, sire impressive , episodes of muscles spasms and trembling

171
Q

What is pssm

A

Polysaccharide storage myopathy - increase glycogen in muscle leading to tying up, exertional rhabdomyalysis , progressive muscle atrophy; type I inherited , type 2idiopathic

172
Q

How can pssm be affected by nutrition

A

Limit dietary non structural carbohydrate intake to limit glycogen

173
Q

What is equine metabolic syndrome

A

Inappropriate insulin levels and increased fat deposition are to genetics but also environmental factors like obesity, high sugar diets , lack of exercise, etc

174
Q

How can equine metabolic syndrome be affected by nutrition

A

Low sugar diet, decrease non structural carbohydrate diets

175
Q

How could you identify EPM (equine protozoal myloencephalitis) on cranial nerve exam

A

Head hilt, nystagmus, paralysis of one side of face, muscle atrophy , toe dragging

176
Q

What is the slap test and what part of the exam does it fall under

A

Part of the neuro exam - the thorax area behind the withers on ore side is slapped 10 times and in response the contralateral arytenoid cartilage should addict (move inward) which would be seen endoscopically - this test assesses the laryngeal adductory reflex

177
Q

When would a slap test be indicated

A

To assess ataxia and spinal cord lesions in the horse

178
Q

What is the sway test - part of the neuro exam

A

Face horse, take tail and pull towards you , trying to pull horse off balance

179
Q

What is the purpose of tight circling in the dynamic neuro exam

A

Tight circles to examine hoof placement

180
Q

Why is it important to elevate the head during the dynamic neuro exam

A

See if there is increased stumbling, floating gait, see if the footfalls in pace gait

181
Q

What is the benefit of uphill walking in the dynamic neuro exam

A

Used to detect weakness and lameness

182
Q

What is the benefit of downhill walking for the dynamic neuro exam

A

Downhill key for detecting stumbling, hypermetrua and ataxia

183
Q

A static sway test is initiating a -

A

Muscle stretch response

184
Q

Weakness when walking suggests a- lesion and why

A

Upper motor neuron lesion - because there is interruption of the upper motor neuron input to the lower motor neuron

185
Q

Exaggerated extension of the limb can cause a - gait

A

Floating gait - like when the horse is moving downhill

186
Q

Excessive firm foot placement on had to what kind of gait

A

Slap at the end of the step

187
Q

If you had a floating gait, where wold you suspect the lesion may be

A

Upper motor neuron because the excessive extension of the limb indicates spasticity which is a sign of UMN dysfunction (specifically a lack of inhibitory control )

188
Q

Is OCD a neurologic problem

A

No - can confound neuro exam

189
Q

Define exertional rhabdomyalosis

A

Tying up - painful muscle contractions with exercise and skeletal muscle fiber necrosis

190
Q

What radiographic finding carriers a high risk for future soundress issues

A

Degenerative joint disease, especially with bore sclerosis , lysis, cartilage damage, intra articular fragmentation , fractures

191
Q

What increases the risk of future soundness if osseous cyst like lesions are present

A

If those osseous cyst lesions communicate with an articular surface and even more if there are degenerative changes in the joint

192
Q

What gives a better prognosis for OCD lesions

A

If found and treated before arthritis develops, some horses have OCD for life and no problems

193
Q

Describe the ideal eventer

A

Brave, safe jumpers with good gaits, speed and endurance

194
Q

What are potential red flags for eventers

A

Poor hoof/pastern conformation, back at the knee, poor epaxial musculature /pain, sundial effusion and ROM, suspensory ligament enlargement ‘ upper air way noise or murmurs

195
Q

What is the ideal dressage horse

A

Well balanced conformation and a strong hindend, well muscled , strong axial skeleton

196
Q

What are red flags for dressage horses

A

Small feet relative to body , poor epaxial muscle, distention of flexor tendon sheath, straight hind limb I dropped fetlocks I suspensory ligament enlargement

197
Q

What are potential red flags of western performance horses

A

Small feet compared to body, neurectomy scars / upright pastern and hindend, joint effusion, reduced ROM, suspensory ligament enlargement . upper airway noise

198
Q

What gait analysis system deals with 3 sensors and can measure over multiple surface types

A

Equinoses

199
Q

What gait analysis measures joint motion

A

Centaur

200
Q

What are the benefits of the dynanometric horse shoes

A

Measures ground reaction forces in successive strides, measured varied footing and varied movements

201
Q

Differentiate between the autonomic and somatic nerves systems

A

Autonomic - unconscious activities
Somatic - conscious activities

Equine Rehab (3 decks)

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