Exam 1 Flashcards

(201 cards)

1
Q

What are the 5 physiologic adaptations of the equine athlete

A
  1. Large maximal aerobic capacity
  2. Large intramuscular glycogen stores
  3. High volume of intramuscular mitochondria
  4. Splenic contraction
  5. Gait efficiency
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2
Q

What is the benefit of having max aerobic capacity in the athletic horse

A

It increases cardiac output, stroke volume and hemoglobin concentration which enhances the oxygenation of blood in the lung and supports a high metabolic rate

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3
Q

Why would you want an increased hemoglobin concentration

A

Because it increases the oxygen carrying capacity of blood

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4
Q

What fuels music contraction at high intensity (anaerobic) exercise

A

Glycogen

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5
Q

When does fatty acid oxidation became limited and carbohydrate stores recruited

A

At 40 - 60% VO2 max

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6
Q

What does vo2 max mean

A

The max oxygen the body uses during exercise

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7
Q

What is utilized when carbohydrate stores are used for oxygenation (which is why athletic horses have an advantage)

A

Glycogen

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8
Q

Oxidative capacity of the muscle is directly proportional to

A

The number of mitochondria per unit of muscle

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9
Q

What provides energy for muscle contraction und is critical for aerobic contraction

A

Mitochondria

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10
Q

Compare the amount of mitochondria in equine muscles to cow muscles

A

Equine muscle have 2x the amount of mitochondria than cattle due to work differences

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11
Q

What’s more efficient - aerobic metabolism or anaerobic metabolism

A

Aerobic metabolism

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12
Q

When does splenic contraction occur in horses

A

Before and during exercise

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13
Q

What is the benefit of splenic contraction

A

Increases circulating red cell mass (hemoglobin) without increasing plasma volume and increases oxygen carrying capacity of blood (by 50%)

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14
Q

What is critical for equine athletes muscle perfusion and performance during exercise

A

Splenic contraction because of the increased red cells and increased o2 carrying capacity

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15
Q

What gives the horse the ability to have a catapult like gait and decreases the size of the muscle

A

Stored elastic energy in muscles and muscle tendon units

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16
Q

Gait efficiency in horses allow for more work with less

A

Less muscle mass due to stored elastic energy

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17
Q

What is it called when thoroughbreds race long distances over brush like obstacles

A

Steeplechase

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18
Q

What type of injuries are often seen in steeple chase racing

A

High speed casualties and repetitive injuries from multiple compression cycles - seen often in thoroughbreds

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19
Q

Where are the injuries likely to be when galloping in races like steeplechases

A

Fetlock and carpus injuries common - max hyper per extension of carpus and fetlock particularly the right front because the right front bears all the weight

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20
Q

What horse breed does more of the trotting and pacing and why

A

Standardbreds - more heavily muscled, longer bodies, not as tall

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21
Q

Compare racing injuries between thoroughbreds and Standardbreds

A

Injuries usually less severe in Standardbreds compared to thoroughbreds because Standardbreds use a 2 beat gait, meaning less rotational forces that reduce the risk of overload injuries like the right front overweight bearing of the gallop done by thoroughbreds

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22
Q

What is the benefit of the 2 beat gaits done by standardbred trotters and pacers

A

More equal distribution of load which reduces the risk of overload injury, catastophic injuries, and long bone pathologies

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23
Q

What is a breakdown injury

A

Traumatic disruption of the suspensory apparatus

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24
Q

Slab or chip fractures happen usually at the -

A

Carpus

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25
Stress fractures in race horses usually happen -
The pelvis
26
Soft tissue injury like superficial flexor tendanino ours because of what
Hyperextension of the fetlock and carpus like in thoroughbreds who are galloping and hyperextending
27
What is often second career injuries
Osteoarthritis
28
Dorsal metacarpal disease is also called
Bucked shins
29
What would you be thinking about if a pacer / trotter breaks his gait
Trey might be in pain or have a subtle lameness
30
What event is described as executing specific movements in a predetermined order and being judged based on rumor, collection, etc
Dressage
31
What type of horses perform dressage and what gait do they use
Any breed but usually warmbloods, walk, trots or canters but no gallops
32
What event types requires a lot of hind end engagement todo things like a canter pirouette
Dressage
33
What is the most common injury in dressage horses
Suspensory ligament desmitis (a soft tissue injury)
34
Where do dressage horses commonly get osteoarthritis
Hocks, fetlocks, coffins, cervical spine
35
Show jumpers are judged based on - and
Speed and accuracy
36
Snow hunters are judged based on - and -
Rhythm and quality of jumping style
37
Which horses are most often jumpers
Warmbloods and thoroughbreds
38
What forces affect jumpers
Vertical forces during takeoff and ground reaction forces on landing - increase as height increases
39
What limb bears the majority of the load when jumpers land
The trailing limb
40
Why would a horse with neck pain be a bad jumper
The rely on their neck for balance
41
Where are the common injuries with jumpers
Higher up where muscle turns into tendon - most common is superficial and deep digital flexor tendinitis
42
Where do jumpers tend to get osteoarthritis
Neck, hocks, coffin, stifle, fetlocks
43
What event type sees a lot of issues with pain - for example foot, back and sacroiliac pain
Jumpers
44
79% of injuries during an event occur on the - course
Cross country course -where the jump over natural solid obstacles
45
what are the 3 courses in eventing
Dressage, showjumping and cross country
46
What are 3 important qualities for an eventing horse to have and succeed
Cardiovascular fitness , stamina and endurance
47
Which horse breeds are western performance horses commonly
Quarter horses and paints
48
Describe the common look of western pleasure horses
Big bodies, heavily muscled, tiny feet
49
High speed, lateral movement, high end stressors describes what event type
Western performance horses
50
Why are there so many hind end stressors in wester performance horses
Sliding stops, quick spins and turns
51
What is the most common soft tissue injury in western performance horses
Stifles - CCL and meniscus
52
What are common injuries within the bone that affects western performance horses
Acute avulsion fractures of plantar process of P2 due to sliding stops and proximal P2 chip fractures
53
What horse breeds often participate in endurance races
Arabian horses
54
- And - are most important in Arabian horses because of the long distances they have to travel over multiple days
Fitness and cardiovascular health
55
What is the most common injury seen in endurance horses
Metabolic injuries - dehydration, electrolyte loss, tying up
56
What is the terrible triad and which event horses experience it
Hock pain , foot soreness, and back pain experienced by endurance horses (Arabians)
57
What are genetic disorders in performance horses that can be affected by nutrition
HYPP, PSSM , equine metabolic syndrome
58
What are the 3 phases of the performance exam
Conformation, static /musculoskeletal, dynamic
59
Conformation of the horse should be evaluated with respect to that
Use of the horse
60
What is the thirds rule in the conformation part of the performance exam
Drop a vertical line from withers to the ground and then the sacroiliac to the ground to determine any asymmetries , the size of hindquarters, length of the neck to the back
61
How can you tell if a horse has a base narrow conformation
If you look at its limbs and drop a line down through the carpus, fetlock, pastern, etc and most of the limb is on the inside then it is a base narrow conformation
62
Which horses often have a base narrow conformation
Quarter horses because they are heavily muscled in their chests
63
If a horse is very straight in conformation from their hock to the hoof , what are you worried abat
Suspensory ligament problems (proximal suspensory dermatitis - psd)
64
What hock (straight hock) angle increases a horses risk for psd - proximal suspensory dermatitis
> 150 - 160 degrees
65
Sway back / thoracic lordosis is often seen in - horses
Aging horses - so if seen in young horses indicates a weak back
66
What is a very important thing to do in phase 2 of the performance exam (the static part)
Palpate the muscle separate from the bone - symmetry, pain , focal spasm
67
Where do you assess muscle during the performance exam
Cervical, thoracic, lumbar and pelvic regions
68
Why should you manipulate the axial skeleton motion during your static exam
To check range of motion, can they bend the neck, raise or lower it is there pain
69
What can you use to measure joint range of motion
Goniometry - can be used as a screening tool when rehabbing to assess ROM and symmetry
70
Define mechanical nociceptive threshold
Minimum pressure required to induce a pain response
71
What can you use to measure mechanical nociceptive threshold
Pressure algometer
72
What is part of the dynamic exam part of the performance exams
Evaluate in a straight line, circle, flexion tests to assess pain, stride lengths, etc.
73
What does a grade 4 lameness indicate
Lameness obvious at a walk
74
What does a lameness grade 3 indicate
Lameness obvious and consistent at a trot
75
What does aloneness grade 2 mean
Lameness apparent under certain circumstances - circling, under saddle,etc.
76
What on cause a slapping gait that t is obvious at a walk
Fibrotic myopathy - scar tissue over the semimembranosus and semitrndinosis
77
The weight of a rider can exacerbate _
Axial skeletal lameness
78
What could white hairs on the back of a horse indicate
Chronic sores from poor saddle fit which can eventually lead to scar tissue then chronic muscle pain
79
What do gait analysis system do
Objectively evaluate motion and identify asymmemy in sound or lame horse
80
What does kinetics study
Study of the forces that act on the body
81
What do kinematic study
Study of the description of motion
82
What are the benefits of force plates
Measure peak vertical ground reaction forces which best tells lameness
83
What is the mean vertical ground reaction force for a sound horse? How does that change in a lane horse
Sound horse is 10 N/kg, lame horse decreases 7% for every 0.5 difference in AAEP lameness
84
A prepurchase exam is a - not as
Risk assessment exam, not a warranty
85
The results of a pre purchase exam is the property of the -
Buyer
86
Do you pass or fail a horse based On a prepurchase exam
No - give all info to buyer so they can decide
87
What are the 4 parts of a prepurchase exam
Physical exam, musculoskeletal exam, movement evaluation, ancillary diagnostics
88
What on a prepurchase exam would indicated need for endoscopy
Airway noise at rest or after exercise
89
What is a big thing to check for in the gi part of a prepurchase exam
Previous colic surgery scar
90
What are many performance horses at-risk for that you would look for on the GI part of a prepurchase exam? What are the signs
Gastric ulcers - look for abdominal pain on palpation, inability to gain weight (low bcs but good bcs), high stress (teeth grinding)
91
How do you screen for gastric ulcers
Gastroscopy
92
What are 6 tests that should be performed on a prepurchase exam
Coggins, CBC / chem, insulin (for equine metabolic syndrome), cushings, genetic testing for HYPP and PSSM and a drug screen
93
What respiratory issues could cause an eventer to retire from racing
Laryngeal hemiplasia, EIPH, dorsal displacement of soft palate
94
What injuries could cause an eventer to retire from racing
SDF tendinitis, carpal bone Chip fractures, first phalanx chip fractures
95
What happens when you have disruption of the proprioceptive system
Ataxia
96
What signs do you see with motor neuron disease
Muscle atrophy and weakness
97
What are 3 Neuro signs that indicate locomotor abnormalities
Weakness, spasticity, ataxia
98
What are the 2 parts of the somatic nervous system that are major indicators of problems in performance horses
Motor (paresis) and proprioception (ataxia)
99
What could a horse with a stiff neck during gait indicate
Arthritis or pain - does not want to flex their neck
100
What do you think of first in draft horses with poor performance
PSSM - polyscharide storage myopathy (inherited muscle disease causing pour performance, muscle atrophy)
101
When performing the ortho exam , what should you palpate last
Neck and back - if paint will try to kick then will be angry
102
How can you detect pain on the spinous processes
Apply lateral pressure to each individual process
103
What could pain on palpation of spinous processes indicate
Kissing spines, infringement of joint space, arthritis, fracture, rib pain
104
What are 4 causes of poor performance that you might’ve could identify with a cranial nerve exam
Visual dysfunction, airway disfunction, vestibular dysfunction, EPM (equine protozoal myeloencephalitis)
105
What is EPM (equine protozoal myeloencephalitis)
The host opossum carries sporocysts and passes then in the feces, horses ingest contaminated feed or water and the sporocusts move from git to blood to brain - leads to ataxia, abnormal gait, weakness, muscle chrophy, paralysis of face muscles, etc
106
Why should you test a horse over a curb or step
To check for stumbling and proproception
107
Describe the static sway test in a neuro exam
Pull on tail and see resistance level
108
What does it indicate if there is a failure to resist a static stay test? Dynamic sway test?
Lover motor neuron weakness if static, upper motor neuron if dynamic
109
What ave no watching for with a circling test
Crossing over of legs, stepping on itself, pivoting
110
Define ataxia
Uncoordinated movement that is not the result of muscle weakness
111
What are the 3 classic signs of ataxia
Hypotonia, incoordination, intention tremors
112
What and cause ataxia (3 general categories)
Sensory, vestibular, cerebella
113
What are clinical signs of ataxia
Swaying of trunk or limbs, abduction or adduction when turning delayed movement of a limb
114
What on exam would localize ataxia to a cervical problem
It the front limb was 1 grade less than the hindlimb
115
What on exam would localize ataxia to C6 - T2
If the front limb was one grade higher than the hind limb
116
What is the localization if the front and hind limbs are equally ataxic
Multifocal / diffuse
117
What is the ataxic localization if the front limbs are normal but the hind limbs are ataxic
Sacral Or thoracolumbar
118
What are signs of upper motor neuron dysfunction
Spasticity, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, minimal atrophy , no fasiculations - the muscles themselves are not weak
119
What are signs of lover motor neuron distinction
Flaccid, decreased tone, reduced reflexes, atrophy, muscle fasculations - related to the loss of muscle strength due to an issue with the lower motor neurons
120
Which tend to cause more weakness - UMN or LMN problems
LMN
121
Where does UMN weakness come from
Originates due to decreased activation of lower motor neurons
122
What are clinical signs of weakness
Dragging toes, stumbling or knuckling, muscle fascinations, pour response to the sway test
123
Describe physic weakness in the performance horse
Weakness when walking suggests UMN lesion (an interruption of CMN input to lmn)
124
Where will weakness occur with UNN lesions
Weakness occurs distal to site of UMN lesion
125
Define spasticity
Condition of increased muscle tone and exaggerated reflexes when inhibitory effects of the UMN are removed
126
Is the increased tone constant with spasticity
No - velocity dependent and will abruptly release
127
What are clinical signs of spasticity
increased muscle tone, exaggerated extension of the limb (floating), excesses firm foot placement (spat end of step) I strides stiff and shortened
128
What is a big differentiating factor between muscloskeletel causes and neurologic causes
Musculoskeletal deficits are more regular step to step near causes are more intermittent
129
What should you do prior to exams to better differentiate between misclosteletel and Neuro deficits
Give NSAIDs 72 hard before exam
130
What are articular facets
Flat surfaces on the vertebrae where 2 vertebrate articulate/meet
131
What is benefit of a CT myelogram
Allows visualization of lateral compression
132
A horse is having pain when trying to reach neck down to graze, is vey thin and in a downward dog stance. differential?
Cervical facet osteoarthritis
133
What drugs are contraindicated if a horse has a previous history of laminitis
Corticosteroids
134
What are common disorder of the foot/ pastern that we look for on rads
Osteoarthritis, enthesopathy, bone cysts, osteochondral fragments, navicular changes
135
What should Normal bone look like on rads
Radiolucent medullary cavity, radio opaque cortex
136
What changes to the bone could sclerosis cause on rads
The medullary cavity could be more opaque or the cortex could be thicker
137
Enlarged circles within a radiopaque naval bone could indicate what
Enlarged vascular channels trying to increase vascular supply due to sclerosis
138
What is sidebone
Collateral cartilage ossification
139
What are you looking for on the fetlock rads
Osteoarthritis, entreseopathy, osteochondral fragments, palmar metacarpal disease, bone cysts
140
What shard normal joints look like on rads
Smooth, landed edges, clear space all the way across the joint
141
What are we looking for on rads of the carpus
Osteoarthritis, entresopathy , osteochandal fragments , slab fractures, bone cysts
142
What changes to the hock are we looking for on rads
Osteoarthritis, entresopathy , tarsal bone sclerosis, osteochandal fragments , bone cysts
143
What changes to the stifle are we looking for on rads
Osteoarthritis, enthesopathy, osteochandal fragments, bone cysts
144
What changes to the back are we looking for on rads
Spinous process impingement (kissing spines) , articular facet osteoarthritis, vertebral spondylosis ,enthesopathy
145
Define diarthrodial joint
Freely moving joint characterized by its mobility and joint cavity within a synovial membrane encased in the joint capsule
146
What is the difference between articular facets and article processes of bone in axialskeleton
Articles facets - smooth flat areas for bone attachment Articular processes - areas of provision off the bone for muscle attachment
147
What view on rads would not be helpful to see compression of the spinal cord
Lateral view - but these will help you see if the the intervertebral foremen has been compromised (the space that the spinal cord travels between)
148
What is the best rad to assess particular processes
Obliques
149
What is the benefit of a cervical myelogram
To see if there is lateral compression of the spinal cord - looking for a 50% change in due column
150
How is a CT myelogram performed
Under gen anesthesia with CT
151
Is a thin or a thick joint capsule normal
Thin with little fluid
152
What is me purpose of an acs injection
Ads is a blood product containing anti inflammatory proteins - used to treat early signs of osteoarthritis (like with cervical facet osteoarthrins)
153
What is a grade I ataxia
Neuro deficits just detected at normal gait that worsen with backing, turning, loin pressure or neck extension
154
What should you do next with a grade 1 ataxia
Rads, myelogram or CT myelogram: basically need to focus on imaging
155
Define a fibrous joint and give an example
Fibrous joint is a fixed, immovable joint where collagenous fibrous connect tissue connects 2 bones and there is no joint cavity (an example is the sacroiliac joint between spine and hind legs)
156
What ligament in the pelvic region often can get sore
Intertransverse ligament
157
What 3 ligaments in the thoracolumbar region helps stabilize the vertebrae
Interspinous lig, ventral longitudinal lig and supraspinous ligament
158
What 2 ligaments are found could to the sacroiliac joint
Dorsal sacroiliac ligament and the lateral sacroiliac ligament
159
What ligament is found between the sacrum and the Tuber coxae
Lateral sacroiliac ligament
160
Atrophy of the epaxial muscles indicates what
Chronic back pain /disease in the spinal area
161
Will impinging spinous processes always be painful or cause lameness
No - often have this condition without signs and the severity on rads does not always match the horses behavior
162
What are some possible signs of impinging spinous processes
Pain on palpation, resentant of heavy tack like surcingles, stiff back while working on lunge line and/or not bending neck
163
How do you diagnose /work up suspected impinging spinous processes
Ortho exam, rads, ultrasound to assess soft tissue injuries, local block and saddle ridden exam, check saddle fit
164
How do you treat spinous process impingement or kissing spines
If severe - surgically cut bone or cut the interspinous ligament , if mild - injectable steroids and rehab
165
What is a grade 2 ataxia
Deficits easily seen at a walk, exaggerated by turns, backing up, etc
166
What is a grade 3 ataxia
Deficits prominent at a walk tendency to buckle or fall with turning, neck extension, etc
167
What is a grade 4 ataxia
Stumbling, tripping, falling at a normal gait
168
What is a grade 5 ataxia
Recumbent horse
169
How can HYPP (hypokalemic periodic paralysis) be affected by nutrition
Lower k+ in the diet can help manage this genetic disorder
170
What is Hypp
Hyperkalenic periodic paralysis - genetic, sire impressive , episodes of muscles spasms and trembling
171
What is pssm
Polysaccharide storage myopathy - increase glycogen in muscle leading to tying up, exertional rhabdomyalysis , progressive muscle atrophy; type I inherited , type 2idiopathic
172
How can pssm be affected by nutrition
Limit dietary non structural carbohydrate intake to limit glycogen
173
What is equine metabolic syndrome
Inappropriate insulin levels and increased fat deposition are to genetics but also environmental factors like obesity, high sugar diets , lack of exercise, etc
174
How can equine metabolic syndrome be affected by nutrition
Low sugar diet, decrease non structural carbohydrate diets
175
How could you identify EPM (equine protozoal myloencephalitis) on cranial nerve exam
Head hilt, nystagmus, paralysis of one side of face, muscle atrophy , toe dragging
176
What is the slap test and what part of the exam does it fall under
Part of the neuro exam - the thorax area behind the withers on ore side is slapped 10 times and in response the contralateral arytenoid cartilage should addict (move inward) which would be seen endoscopically - this test assesses the laryngeal adductory reflex
177
When would a slap test be indicated
To assess ataxia and spinal cord lesions in the horse
178
What is the sway test - part of the neuro exam
Face horse, take tail and pull towards you , trying to pull horse off balance
179
What is the purpose of tight circling in the dynamic neuro exam
Tight circles to examine hoof placement
180
Why is it important to elevate the head during the dynamic neuro exam
See if there is increased stumbling, floating gait, see if the footfalls in pace gait
181
What is the benefit of uphill walking in the dynamic neuro exam
Used to detect weakness and lameness
182
What is the benefit of downhill walking for the dynamic neuro exam
Downhill key for detecting stumbling, hypermetrua and ataxia
183
A static sway test is initiating a -
Muscle stretch response
184
Weakness when walking suggests a- lesion and why
Upper motor neuron lesion - because there is interruption of the upper motor neuron input to the lower motor neuron
185
Exaggerated extension of the limb can cause a - gait
Floating gait - like when the horse is moving downhill
186
Excessive firm foot placement on had to what kind of gait
Slap at the end of the step
187
If you had a floating gait, where wold you suspect the lesion may be
Upper motor neuron because the excessive extension of the limb indicates spasticity which is a sign of UMN dysfunction (specifically a lack of inhibitory control )
188
Is OCD a neurologic problem
No - can confound neuro exam
189
Define exertional rhabdomyalosis
Tying up - painful muscle contractions with exercise and skeletal muscle fiber necrosis
190
What radiographic finding carriers a high risk for future soundress issues
Degenerative joint disease, especially with bore sclerosis , lysis, cartilage damage, intra articular fragmentation , fractures
191
What increases the risk of future soundness if osseous cyst like lesions are present
If those osseous cyst lesions communicate with an articular surface and even more if there are degenerative changes in the joint
192
What gives a better prognosis for OCD lesions
If found and treated before arthritis develops, some horses have OCD for life and no problems
193
Describe the ideal eventer
Brave, safe jumpers with good gaits, speed and endurance
194
What are potential red flags for eventers
Poor hoof/pastern conformation, back at the knee, poor epaxial musculature /pain, sundial effusion and ROM, suspensory ligament enlargement ' upper air way noise or murmurs
195
What is the ideal dressage horse
Well balanced conformation and a strong hindend, well muscled , strong axial skeleton
196
What are red flags for dressage horses
Small feet relative to body , poor epaxial muscle, distention of flexor tendon sheath, straight hind limb I dropped fetlocks I suspensory ligament enlargement
197
What are potential red flags of western performance horses
Small feet compared to body, neurectomy scars / upright pastern and hindend, joint effusion, reduced ROM, suspensory ligament enlargement . upper airway noise
198
What gait analysis system deals with 3 sensors and can measure over multiple surface types
Equinoses
199
What gait analysis measures joint motion
Centaur
200
What are the benefits of the dynanometric horse shoes
Measures ground reaction forces in successive strides, measured varied footing and varied movements
201
Differentiate between the autonomic and somatic nerves systems
Autonomic - unconscious activities Somatic - conscious activities