Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How is Chronic Illness defined?

A

All impairments or deviations from normal which have one or more of the following characteristics:

Are permanent
Leave residual disability
Are caused by nonreversible pathological alteration
Require special training of the patient for rehabilitation
Expected to require a long period of supervision or care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 3 general features of chronic illness.

A

-Symptoms interfere with many normal activities and routines
-Medical regimen is limited in its effectiveness
-Treatment contributes substantially to disruption of usual patterns of living

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SIGECAPS (for depression) Pneumonic

A

Sleep: insomnia or hypersomnia
Interest: reduced, with loss of pleasure
Guilt: often unrealistic
Energy: mental and physical fatigue
Concentration: distractibility, memory disturbance, indecisiveness
Appetite: decreased or increased
Psychomotor: retardation or agitation
Suicide: thoughts, plans, behavior’s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Theory of Self-Care of Chronic Illness

A

-There are difference between general self-care and self-care as it applies to chronic illness
-In order to make a decision, one must have sufficient capacity to understand and weigh information
-Increased conflict arises when trying to incorporate advice from multiple providers
-Self-care monitoring
-Previous experiences with illness or caring for someone with similar illness
-Self-care should be reflective and purposeful
-Misunderstandings, misconceptions, and lack of knowledge contribute to insufficient self-care
-Mastery of self-care maintenance is needed to master self0care management
-Self-care monitoring for changes in signs and symptoms is necessary for self-care management
-Individuals who perform evidence based self-care have better outcomes

Intended Outcomes
-Illness stability, health, well-being, quality of life
-Awareness of perceived control over illness and decreased anxiety

Growing body of literature suggests…
-Self-care can decrease hospitalizations, cost, and mortality
-Self-care can also allow for a sense of denial and failure to seek help, guilt

Factors affecting self-care
-experience and skill
-motivation
-cultural beliefs and values
-confidence
-habits
-functional and cognitive abilities
-support from others
-access to care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Theory of Self-Care of Chronic Illness (summary)

A

Self-care is essential in the management of chronic illness, but the process of engaging in self-care is more complex than originally thought. We define self-care as a process of maintaining health through health promoting practices and managing illness. We divide the process into three interrelated elements labeled as;
*self-care maintenance,
*self-care monitoring, and
*self-care management.

Self-care maintenance, performed in healthy and illness states, involves all those behaviors used to keep oneself healthy – getting a good night sleep, taking prescribed medication, exercise, etc.

Self-care monitoring is a process of routine, vigilant body monitoring, surveillance, or “body listening”.

Self-care management involves an evaluation of changes in physical and emotional signs and symptoms to determine if action is needed. These changes may be due to illness, treatment, or the environment.

https://nursology.net/nurse-theories/theory-of-self-care-of-chronic-illness/#:~:text=Theory%20of%20self-care%20of%20chronic%20illness%201%20Authors%3A,Riegel%2C%20PhD%2C%20RN%2C%20FAAN%20Tiny%20Jaarsma%2C%20PhD%20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The Chronic Illness Trajectory Framework (summary)

A

The Chronic Illness Trajectory Framework is a conceptual model that describes the course of chronic conditions over time.

The framework is built around the idea that chronic illness is dynamic and therefore requires phases to address the disease evolution.

The Corbin and Strauss Chronic Illness Trajectory Framework consists of six steps, including;

identifying the trajectory phase,

identifying problems and

establishing goals,

establishing plans to meet goals,

identifying factors that facilitate or hinder attainment of goals,

implementing interventions, and

evaluating the effectiveness of interventions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Wagner’s Chronic Care Model (summary)

A

The Wagner Model for chronic illness is a framework that helps to manage chronic conditions through a more collaborative approach. It was created by Wagner to improve the effectiveness of chronic care and to prevent complications. The model recommends linkages across different settings, services, and systems, as well as self-management support and flexible delivery models of care.

The Wagner Chronic Care Model is a framework that helps improve the quality of care for patients with chronic conditions.

It involves six elements;

community resources,

health system,

self-management support,

delivery system design,

decision support, and

clinical information systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Geriatric goals

A

Improvement in function (not cure for disease or disability).

Traditional problem-focused assessment is not effective because of multiple, complex needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Geri immunizations

A

-Influenza 65+ annually
-Pneumococcal q 5 years for 65+ who are immunocompromised
-COVID
-Shingrix
-Tetanus q 10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Traditional geriatric general health assessment

A

Should be supplemented by briefly screening for common geriatric conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dementia definition

A

Global impairment of cognitive function that interferes with normal activities.

Impaired short-term memory

Deficits in abstract thinking, judgement, speech, coordination, planning, or organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Other possible causes of dementia

A

-Depression
-Delirium
-Medications
-Infections
-Other co-existing medical conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ADHD evaluation includes

A

medical, developmental, educational, and psychological evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ADHD

A

-May require several office visits
-For any child who is 4y-18y that exhibits academic or behavioral problems and symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, or impulsivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tool to eval and monitor for ADHD

A

-Child Behavior Checklist

-Connors/Connors short version

-ADHD 5

-**Vanderbilt (VERY common in primary care)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diagnostic criteria for ADHD for children </ 17 years

A

> / 6 symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity or

> / 6 symptoms of inattention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diagnostic criteria for adolescents >/ 17 years and adults

A

> / 5 symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity or

> / 5 symptoms of inattention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity

A

-Excessive fidgetiness
-Difficulty remaining seated when sitting is required
-Feelings of restlessness (in adolescents) or inappropriate running around or climbing in younger children
-Difficulty playing quietly
-Difficult to keep up with, seeming to always be “on the go”
-Excessive talkming
-Difficulty waiting turns
-Blurting out answers too quickly
-Interruption or intrusion of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Symptoms of inattention

A

-Failure to provide close attention to detail, careless mistakes
-Difficulty maintaining attention in play, school, or home activities
-Seems to not listen, even when directly addressed
-Fails to follow through
-Difficulty organizing tasks, activities, and belongings
-Avoids tasks that require consistent mental effort
-Loses objects required for tasks or activities
-Easily distracted by irrelevant stimuli
-Forgetfulness in routine activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

According to DSM-5 criteria ADHD symptoms must

A

-occur often
-***be present in more than one setting
-persist for at least 6 months
-Be present before the age of 12 years
-Impair function in academic, social, or occupational activities
-Be excessive for the developmental level of the child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Non-Modifiable Risk Factors for Chronic Diseases

A

Older age
Heredity
Race
Ethnicity
Socioeconomic
Cultural
Political
Environmental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Modifiable Risk Factors

A

Unhealthy diet
Lack of exercise
Obesity
Tobacco use
Excessive Alcohol Intake
80% of heart disease, stroke, and diabetes could be
prevented and 40% of cancers are avoidable with
risk factor modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ADHD (boys v girls)

A

-Boys are more than twice as likely as girls to receive an ADHD diagnosis

-Boys are more likely to exhibit externalizing behaviors such as oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder

-Girls are more likely to exhibit an internalizing condition such as anxiety or depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ADHD treatment (peds)

A

-Offer info regarding local support groups if avail

-Treatment may involve; behavioral interventions, medication, school based interventions, or psychological interventions alone or in combination.

-Children ages 4-18 WITHOUT comorbid conditions CAN be managed by their PCP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ADHD (peds) first line treatment

A

-behavior management
-classroom interventions
-methylphenidate (stimulant) if behavioral interventions do not provide significant improvement and the child continues to have serious problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Methylphenidate / stimulants (What to monitor)

A

-ECG and peds cardiac consult if fam hx or has cardiac disease
-height (monitor for height suppression)
-weight (can cause appetite suppression)
-BP & HR
-tics
-no lab monitoring required
-Vanderbilt scores, grades, comorbidities, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Methylphenidate brand names

A

-short acting (3-6 hrs);
Focalin, Methylin, Ritalin
-intermediate acting (6-8 hrs);
Metadate CD, Ritalin LA
-long acting (8-12 hrs);
Concerta, Daytrana, Focalin XR, Quillvant XR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Non-stimulant medications for ADHD

A

-Straterra (Atomoxetine)
-box warning: increased risk of suicidal ideation

-Alpha-2 Adrenergic agonists (Clonidine, Guanfacine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When assessing for depressive disorders in children in teens, always consider…

A

bipolar disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Major Depressive Disorder

A

5 or more of the following symptoms during the same 2 week period and represent a change from previous functioning;
-At least one symptom is either depressed mood or loss of interest or pleasure
-Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day (in children, can be irritable mood)
* Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all activities, most of the day,
nearly every day
* Significant weight loss or gain or decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day (in
children, consider failure to make expected weight gain)
* Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day
* Psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day
* Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day
* Feelings of daily worthlessness or excessive guilt
* Diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness, nearly every day
* Recurrent thoughts of death (not just fear of dying), recurrent suicidal ideation without
a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or a specific plan for committing suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the third leading cause of death in 10 to 24 year olds?

A

suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(T or F) The United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends screening for major depressive disorder (MDD) in adolescents aged 12 to 18 years

A

True

We would use the *PHQ-9 (ages 12 - 18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Should ALL depressed individuals be screened for suicide?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

labs for depression

A

TSH, FT4, CBC with diff, vit D, vit B12, urine tox, pregnancy test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

First line treatment for moderate or severe depression not responding to therapy

A

SSRIs (Prozac, Zoloft, Celexa, Luvox, Lexapro)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How long does it take to see a positive effect for someone taking a SSRI?

A

4 - 6 weeks
(trial should be for at least 8 - 12 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the only medication approved by the FDA for use in treating depression for children 8 years old and older?

A

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Common side effects of SSRIs

A

+ Excitation/agitation
+ Nausea/vomiting
+ Diarrhea
+ Dizziness
+ Chills
**Always educate regarding risks of serotonin syndrome (e.g.
agitation, insomnia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

SSRI black box warning

A

increased risk of suicidal tendencies in young people (up to 25 years old)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Follow up after SSRI is started

A

2 - 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Anxiety diagnosis DSM-5

A

excessive anxiety and worry occurring more days than not for at least 6 months about a number of events or activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Anxiety screening

A

SCARED (starting at ages 4/5 up to age 11)
GAD-7 for ages 12 and up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Acute stress disorder

A

+ beginning /worsening after the traumatic event occurred
+ 3 days – 1 month after event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

PTSD

A

duration more than a month, delayed expression – criteria not met until 6
months after the event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Adjustment disorder

A

+ symptoms resulting from identifiable event ‐ occurring within 3 months –
delayed onset‐ more than 3 months, prolonged expression more than 6
months

46
Q

Autism criteria

A

Communication, Interaction
* Deficits in social-emotional
reciprocity (being aware of
cues in others)
* Deficits in non-verbal
communication
* Deficits in relationships
*ALL THREE

Behaviors
* Repetitive movements, use of
objects or speech
* Inflexibility, rituals
* Restricted interests
* Sensory hyper or hypo
reactivity
*AT LEAST TWO

47
Q

Anxiety management (pharmacologic)

A

(continue for at least 6 months)

-SSRIs-useful when anxiety is combined with depression (allow 3-5 weeks for effect)
paroxetine (Paxil) 5-10 mg/D
fluoxetine (Prozac) 10 mg/D
sertraline (Zoloft) 25 md/D
Titrate at 1-2 week intervals

-buspirone (BuSpar) anxiety without depression
5-10 mg/BID (has low abuse potential)

-Benzodiazepines quick onset of therapeutic effect
should not be taken with alcohol must taper off drug

-Refer for psychiatric evaluation if initial treatment is not successful

48
Q

Schizophrenia

A

One theory suggests may be caused by excess dopamine in the body

Studies of genetic vulnerability for schizophrenia have
linked certain genes to increased risk for psychosis and
particularly for adolescents who use cannabinoids

49
Q

What is the goal with Geriatric Chronic Issues?

A

Improvement in function, rather than a cure for
disability, is often the goal.

50
Q

What medication combo shows the best efficacy and acceptability for unipolar major depression?

A

escitalopram and sertraline

51
Q

What antidepressant is least likely to cause a manic switch?

A

buproprion

52
Q

How do ADHD stimulants work in the brain?

A

Increase dopamine and norepinephrine in the synapse which enhances the activity in the prefrontal cortex of the brain responsible for attention, focus, and executive function

53
Q

SSRIs for treatment of Major Depressive Disorder (peds)

A

Citalopram (Celexa)
SD 5 mg
10-20mg

Sertraline (Zoloft)
SD 12.5-25mg
50-100mg

Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
SD 25mg
50-200mg

**Fluoxetine (Prozac)
SD 5 mg
10-20mg

Escitalopram (Lexapro)
SD 5 mg
10mg

54
Q

A patient presents with symptoms ranging from major depression to hypomania what type of bipolar is this?

A

Bipolar Type 2

55
Q

When do anxiety disorders first present?

A

Anxiety disorders first present prior to puberty and are arguably the most common psychiatric disorder in children.

56
Q

GINA treatment ages 6 - 11

A

-STEP 1 - Low dose ICS taken whenever SABA taken (Qvar 40 for example)
Consider daily low dose ICS Asthma medication options: Adjust treatment up and down for individual child’s needs

STEP 2 - Daily low dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) (see table of ICS dose ranges for children)
Daily leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) (such as chewable Singulair 5mg), Or low dose ICS taken whenever SABA taken

STEP 3 - Low dose ICS-LABA, OR medium dose ICS, OR very low dose*ICS-formoterol maintenance and reliever (MART)

STEP 4 - Medium dose ICS-LABA ,OR low dose† ICS-formoterol maintenance and reliever therapy (MART).
Refer for expert advice.

STEP 5 - Refer for phenotypic testing and expert advice
(Biologics such as Tezspire, Dupixent are used in patients over age 12 . They target different molecules in the body that contribute to asthma)

57
Q

DIGFAST

A

D - Distractibility
I - Insomnia
G - Grandiosity
F - Flight of Ideas
A - Activity
S - Speech
T - Thoughtlessness

58
Q

What are the 3 elements in elder abuse?

A

The abuser
The abused elderly
The social context (the relationship between the two).

59
Q

A patient presents with symptoms ranging from Mild depression to Hypomania what type of bipolar is this?

A

Cyclothymia

60
Q

A patient presents with symptoms ranging from Major depression to Mania what type of bipolar is this?

A

Bipolar Type 1

61
Q

A screening tools that is used for anxiety (General Anxiety Disorder), PTSD, Panic Disorder, Social Phobia 12 years and up.

A

GAD-7

62
Q

What screening tool would be used to assess for anxiety in children age 4-11 years old?

A

SCARED

63
Q

What screening tool would be used to assess for anxiety in children age 12 and up?

A

GAD-7

64
Q

What is the most common psychiatric disorder in children?

A

Anxiety

65
Q

Recommended vaccinations for patients diagnosed w COPD (GOLD report)

A

COVID
influenza
pneumococcal
pertussis

66
Q

COPD definition

A

Lung condition characterized by
Chronic respiratory symptoms
Dyspnea, cough, sputum production, and/or exacerbation due to abnormalities of the airways and/or alveoli that cause *persistent airway obstruction

67
Q

What is required for COPD diagnosis?

A

Forced spirometry (FEV1/FVC < 0.7)

68
Q

How does depression present in younger children?

A

Irritability (rather than sad)

69
Q

What do we need to monitor for especially with Citalopram?

A

QT interval (use escitalopram instead)

70
Q

What do we do with a patient who present with anxiety AND depression?

A

Try to treat what came first

71
Q

Common side effects of SSRIs

A

Excitation/agitation
Nausea/vomiting
Diarrhea
Dizziness
Chills
**Always educate regarding risks of serotonin syndrome (e.g. agitation, insomnia)

72
Q

Why do we NOT want to stop Wellbutrin abruptly?

A

seizure threshold

73
Q

What are the later symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

A

Myoclonus
Seizures
Hyperthermia
Uncontrolled Shivering
Muscle rigidity

74
Q

If left untreated what can serotonin syndrome lead to?

A

Delirium
Coma
Cardiovascular collapse
Death

75
Q

What is the treatment for serotonin syndrome?

A

Immediate cessation of offending drugs and supportive intervention.
Mild - D/C meds, stabilize vitals, and use benzodiazepines.
Moderate - use cyproheptadine (antidote).
Severe - admit to ICU for possible intubation.

76
Q

What is the underlying cause of CF?

A

Autosomal recessive gene

76
Q

What population is CF most seen in?

A

Eastern Europeans and Caucasians

77
Q

A young adult is admitted with manifestations associated with cystic fibrosis. What should the nurse expect to find when collecting data from this patient?

A

Manifestations include; finger clubbing, malnutrition (low BMI), thick sputum production, and frequent foul smelling stools.

77
Q

What does a newborn screening for CF entail?

A

Lab work - immunoreactive trypsinogen or F508del

78
Q

A patient with cystic fibrosis has ineffective airway clearance. What intervention would worsen this problem?

A

Bedrest (movement helps mobilize secretion)

78
Q

If the newborn screening for CF is positive what is the next test to evaluate?

A

Sweat chloride test

79
Q

Buproprion

A

has less of a sexual dysfunction/uninterest side effect, is also the least likely to cause manic switch

80
Q

What are the sweat chloride test ranges for CF?

A

+ greater than 60
indeterminant 31-59
- less than or equal to 30

80
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who has long standing asthma and stable angina. Which medication can the nurse safely provide to the patient?
(options are;
Pindolol/Visken, Nadolol/Corgard, Atenolol/Tenormin, Propranolol/Indural)

A

With asthma and COPD, nonselective beta blockers are avoided because of bronchoconstriction. Metoprolol and Atenolol are more cardioselective and are used with asthma.

(other options are non cardioselective)

81
Q

While providing care to a patient with asthma, the nurse notes the patients shoulders are rising with each breath. What should the nurse recognize this action represents?

A

The use of accessory muscles to aid breathing

82
Q

What organs are commonly involved in CF?

A

Lungs
Intestines
Stomach
Pancreas

82
Q

Asthma is characterized by

A

inflammation of the mucosal lining of the bronchial tree and spasm of the smooth muscles (bronchospasm)

83
Q

What medications for CF?

A

CFTR modulators
Pancreatic Enzymes (Creon)
Water Soluble vitamins
Folate
Biotin

83
Q

The nurse is providing routine follow-up care for a young adult with asthma who has been on a 3 month course of maintenance therapy. Which activity would best help the nurse to determine if the patients treatment plan was effective?

A

Examine daily tracking records of peak expiratory flow rate

84
Q

What are surgical options to improve outcomes for CF?

A

Lung transplant
Liver transplant
Pancreas transplant

84
Q

A patient prescribed theophylline for asthma has a theophylline level of 3 mcg/dL. What should the nurse do?

A

A therapeutic theophylline level is 10-20 mcg/mL. The physician should be notified.

85
Q

What are 2 important questions to ask when assessing history of asthma?

A

History of Er visits, hospitalizations, or mechanical ventilation.
Need for systemic or oral corticosteroids.

85
Q

What skin conditions would you want to assess for in a pt with asthma?

A

Atopic dermatitis or eczema

86
Q

What is the first line treatment for asthma?

A

Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)

87
Q

What are the 4 levels of asthma?

A

Intermittent
Mild Persistent
Moderate Persistent
Severe Persistent

88
Q

What are the Peak Flow zones?

A

Controlled (green zone) >80% of predicted personal best.
Not well controlled (yellow zone) 60-80% of predicted personal best.
Very poorly controlled(red zone) ,60% predicted personal best.

89
Q

3 most common bacterial etiologies in COPD?

A

Streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis

90
Q

What does GET stand for and what is it indicative of?

A

G - Gene
E - Environment
T - Interactions occurring over a Lifetime

This is significant for the cause of COPD.

92
Q

What is a genetic cause of COPD?

A

Alfa1 antitrypsin deficiency

94
Q

PHQ-9 for depression ages 12 and up ranges?

A

1-4 points minimal depression
5-9 points mild depression
10-14 points moderate depression
15-19 points moderately sever depression
20-27 points severe depression

99
Q

GAD7 for anxiety ages 12 and up ranges?

A

0-4 minimal anxiety
5-9 mild anxiety
10-14 moderate anxiety
15-21 severe anxiety

100
Q

Symptoms of Anxiety in children must have 3.

A

Restlessness
Easily fatigued
difficulty concentrating
Irritability
Muscle tension
Sleep disturbance
Impairment in the Childs day to day functioning, socially, academically, or at home.

101
Q

What ages do we screen for Autism?

A

18 and 24 months.

102
Q

What screening tool do we use for Autism?

A

MCHAT

103
Q

Evaluation for possible ADHD should include what 4 elements?

A

Medical
Developmental
Educational
Psychosocial

104
Q

GINA (track 1) Step 3

*RELIEVER: As needed low-dose ICS-formoterol

A

Low-dose maintenance ICS-formoterol

105
Q

GINA (track 1) Step 4

*RELIEVER: As needed low-dose ICS-formoterol

A

Medium dose ICS-formoterol

106
Q

GINA (track 1) Step 5

*RELIEVER: As needed low-dose ICS-formoterol

A

Add on LAMA

Refer for assessment of phenotype

Consider high dose ICS_formoterol, +-anti-IgE, anti-IL5/5R, anti-IL4R, anti-TSLP

107
Q
A
108
Q
A
109
Q

At what ages and what types of presentations should ADHD screening be done?

A

Ages 4-18
Academic or Behavioral problems
Symptoms of inattention
Hyperactivity
Impulsivity

110
Q
A