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Prevention & Care Of Athletic Injuries > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does NATA stand for?

A

National Athletic Trainers’ Association

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2
Q

What 3 steps/milestones do you need to complete before you can become an ATC?

A
  1. Accredited graduate program
  2. Certification (BOC)
  3. State licensure
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3
Q

What are the 5 Professional Domains of Athletic Training?

A
  1. Injury & Illness prevention & wellness promotion
  2. Examination, assessment, & diagnosis
  3. Immediate & emergency care
  4. Therapeutic interventions
  5. Healthcare administration & professional responsibility
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4
Q

The model of AT in which an AT is employed by a clinic or hospital, and is outsourced to a HS or athletic team (removing conflict of being employed by a team/coach) is known as…

A

Medical model

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5
Q

What 4 organizations make up the AT strategic alliance?

A
  1. BOC
  2. CAATE
  3. NATA
  4. NATA REF
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6
Q

The two main methods/approaches to conducting/organizing PPEs are…

A
  • Station approach
  • Personal physician
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7
Q

What is the only blood borne pathogen with a vaccine?

A

Hepatitis B

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8
Q

What is another name for “heat rash”?

A

Miliaria Rubra

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9
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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10
Q

There are two main signs that will distinguish someone with heat stroke compared to heat exhaustion. What are they?

A
  • CNS Dysfunction
  • Rectal temperature ≥ 105
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11
Q

Name two structural properties that are specific to cervical vertebra

A
  • Bifurcated spinous process (forks)
  • Transverse foremen
  • Small bodies
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12
Q

_________ loading, places the spine in a dangerous position and makes the vertebra more susceptible to compressive forces

A

Axial

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13
Q

A defect in the pars interarticularis or the arch between superior and inferior articular processes, also know as Scotty dog fx., is called

A

Spondylolysis

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14
Q

Narrowing of the vertebral canal in the cervical region that impinges the spinal cord, or of the intervertebral foramen that impinges nerve roots is known as

A

stenosis

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15
Q

What happens to the nucleus pulposus during a disk herniation? Name 2 typical mechanisms of injury for this type of injury?

A
  • The nucleus pulposus herniates/abnormally protrudes through posterior annulus fibrosis
  • Forward bending, rotation, chronic degeneration
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16
Q

True or false: A concussion is a bruise to the brain?

A

False

  • That’s a cerebral contusion
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17
Q

The consequence of returning an athlete to competition too soon (i.e. the same day), where an athlete is at increased risk of significant life-threatening injury due to a second concussion is know as…

A

Secondary impact syndrome

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18
Q

The frontal lobe of the brain is responsible for what functions?

A
  • Movement
  • Behavior
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19
Q

What does CTE stand for?

A

Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy

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20
Q

How often should you reevaluate an athlete that you suspect to have a concussion?

A

Every 5-15 minutes; no longer than 20 minutes

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21
Q

Name this type of force:
➡️◼️
◼️⬅️

A

Shear

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22
Q

What does RICE stand for?

A
  • Rest
  • Ice
  • Compression
  • Elevate
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23
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of heat transfer/dissipation? And what’s the most effective method for the body to cool itself?

A
  • Conduction
  • Convection
  • Radiation
  • Evaporation (most effective)
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24
Q

What are the 3 most common types of spine boarding techniques?

A
  • 8 person lift
  • Log roll
  • Scoop
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25
Q

Low blood sodium associated with exercising for long periods of time is known as…

A

Hyponatremia

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26
Q

Reasons for Preparticipation Exams

A
  • Ensure health & safety of the athlete
  • Reduce likelihood of negative events
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27
Q

Goals for Preparticipation Exams

A
  • Identify those with contradictions to physical activity/exercise
  • Identify those who need formal evaluation/physical clearance
  • Identify those who need medical supervision during physical activity
  • Identify other significant health concerns
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28
Q

Why are Preparticipation Exams important?

A
  • Effective at recognizing unsuspected heart disease
  • Reduces sudden cardiac deaths among athletes
29
Q

FERPA

A

Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act

30
Q

Why are PPE’s done 6 weeks before first competition?

A
  • Allows time for follow up and for rehab of injuries identified
  • Allows time for referral
31
Q

Components of PPE

A
  • Medical history
  • Vitals
  • CV/Pulmonary
  • Musculoskeletal
  • Neurological
  • Eyes
  • Dental
  • Lab tests
  • Physical Fitness
32
Q

PPE: Hypertension

A
  • 90-95% of all cases
    ~ Genetic/lifestyle
  • Persistent elevation of BP measured 2 separate times at least 2 weeks apart
33
Q

PPE: Sickle Cell

A
  • Sickle Cell Trait testing mandated by NCAA in 2010
    ~ 75% reduction in deaths
34
Q

Emergency Action Plan (EAP)

A

Blueprint for handling emergencies
- Written document that’s approved and revised that features an exact plan on what to do if an emergency were to arise

35
Q

On Field Assessment: Primary

A
  • General impression/Loss of Consciousness
  • Airway
  • Breathing
  • Circulation
  • Bleeding
  • Shock
36
Q

On Field Assessment: Secondary

A
  • Vitals
  • Skin color
  • Pulse Ox
  • Pupils
  • Movement
  • Abnormal Nerve Response
37
Q

When should a face mask be removed?

A

ASAP after an athlete is suspected of having a spinal injury, even if conscious - Airway/Rescue breathing

38
Q

What does POLICE stand for?

A

Protect
Optimal Loading
Ice
Compression
Elevation

39
Q

Vacuum Splint

A

Rapid form immobilizer
- Styrofoam chips sealed in airtight sleeve
- Moldable with velcro straps
- Needs to be checked frequently for leaks

40
Q

Air Splint

A
  • Clear plastic splint
  • Provides moderate pressure & can be
    x-rayed though
  • Needs to be checked frequently for leaks
41
Q

Half-Ring Splint

A
  • Femoral fractures
  • Open fractures
42
Q

SAM Splint

A
  • Structural aluminum that’s malleable
  • Smaller adults & children
43
Q

Splinting

A

Splint joints above and below fractures

  • Tibial Fracture: splint ankle & knee
  • Femur Fracture: splint knee & hip
  • Shoulder Fracture: sling
  • Upper arm & elbow Fracture: splint in extension
  • Lower arm & wrist Fracture: splint in elbow flexion/sling
  • Spine/Low back/pelvis Fracture: spine board
44
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A
  • Degenerative
  • Causes foward subluxation
  • Common in girls
45
Q

Tension

A

Pulling action trying to change the structure

46
Q

Compression

A

A pushing action tending to shorten the structure

47
Q

Shear

A

Forces that act parallel to the surface of the structure

48
Q

Bending

A

Combination of tension on one side and compression on the other side

49
Q

Torsion

A

Twisting is opposite directions

50
Q

Tendinopathy

A

Tendinitis and Tendinosis

51
Q

Tendinitis

A

Inflammation of tendon

52
Q

Tendinosis

A

Micro tear/degeneration

53
Q

Tenosynovitis

A

Inflammation of synovial sheath

54
Q

Myositis Ossificans

A

Bone (calcium) deposited in muscle

55
Q

Calcific Tendinitis

A

Bone (calcium) deposited in tendon

56
Q

Transverse Fx

A
  • Straight line
  • Direct blow
57
Q

Spiral Fx

A
  • S shaped
  • Rotational/torsion
58
Q

Oblique Fx

A
  • Line is oblique to long axis of bone
  • One end twists while other is fixed
59
Q

Depression Fx

A
  • Head
  • Blow or fall
60
Q

Greenstick Fx

A
  • Incomplete break in bone
  • Bending or torsion
  • More common in children due to flexibility
61
Q

Impacted Fx

A
  • Opposite sides of fracture are compressed together
  • Compression
62
Q

Longitudinal Fx

A
  • Along length of bone
  • Landing from tall heights
63
Q

Avulsion Fx

A
  • Separation of bone from its attachment
  • Twisting or stretching with too much force
64
Q

Stress Fx

A
  • Repeated stress, overload, & change in surface/activity
  • Poor biomechanics, posture, strength, & mobility
65
Q

Force

A

Push or pull action on the body or object
- Acceleration: change in velocity
- Deformation: change in shape

66
Q

BBP Mode of Transmission: Percutaneous

A

Direct inoculation by piercing through skin barrier

67
Q

BBP Mode of Transmission: Direct Inoculation

A

Exposure of blood or OPIM to pre-existing wounds or rashes

68
Q

BBP Mode of Transmission: Mucous Membrane Contact

A

Splashing into an individual’s unprotected eyes, nose, or mouth

69
Q

All of the following must be present for potential BBP exposure:

A
  • Infected source
  • Entry site
  • Route of transmission
  • Susceptible person

Prevention & Care Of Athletic Injuries (4 decks)

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