EXAM 1 Flashcards

1
Q

the main band of axons that connects the two cerebral hemispheres

A

Corpus callosum

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2
Q

an individual whose corpus callosum has been severed, halting communication between the right and left hemisphere

A

Split brain individuals

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3
Q

in anatomy, pertaining to a location on the opposite side of the body

A

Contralateral

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4
Q

Which hemisphere is mute?

A

The right hemisphere

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5
Q

the simultaneous delivery of different stimuli to the right and left ears at the same time

A

Dichotic presentation

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6
Q

a test in which stimuli are very briefly presented to either the left or right visual half field

A

Tachistoscope test

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7
Q

an auditory region of the superior temporal cortex – often slightly larger in left hemisphere

A

Planum temporale

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8
Q

the perception of emotional tone-of-voice aspects of language - right hemisphere aspect of language

A

Prosody

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9
Q

the ability to recognize objects by touching and feeling them - associated with postcentral gyrus

A

Astereognosis

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10
Q

also called face blindness. A condition characterized by the inability to recognize faces

A

Prosopagnosia

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11
Q

A region on the inferior surface of the cortex, at the junction of the temporal and occipital lobes, that has been associated with recognition of faces

A

Fusiform gyrus

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12
Q

the inability to recognize objects, despite being able to describe them in terms of form and color. may occur after localized brain damage.

A

Agnosia

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13
Q

the recovery of behavioral capacity following brain damage from stroke or injury

A

Recovery of function

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14
Q

a cell, derived from an embryo, that has capacity to form any type of tissue

A

Embryonic stem cells

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15
Q

a therapy for recovery of movement after stroke or injury in which the person’s unaffected limb is constrained while they are required to perform tasks with the affected limb

A

Constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMNT)

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16
Q

a form of closed head injury caused by a jarring blow to the head, resulting in damage to the tissue of the brain with short or or long-term consequences for cognitive function

A

Concussion

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17
Q

a form of dementia that may develop following multiple concussions, such as in athletes engaged in contact sports. It was formerly called dementia pugilistica or punch-drunk syndrome

A

Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)

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18
Q

who won the Nobel prize in 1981 for uncovering lateralized functions of the cortex?

A

Roger Sperry

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19
Q

also called nerve cell. The basic unit of the nervous system, each composed of receptive extensions called dendrites, an integrating cell body, a conducting axon, and a transmitting axon terminal.

A

Neuron

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20
Q

Non Neuronal brain cells that provide structural, nutritional and other types of support to the brain.

A

Glial cells/glia

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21
Q

the cellular location at which information is transmitted from a neuron to another cell

A

Synapses

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22
Q

Around how many synapses do we have?

A

10^15 (a quadrillion)

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23
Q

the part of a neuron that receives information from the other neurons or from specialized sensory structures. This zone usually corresponds to the cell’s dendrites.

A

Input zone

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24
Q

an extension of the cell body that receives information from other neurons. Functionally, the dendrites are the input zone of the neuron.

A

Dendrites

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25
Q

the part of a neuron that initiates neural electrical activity. This zone usually corresponds to the neuron’s cell body.

A

Integration zone

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26
Q

also called soma. The region of a neuron that is defined by the presence of the cell nucleus. Functionally, the cell body is the integration zone of the neuron.

A

Cell body

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27
Q

the part of a neuron – typically the axon – over which the action potential is actively propagated.

A

Conduction zone

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28
Q

a branch of an axon

A

Axon collaterals

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29
Q

specialized swellings at the ends of the axon, called axon terminals (or synaptic boutons), transmit the neuron’s signals across synapses to other cells

A

Output zone

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30
Q

the end of an axon or axon collateral, which forms a synapse onto a neuron or other target cell and thus serves as the output zone

A

Axon terminals

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31
Q

a neuron that transmits neural messages to muscles (or glands)

A

Motor neurons

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32
Q

a neuron that is directly affected by changes in the environment, such as light, odor, or touch.

A

Sensory neurons

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33
Q

a neuron that is neither a sensory neuron nor a motor neuron. they receive input from and send output to other neurons

A

Interneurons

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34
Q

a neuron that has many dendrites and a signal axon

A

Multipolar neurons

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35
Q

a neuron that has a single dendrite at one end and a single axon at the other end

A

Bipolar neurons

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36
Q

a neuron with a single branch that leaves the cell body and then extends in two directions’ one end is the input zone, and the other end is the output zone

A

Unipolar neurons

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37
Q

referring to the “transmitting” side of a synapse

A

Presynaptic

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38
Q

referring to the region of a synapse that receives and responds to neurotransmitter

A

Postsynaptic

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39
Q

the specialized membrane on the axon terminal of a neuron that transmits information by releasing neurotransmitter

A

Presynaptic membrane

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40
Q

the space between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons at a synapse. This gap measures about 20-40 nanometers.

A

Synaptic cleft

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41
Q

the specialized membrane on the surface of a neuron that receives information by responding to neurotransmitters from a presynaptic neuron.

A

Postsynaptic membrane

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42
Q

a small spherical structure that contains molecules of neurotransmitter

A

Synaptic vesicles

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43
Q

A specialized protein that is embedded in the cell membrane, allowing it to selectively sense and react to molecules of a corresponding neurotransmitter or drug

A

Neurotransmitter receptors

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44
Q

The ability of the nervous system to change in response to experience or the environment

A

Neuroplasticity

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45
Q

the cone-shaped area on the cell body from which the axon originates

A

Axon hillock

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46
Q

to provide neural input to

A

Innervate

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47
Q

the transportation of materials from the neuronal cell body toward the axon terminals, and from the axon terminals back toward the cell body

A

Axonal transport

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48
Q

a type of glial cell that ensheath axons with myelin in the central nervous system

A

Oligodendrocytes

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49
Q

a type of glial cell that forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system

A

Schwann cells

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50
Q

the fatty insulation around an axon, formed by glial cells. This myelin sheath boosts the speed at which action potentials are conducted

A

Myelin

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51
Q

a star shaped glial cell with numerous processes (extensions) that run in all directions

A

Astrocytes

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52
Q

Extremely small motile glial cells that remove cellular debris from injured or dead cells.

A

Microglial cells

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53
Q

the outer cellular layer of the developing embryo, giving rise to the skin and the nervous system

A

Ectoderm

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54
Q

an embryonic structure with subdivisions that correspond to the future forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain

A

Neural tube

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55
Q

the frontal division of the neural tube, which in the mature vertebrate contains the cerebral hemispheres, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus

A

Forebrain

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56
Q

the middle division of the brain

A

Midbrain

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57
Q

the rear division of the brain, which in the mature vertebrate contains the cerebellum, pons, and medulla

A

Hindbrain

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58
Q

the earliest stage in a developing animal. Humans are considered to be embryos until 8-10 weeks after conception

A

Embryo

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59
Q

a developing individual after the embryo stage. Humans are considered to be fetuses from 10 weeks after fertilization until birth.

A

Fetus

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60
Q

the mitotic division of non-neuronal cells to produce neurons

A

Neurogenesis

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61
Q

the process of division of somatic cells that involves duplication of DNA

A

Mitosis

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62
Q

A region lining the cerebral ventricles from which new neurons and glial cells are born throughout life, via mitosis.

A

Ventricular zone

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63
Q

the movement of cells from site of origin to final location

A

Cell migration

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64
Q

the turning on or off of specific genes; the process by which a cell makes an mRNA transcript of a particular gene

A

Gene expression

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65
Q

the developmental stage in which cells acquire distinctive characteristics, such as those of neurons, as a result of expressing particular genes

A

Cell differentiation

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66
Q

the establishment of synaptic connections as axons and dendrites grow

A

Cell-cell interactions

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67
Q

a cell that is undifferentiated and therefore can take on the fate of any cell that a donor organism can produce

A

Stem cells

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68
Q

the creation of new neurons in the brain of an adult

A

Adult neurogenesis

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69
Q

the developmental process during which “surplus” cells die

A

Apoptosis

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70
Q

A target-derived chemical that induces innervating neurons to survive.

A

Neurotrophic factors

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71
Q

The loss of some synapses and the development of others; a refinement of synaptic connections that is often seen in development

A

Synapse rearrangement/synaptic modeling

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72
Q

a disability characterized by significant limitations in intellectual functioning and adaptive behavior

A

Intellectual disability

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73
Q

a frequent cause of inherited intellectual disability produced by a fragile site on the X chromosome that seems prone to breaking because the DNA there is unstable

A

Fragile x syndrome

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74
Q

reduced visual acuity of one eye that is not caused by optical or retinal impairments

A

Amblyopia

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75
Q

depriving both eyes of form vision, as by sealing the eyelids.

A

Binocular deprivation

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76
Q

the period during development in which an organism can be permanently altered by a particular experience or treatment

A

critical period

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77
Q

depriving one eye of light

A

Monocular deprivation

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78
Q

a graph that portrays the strength of response of a brain neuron to stimuli presented to either the left eye or the right eye

A

Ocular dominance histogram

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79
Q

a synapse that is strengthened when it successfully drives the postsynaptic cell

A

Hebbian synapses

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80
Q

anatomical features of the nervous system that are apparent to the naked eye

A

Gross neuroanatomy

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81
Q

the brain and the spinal cord

A

Central nervous system (CNS)

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82
Q

the portion of the nervous system that includes all the nerves and neurons outside the brain and the spinal cord

A

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

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83
Q

a collection of axons bundled together outside the central nervous system

A

Nerves

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84
Q

a nerve that transmits information from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands

A

Motor nerves

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85
Q

a part of the peripheral nervous system that supplies neural connections mostly to the skeletal muscles and sensory systems of the body. It consists of cranial nerves and spinal nerves

A

Somatic nervous system

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86
Q

a part of the peripheral nervous system that provides the main neural connections to the internal organs. Its two divisions (sympathetic and parasympathetic) act in opposite fashion

A

Autonomic nervous system

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87
Q

the 12 pairs of nerves that are connected directly to the brain

A

Cranial nerves

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88
Q

the 31 pairs of nerves that emerge from the spinal cord

A

Spinal nerves

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89
Q

referring to the topmost 8 segments of the spinal cord, in the neck region

A

Cervical

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90
Q

referring to the 12 spinal segments below the neck portion of the spinal cord, in the torso

A

Thoracic

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91
Q

referring to the 5 spinal segments in the upper part of the lower back

A

Lumbar

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92
Q

referring to the 5 spinal segments in the lower part of the lower back

A

Sacral

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93
Q

referring to the lowest spinal vertebra

A

Coccygeal

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94
Q

the part of the autonomic nervous system that acts as the fight-or-flight system, generally preparing the body for action

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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95
Q

the part of the autonomic nervous system that generally prepares the body to relax and recuperate

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

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96
Q

the plane that divides the body or brain into right and left portions

A

Sagittal plane

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97
Q

the plane that divides the body or brain into front and back parts

A

Coronal plane

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98
Q

the plane that divides the body or brain into upper and lower parts

A

Horizontal plane

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99
Q

toward the middle

A

Medial

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100
Q

toward the side

A

Lateral

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101
Q

above

A

Superior

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102
Q

below

A

Inferior

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103
Q

toward the bottom

A

Basal

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104
Q

toward the head

A

anterior/rostral

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105
Q

toward the tail

A

posterior/caudal

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106
Q

near

A

Proximal

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107
Q

far

A

Distal

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108
Q

carrying action potential toward the brain

A

Afferent

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109
Q

carrying action potential away from the brain

A

Efferent

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110
Q

toward the back

A

Dorsal

111
Q

toward the belly

A

Ventral

112
Q

areas of the brain that are dominated by cell bodies and are devoid of myelin which mostly receives and processes information

A

Gray matter

113
Q

a light-colored layer of tissue, consisting mostly of myelin-sheath axons, that lies underneath the gray matter of the cortex which mostly transmits information

A

White matter

114
Q

one of the two halves – left or right – of the forebrain

A

Cerebral hemispheres

115
Q

the outer covering of the cerebral hemispheres, which consists largely of neuron bodies and their branches

A

Cerebral cortex

116
Q

a ridged or raised portion of a convoluted brain surface

A

Gyri

117
Q

a crevice or valley of a convoluted brain surface

A

Sulci

118
Q

an area in the front of the brain that contains neurons important for establishing gaze in accordance with cognitive goals

A

Frontal lobe

119
Q

the large region of cortex lying between the frontal and occipital lobes in each cerebral hemisphere

A

Parietal lobe

120
Q

sits behind the ears and is associated with processing auditory information and the encoding of memory

A

Temporal lobe

121
Q

a large region of the cortex that covers much of the posterior part of each cerebral hemisphere

A

Occipital lobe

122
Q

A deep fissure that demarcates the temporal lobe

A

Sylvian fissure

123
Q

a fissure that divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe

A

Central sulcus

124
Q

the strip of parietal cortex just behind the central sulcus, that receives somatosensory information from the entire body

A

Postcentral gyrus

125
Q

the strip of frontal cortex, just in front of the central sulcus, that is crucial for motor control

A

Precentral gyrus

126
Q

an embryonic structure with subdivisions that correspond to the future forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain

A

Neural tube

127
Q

the frontal division of the neural tube, which in the mature vertebrate contains the cerebral hemispheres, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus

A

Forebrain

128
Q

the middle division of the brain

A

Midbrain

129
Q

the rear division of the brain, which in the mature vertebrate contains the cerebellum, pons, and medulla

A

Hindbrain

130
Q

the anterior part of the fetal forebrain, which will become the cerebral hemispheres in the adult brain

A

Telencephalon

131
Q

the posterior part of the fetal forebrain which will become the thalamus and hypothalamus in adulthood

A

Diencephalon

132
Q

the region of the brain that consists of the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla

A

Brainstem

133
Q

a portion of DNA or RNA molecule that is composed of a single base and the adjoining sugar-phosphate unit of the strand

A

Nuclei

134
Q

bundles of axons found within the central nervous system

A

Tracts

135
Q

a type of large neuron that has a roughly pyramid-shaped cell body and is found in the cerebral cortex

A

Pyramidal cell

136
Q

one of the vertical columns that constitute the basic organization of the cerebral cortex

A

Cortical columns

137
Q

a group of forebrain nuclei, including the caudate nucleus, globus pallidus, and putamen, found deep within the cerebral hemispheres. They are crucial for skill learning

A

Basal ganglia

138
Q

a loosely defined, widespread group of brain nuclei that innervate each other to form a network. These nuclei are implicated in emotions

A

Limbic system

139
Q

a group of nuclei in the medial anterior part of the temporal lobe

A

Amygdala

140
Q

a medial temporal lobe structure that is important for spatial cognition, learning, and memory

A

Hippocampus

141
Q

a fiber tract that extends from the hippocampus to the mammillary body

A

Fornix

142
Q

A strip of cortex, found in the frontal and parietal midline, that is part of the limbic system and is implicated in many cognitive functions

A

Cingulate gyrus

143
Q

an anterior projection of the brain that terminates in the upper nasal passages and, through small openings in the skull, provides receptors for smell

A

Olfactory bulb

144
Q

paired structures to either side of the third ventricle, at the top of the brainstem that direct the flow of sensory information to and from the cortex

A

Thalamus

145
Q

part of the diencephalon, lying ventral to the thalamus

A

Hypothalamus

146
Q

the dorsal portion of the midbrain, consisting of the inferior and superior colliculi

A

Tectum

147
Q

a gray matter structure of the dorsal midbrain that processes visual information and is involved in direction of visual gaze and visual attention to intended stimuli

A

Superior colliculi

148
Q

paired gray matter structures of the dorsal midbrain that process auditory information

A

Inferior colliculi

149
Q

the main body of the midbrain, containing the substantia nigra, periaqueductal gray, part of the reticular formation, and multiple fiber tracts

A

Tegmentum

150
Q

a brainstem structure that innervates the basal ganglia and is a major source of dopaminergic projections

A

Substantia nigra

151
Q

a midbrain region involved in pain perception

A

Periaqueductal gray

152
Q

An extensive region of the brainstem, extending from the medulla through the thalamus, that is involved in sleep and arousal

A

Reticular formation

153
Q

a structure located at the back of the brain, dorsal to the pons, that is involved in the central regulation of movement and in some forms of learning

A

Cerebellum

154
Q

the portion of the brainstem that connects the midbrain to the medulla

A

Pons

155
Q

the posterior part of the hindbrain, continuous with the spinal cord

A

Medulla

156
Q

the three protective membranes – dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid – that surround the brain and spinal cord

A

Meninges

157
Q

the outermost of the three meninges that surround the brain and spinal cord.

A

Dura mater

158
Q

the innermost of the three meninges that surround the brain and spinal cord

A

Pia mater

159
Q

the thin covering (one of the three meninges) of the brain that lies between the dura mater and the pia mater

A

Arachnoid

160
Q

the fluid that fills the cerebral ventricles

A

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

161
Q

an acute inflammation of the meninges, usually caused by a viral or bacterial infection

A

Meningitis

162
Q

a noninvasive tumor of the meninges

A

Meningiomas

163
Q

a system of fluid-filled cavities inside the brain

A

Ventricular system

164
Q

a complex C-shaped lateral portion of the ventricular system within each hemisphere of the brain

A

Lateral ventricle

165
Q

a specialized membrane lining the ventricles that produces cerebrospinal fluid by filtering blood

A

Choroid plexus

166
Q

tube midline ventricle that conducts cerebrospinal fluid from the lateral ventricles of the fourth ventricle

A

Third ventricle

167
Q

the passageway within the pons that receives cerebrospinal fluid from the third ventricle and releases it to surround the brain and spinal cord

A

Fourth ventricle

168
Q

a ballooning of the ventricles, at the expense of the surrounding brain, which may occur when the circulation of CSF is blocked

A

Hydrocephalus

169
Q

a lymphatic system in the brain that participates in removal of wastes and the movement of nutrients and signaling compounds

A

Glymphatic system

170
Q

the three pairs of large arteries within the skull that supply blood to the cerebral cortex

A

Cerebral arteries

171
Q

the mechanisms that make the movement of substances from blood vessels into cells more difficult in the brain than in other body organs, thus affording the brain greater protection from exposure to some substances found in the blood

A

Blood-brain barrier

172
Q

First line of defense
Immediate
Non-specific
Does not generate lasting protective immunity

A

Innate immunity

173
Q

Is initiated if innate immune response is not adequate
Antigen-specific immunity
Generates lasting protective immunity

A

Adaptive immune response

174
Q

atoms or molecule that have acquired an electrical charge by gaining or losing one or more electrons

A

Ions

175
Q

negatively charged ions, such as protein or chloride ions

A

Anions

176
Q

positively charged ions, such as potassium or sodium ions

A

Cations

177
Q

The watery solution found within cells

A

Intracellular fluid

178
Q

The fluid in the spaces between cells

A

Extracellular fluid

179
Q

the lipid bilayer that encloses a cell

A

Cell membrane

180
Q

an especially small electrode used to record electrical potentials inside living cells

A

Microelectrode

181
Q

the difference in electrical potential across the membrane of a neuron at rest

A

Resting potential

182
Q

a thousandth of a volt

A

Millivolts (mV)

183
Q

a pore in the cell membrane that permits the passage of certain ions through the membrane when the channel is open

A

Ion channel

184
Q

a potassium atom that carries a positive charge

A

Potassium ions (K+)

185
Q

a sodium atom that carries a positive charge

A

Sodium ions (Na+)

186
Q

the property of a membrane that allows some substances to pass through, but not others

A

Selective permeability

187
Q

the spontaneous spread of solute molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a solvent until a uniform solute concentration is achieved

A

Diffusion

188
Q

the energetically expensive mechanism that pushes sodium ions out of a cell, and potassium ions in

A

Sodium-potassium pumps

189
Q

the point at which the movement of ions across the cell membrane is balanced, as the electrostatic pressure pulling ions in one direction is offset by the diffusion force pushing them in the opposite direction

A

Equilibrium potential

190
Q

an increase in membrane potential (the interior of the neuron becomes even more negative)

A

Hyperpolarization

191
Q

an increase in membrane potential (the interior of the neuron becomes less negative)

A

Depolarization

192
Q

an electrical potential that is initiated by stimulation at a specific site, is a graded response that spreads passively across the cell membrane, and decreases in strength with time and difference

A

Local potentials

193
Q

the stimulus intensity that is just adequate to trigger an action potential in an axon

A

Threshold

194
Q

A rapid reversal of the membrane potential that momentarily makes the inside of a neuron positive with respect to the outside

A

Action potential

195
Q

the condition that the size (amplitude) of the action potential is independent of the size of the stimulus

A

All-or-none property

196
Q

the positive or negative change in membrane potential that may follow na action potential

A

Afterpotentials

197
Q

A Na+-selective channel that opens or closes in response to changes in the voltage of the local membrane potential. It mediates the action potential

A

Voltage-gated Na+m channel

198
Q

temporarily unresponsive or inactivated

A

Refractory

199
Q

the speed at which an action potential is propagated along the length of an axon

A

Conduction velocity

200
Q

a brief period of complete insensitivity to stimuli

A

Absolute refractory phase

201
Q

a period of reduced sensitivity during which only strong stimulation produces an action potential

A

Relative refractory phase

202
Q

a gap between successive segments of the myelin sheath where the axon membrane is exposed

A

Nodes of Ranvier

203
Q

the form of conduction that is characteristic of myelinated axons, in which the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next

A

Saltatory conduction

204
Q

literally “many scars”. A disorder characterized by the widespread degeneration of myelin

A

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

205
Q

a local potential that is initiated by stimulation at a synapse, can very in amplitude, and spreads passively across the cell membrane, decreasing in strength with time and distance

A

Postsynaptic potentials

206
Q

a depolarizing potential in a neuron that is normally caused by synaptic excitation. EPSPs increase the probability that the postsynaptic neuron will fire an action potential

A

Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

207
Q

a hyperpolarizing potential in a neuron. IPSPs decrease the probability that the postsynaptic neuron will fire an action potential

A

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

208
Q

a chlorine atom that carries a negative charge

A

Chloride ions (Cl-)

209
Q

the summation of postsynaptic potentials that reach the axon hillock from different locations across the cell body. If this summation reaches threshold, an action potential is triggered

A

Spatial summation

210
Q

the summation of postsynaptic potentials that reach the axon hillock at different times. The closer in time the potentials occur, the greater the summation

A

Temporal summation

211
Q

a calcium atom that carries a double positive charge

A

Calcium ions (CA2+)

212
Q

the brief delay between the arrival of an action potential at the axon terminal and the creation of a postsynaptic potential

A

Synaptic delay

213
Q

a drug that induces a state resembling schizophrenia

A

Ligand

214
Q

a neurotransmitter that is produced and released by parasympathetic postganglionic neurons, by motor neurons, and by many neurons in the brain

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

215
Q

a neurotoxin that causes paralysis by blocking acetylcholine receptors in muscles

A

Curare

216
Q

a neurotoxin, isolated from the venom of the many-banded krait, that selectively blocks acetylcholine receptors

A

Bungarotoxin

217
Q

a substance that mimics or boosts the actions of a transmitter or other signaling molecule

A

Agonists

218
Q

a substance that blocks or attenuates the actions of a transmitter or other signaling molecule

A

Antagonists

219
Q

referring to cells that use acetylcholine as their synaptic transmitter

A

Cholinergic

220
Q

a region, ventral to the basal ganglia that is the major source of cholinergic projections in the brain and has been implicated in sleep

A

Basal forebrain

221
Q

a monoamine transmitter found in the midbrain – especially in the substantia nigra – and in the basal forebrain

A

Dopamine (DA)

222
Q

referring to cells that use dopamine as their synaptic transmitter

A

Dopaminergic

223
Q

a portion of the midbrain that protects dopaminergic fibers to the nucleus accumbens

A

Ventral tegmental area (VTA)

224
Q

referring to cells that used serotonin as their synaptic transmitter

A

Serotonergic

225
Q

a string of nuclei in the midline of the brain and brainstem that contain most of the serotonergic neurons of the brain

A

Raphe nuclei

226
Q

a synaptic transmitter that is produced in the raphe nuclei and is active in structures throughout the cerebral hemispheres

A

Serotonin

227
Q

a synaptic transmitter that is produced in the raphe nuclei and is active in structures throughout the cerebral hemispheres

A

5-HT

228
Q

referring to cells using norepinephrine (noradrenaline) as a transmitter

A

Noradrenergic

229
Q

A neurotransmitter active in both the brain and in the sympathetic nervous system

A

Norepinephrine (NE)

230
Q

a small nucleus in the brainstem whose neurons produce norepinephrine and modulate large areas of the forebrain

A

Locus coeruleus

231
Q

a brainstem region that provides some of the norepinephrine-containing projections of the brain

A

Lateral tegmental area

232
Q

a type of endogenous peptide that mimics the effects of morphine in binding to opioid receptors and producing marked analgesia and reward

A

Opioid peptides

233
Q

a neurotransmitter that is released by the postsynaptic neuron, diffuses back across the synapse, and alters the functioning of the presynaptic neuron

A

Retrograde transmitters

234
Q

the process of requiring new and relatively enduring information, behavior patterns, or abilities, characterized by modifications of behavior as a result of practice, study, or experience

A

Learning

235
Q

The ability to learn and neurally encode information, consolidate information for longer-term storage, and retrieve or reactivate the consolidated information at a later time

A

Memory

236
Q

severe impairment of memory

A

Amnesia

237
Q

difficulty in retrieving memories formed before the onset of amnesia

A

Retrograde amnesia

238
Q

a man who was unable to encode new declarative memories because of surgical removal of medial temporal lobe structures

A

Patient H.M.

239
Q

difficulty in forming new memories beginning with the onset of a disorder

A

Anterograde amnesia

240
Q

a memory that can be stated or described

A

Declarative memory

241
Q

also called procedural memory. A memory that is shown by performance rather than by conscious recollection

A

Nondeclarative memory

242
Q

a test in which the individual must respond to the unfamiliar stimulus in a pair of stimuli

A

Delayed non-matching-to-sample-task

243
Q

a still-living man who is unable to encode new declarative memories, because of damage to the dorsomedial thalamus and the mammillary bodies

A

Patient N.A.

244
Q

a limbic system structure that is connected to the hippocampus

A

Dorsomedial thalamus

245
Q

one of a pair of limbic system structures that are connected to the hippocampus

A

Mammillary bodies

246
Q

a memory disorder caused by thiamine deficiency, that is generally associated with chronic alcoholism

A

Korsakoff’s syndrome

247
Q

to fill in a gap in memory with a falsification, often seen in Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

Confabulate

248
Q

who sustained damage to the cortex that rendered him unable to form and retrieve episodic memories

A

Patient K.C.

249
Q

Memory of a particular incident or a particular time and place.

A

Episodic memory

250
Q

generalized declarative memory, such as knowing the meaning of a word

A

Semantic memory

251
Q

the process of learning to perform a challenging task simply by repeating it over and over

A

Skill learning

252
Q

The phenomenon by which exposure to a stimulus facilitates subsequent responses to the same or a similar status

A

Priming

253
Q

a type of learning in which an association is formed between two stimuli or between a stimulus and a response. It includes both classical and instrumental conditioning

A

Associative learning

254
Q

A type of associative learning in which an originally neutral stimulus acquires the power to elicit a conditioned response when presented alone

A

Classical conditioning

255
Q

A form of associative learning in which the likelihood that an act will be performed depends on the consequences (reinforcing stimuli) that follow it

A

Instrumental conditioning

256
Q

a mental representation of the relative spatial organization of objects and information

A

Cognitive map

257
Q

a neuron in the hippocampus that selectively fires when the animal is in a particular location

A

Place cells

258
Q

a brief type of memory that stores the sensory impression of a scene.

A

Sensory buffers

259
Q

a form of memory that usually lasts only a few seconds, or as long as rehearsal continues

A

Short term memory

260
Q

an enduring form of memory that lasts days, weeks, months, or years. LTM has a very large capacity

A

Long-term memory

261
Q

the first process in the memory system, in which the information entering sensory channels is passed into short-term memory

A

Encoding

262
Q

the second process in the memory system in which information in short-term memory is transferred to long-term memory

A

Consolidation

263
Q

the third process of the memory system in which a stored memory is used by an organism

A

Retrieval

264
Q

a disorder in which memories of an unpleasant episode repeatedly plague the person

A

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

265
Q

A persistent change in the brain that reflects the storage of memory

A

Memory trace

266
Q

the return of a memory trace to stable long-term storage after it has been temporarily made changeable during the process of recall

A

Reconsolidation

267
Q

An environment for laboratory rodents in which each animal is housed singly in a small cage without complex stimuli

A

Impoverished condition (IC)

268
Q

the usual environment for laboratory rodents, with a few animals in a cage and adequate food and water, but no complex stimulation

A

Standard condition (SC)

269
Q

an environment for laboratory rodents that offers many opportunities for activity with lots of sensory and intellectual stimulation

A

Enriched condition (EC)

270
Q

a form of non-associative learning in which an organism becomes less responsive following repeated presentations of a stimulus

A

Habituation

271
Q

a stable and enduring increase in the effectiveness of synapses following repeated strong stimulation

A

Long-term potentiation (LTP)

272
Q

a strip of gray matter in the hippocampal formation

A

Dentate gyrus

273
Q

a glutamate receptor that also binds the glutamate agonist NDMA (n-methyl-d-asparate) and that is both ligand-gated and voltage-sensitive

A

NDMA receptor

274
Q

a fast-acting ionotropic glutamate receptor that also binds the glutamate agonist AMPA

A

AMPA receptors