Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Looking at the body appearance e.x. Examinations
A
Inspection
2
Q
Structure with hands e.x. Taking pulse and swollen lymph nodes
A
Palpation
3
Q
Listening to natural sounds e.x. Heart beat and lungs
A
Auscultation
4
Q
Taps body for abnormal resistance and listens for sounds e.x. Pockets of fluid,air,and scar tissue
A
Percussion
5
Q
What is cadaver dissection?
A
Also known as anatomizing, it reveals the relationship between cutting and separating tissues.
6
Q
The study of more than one species in order to examine structural similarities and differences to analyze evolutionary trends
A
Comparative anatomy
7
Q
Anatomy is the study of
A
Form
8
Q
Opening the body to see what is wrong e.x. Common to diagnose disorders
A
Exploratory surgery
9
Q
Methods of viewing the body without surgery e.x. Radiology
A
Medical imaging
10
Q
Can be seen with the naked eye without magnification
A
Gross anatomy
11
Q
Study of structure and function of individual cells
A
Cytology
12
Q
The study of microscopic structure of tissues
A
Histology (microscopic anatomy)
13
Q
Fine detailed, molecular level with an electron microscope
A
Ultrastructure
14
Q
Examine tissues for signs of disease
A
Histopathology
15
Q
Physiology is the study of
A
Function
16
Q
Sub-disciplines of physiology
A
Neuro,endocrine, and patho (disease)
17
Q
What has limitations on human experimentation and is the basis for new drug developments and medical procedures?
A
Comparative physiology. We study different species to learn about bodily functions, e.x. Animal surgery and drug trials
18
Q
Father of medicine,Hippocratic oath, and urged people to not link illness to gods or demons but natural occurrence
A
Hippocrates
19
Q
Diseases and natural events could be caused by the supernatural (theologi) or natural (phsysici).
Complex structure are built from simple components
A
Aristotle
20
Q
Wrote the first medical textbook
Cadaver dissections we’re banned so animals were used,hence he guessed the human anatomy
Science is a method of discovery not facts from faith
Advised followed to trust their own observations as he could be unreliable/wrong
A
Galen
21
Q
1st to coin the term anatomy
Dissected aborted fetuses
Later only dissected animals because of the fear of the gods
A
Diocles of Carystus
22
Q
Great anatomist
Vivisections on prisoners
A
Herophilus
23
Q
Wrote 10 influential medical texts and became a physician to Egyptian sultan Saladin
A
Maimonides
24
Q
“Galen of Islam”; combined Galen and Aristotle findings with own findings.
Wrote “Canon of Medicine” which was used in medical schools for some time
A
Avicenna
25
How did medicine change in the Middle Ages in Europe?
Science became severely repressed in Christian cultures,whereas in Jewish and Muslim faith they were free of inquiry.
Medicine was taught primarily as dogmatic commentary on Galen and Aristotle
There were crude medical illustrations instead of realistic depictions
26
What was Andreas Vesalius’ contribution?
He is the father of anatomy. He was also the first to preform own dissections than a barber-surgeon. He also was the first to publish accurate anatomical drawings.
27
William Harvey created
Experimental physiology and studies blood circulation, realizing that the blood flows from the heart and returns to it. He also worked with Michael Servetus.
28
Robert Hooke made _______ and published the first comprehensive book of microscopy called Micrographia.
Improvements to the compound scope that magnified to 30x. He also invented the specimen stage,illuminate,coarse, and fine focus controls.He also was the first to see and name ‘cells’.
29
Antony Van Leeuwenhoek invented ______ and published his findings of blood,lake water,sperm, and bacteria from teeth.
A simple (single-lens) microscope with great magnification to look at fabrics (200x).
30
Joh Hunter sought out _____
An Irish giant named Byrnes
31
What was the anatomy act of 1832?
It forbade body snatching for anatomical specimens.
32
__________ & __________ greatly improved compound microscopes and added the condenser and superior optics to eliminate blurry edges (spherical aberration) and rainbow distortions (chromatic aberration)
Carol Zeiss & Ernst Abbe
33
They concluded that “all organisms were composed of cells” and first proposed Cell Theory as all functions of the body are interpreted as effects of cellular activity.
Mathias Schlesinger & Theodor Schwann (Schwann cell)
34
Frances Bacon and Rene Descartes invented
Habits of scientific thought and sought systematic way of seeking simulators, differences, and trends in nature + drawing drawings useful generalizations from observable facts (Scientific Method)
35
Frances Bacon coined
Inductive reasoning as it is a way of making numerous observations until one becomes confident in generalizing and deducting with own knowledge.
- reliable observations, tested & confirmed repeatedly,and not falsified by creditable observations.
- have to have proof without a reasonable doubt
36
A more physiological knowledge is gained with
Hypothetical-Deductive Methods as an investigator asks a question and formulated a hypothesis, a good hypothesis consists of: previous research/knowledge, can be testable and falsifiable with evidence
37
The theory of natural selection was coined by Charles Darwin and discusses what?
It discusses “our origin,our nature, and place in the universe” by increasing our understanding of human form and function.
38
Selection pressures an hereditary advantage are
Natural selection
39
Change in genetic composition or population of organisms, for example, development of bacteria resistance to antibiotics of new strands of AIDS.
Evolution
40
The earliest primates were
Squirrel sized, arboreal, insect-eating African mammals thy moved to trees for safety,food supply and lack of competition.
41
What are the adaptations for arboreal (treetop) life style?
Mobile shoulders (Bette movement among branches),opposable thumbs (grasping), forward facing eyes/stereoscopic vision (depth perception to watch prey),color vision, and larger brains + good memory (remembered food sources and improved social organization)
42
Standing and walking on two legs which makes it easier to spot predators, carry food or infants is ___________
Bipedalism
43
What are some adaptations from the early primates?
Skeletal and muscular modification along with increased brain volume size and family/social changes.
44
The oldest bipedal primate
Australopithecus (A is the beginning of the alphabet)
45
Taller,larger brain volume, probable speech and tool making were the
Homo-genus (geniuses b/c tools and speech)
46
They migrated from Africa to parts of Asia
Homo-erectus (erect means upright and they had to walk upright to these places)
47
Sole surviving hominid species are the
Homo sapiens which originated in Africa
48
Theory that a large complex system such as the human body can be understood by studying its simpler components. This was proposed by Aristotle and is a productive approach.
Reductionism
49
“Emergent properties” of the whole organism that cannot be predicted from separate parts aka human are more than the sum of their parts
Holism
50
If a hormone cannot enter a cell, it may bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane and trigger the formation of ___ within the cell.
cAMP
51
When a cell takes something in by endocytosis, part of the plasma membrane is removed. The cell does not become smaller because
Golgi vesicles fuse with the membrane
52
If a cell doubled in diameter, it would have twice as much cytoplasm to maintain.
False
53
Insulin is taken up by cells lining capillaries (endothelial cells) and transported across the other side where it is released to the tissues. This transport, which captures on one side and releases on the other, is called
Transcytosis
54
All of the following processes allow for transport of materials across the cell membrane except
Pinocytosis
55
Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubule have a "brush border" composed of ___, which are cell extensions that increase surface area.
Mircovilli
56
In the capillaries, blood pressure forces water, salts, nutrients, and other solutes through pores in cell membranes and gaps between cells. Materials that are too large will not be able to pass easily across the capillary wall. This process that forces selected materials across the wall of a capillary is called
Filtration
57
The clear, structureless gel in a cell is its
cytosol
58
The sodium potassium pump is
A transmembrance protein
59
Which of the following processes could only occur in the plasma membrane of a living cell?
Active transport
60
Cells specialized for absorption of matter from the ECF are likely to show an abundance of
Microvilli
61
Aquaporins are transmembrance proteins that promote
Osmosis
62
Membrane carriers resemble enzymes except for the fact that carriers
Do not chemically change their ligands
63
The cotransport of glucose derives energy from
The sodium concentration gradient
64
The function of cAMP in a cell is
To activate kinases
65
Most celluar membranes are made by
Replication of existing membranes
66
The force exerted on a membrane by water is called
Hydrostatic pressure
67
What is true about recessive genes?
Their expression is masked in the presence of a dominant allele and only occur when both homologous chromosomes appear
68
During the mitotic phase called ___________ , chromosomes condense, spindle fibers form, the nuclear envelope disappears and centrioles migrate to the poles.
Prophase
69
Which term refers to a type of inheritance in which three or more alleles exist for the same gene?
Multiple Allele Inheritance
70
Cells start dividing when they snugly contact neighboring cells or when growth factors are withdrawn.
False
71
Eye color and skin color are traits determined by genes at multiple loci. They are examples of which type of inheritance?
Polygenic Inheritance
72
Which term means the transmission of genetic characteristics from parent to offspring?
Heredity
73
One member of each ____________ pair of chromosomes is inherited from the individual's mother and the other from the father.
Homologous
74
ABO blood type is a trait that demonstrates which type of inheritance?
Multiple Allele
75
If the mother is a carrier for hemophilia (X-linked trait) but the father does not have this condition, what is the chance that their son will have the disease?
50%
76
Which type of inheritance is a phenomenon in which two or more genes contribute to a single phenotypic trait?
Polygenetic
77
Dominant alleles are always more common in the gene pool than recessive alleles.
False
78
A genotype does not inevitably produce a phenotype. Which term refers to the percentage of a population with a given genotype that actually exhibits a predicted phenotype.
Penetrance
79
Epigenetic Effects can cause
Cancer,obesity, and make a stem cell become a liver cell
80
Males are more likely than females to inherit a genetic disease if the gene for it is which of the following?
X-Linked
81
What is true regarding O-type blood?
It is caused by the recessive allele and individuals with this are homozygous for this trait
82
Which of the following occurs as the ribosome shifts down the mRNA by a distance of three nucleotides?
The tRNA that was in the P site moves into the E site.
83
What happens when a stop codon is encountered in the mRNA?
The ribosomal complex falls apart and the protein is released into the cell.
84
Which of the following statements about DNA replication is TRUE?
The leading strand is replicated continuously, while the lagging strand is replicated discontinuously.
85
Which glands would require the highest rate of mitosis?
Holocrine because cells break down and and there would be continously replacing.
86
Cilia are most likely to be seen on ___ epithelium.
pseudostratified
87
A tissue specialized for energy storage and thermal insulation is
adipose tissue
88
A decrease in the size of a tissue or organ is
atrophy
89
The internal lining of the esophagus and adult vagina is
a stratified squamous epithelium
90
Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and
neurogila
91
Which of the following tissues is avascular (lack of blood vessels) ?
epithelial and cartilage
92
Which of the following is not one of the four primary classes of tissue?
cartilage tissue
93
Which of the following are branched?
reticular fibers
94
The gel of the extracellular matrix is composed mostly of water and
proteoglycans
95
The only type of cell seen in a tendon is
tendon
96
The shape of a person's external ear is due mainly to
elastic cartilage
97
The secretory cells of a gland are supported by a connective tissue framework called the
stroma
98
Glands that produce a thick, sticky secretion are called ___ glands.
mucous
99
___ are single mucus-secreting cells found in the epithelia of many mucous membranes.
goblet cells
100
A tissue most like the endothelium that lines the blood vessels is
mesothelium
101
The epithelium that lines the stomach and intestines is
simple columnar
102
In ___, cells and matrix are arranged in concentric layers around a central canal that contains blood vessels.
osseous (bone) tissue
103
Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
muscle
104
A/an ___ is a small sac of gland cells arranged around a space into which they secrete their product.
acinus
105
All glands that release their products by way of ducts, rather than directly into the bloodstream, are called ___ glands.
exocrine
106
A ___ is a relatively impenetrable attachment between two epithelial cells formed by membrane proteins that interlock somewhat like a zipper.
tight junction
107
In all mucous membranes, an epithelium rests on a connective tissue layer called
the lamina propria
108
Stem cells travel to and proliferate downward in this phase of the hair cycle:
anagen
109
The only type of muscle with multinucleated fibers is
skeletal muscle
110
Tendons and ligaments are made predominantly of the protein
collagen
111
Which type of epithelium is best suited for rapid filtration?
simple squamous
112
Tissue gel gets its viscous consistency from its
glycosaminoglycans
113
The nonliving material surrounding cells is called
matrix
114
The germ layer that gives rise to mucous membranes of the digestive and respiratory tracts is called
endoderm
115
An individual was born with Marfan's syndrome, which is a hereditary defect on chromosome 15. Symptoms of this disease include unusually tall stature, long limbs, and abnormal spinal curvature. Which germ layer is most likely affected by this hereditary disease?
mesoderm
116
This primary germ layer is the middle layer called _____ and gives rise to a gelatinous material called ____ that gives rise to the different types of connective tissue such as bone, muscle, and blood.
mesoderm; mesenchyme
117
This tissue regulates what enters and what leaves the body.
epitheal
118
A tissue containing ~20 layers of flat cells is called
stratified squamous
119
The epithelium lining the trachea is capable of
producing mucus and moving material across its surface
120
The epithelium that would most likely be found lining the esophagus and vagina is
nonkeratinized stratified squamous
121
Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in _____ and its function is _____.
kidney tubules; absorption
122
This cell is large and flat and produces the fibers and ground substance of connective tissue.
fibroblasts
123
A patient has an abnormally high concentration of basophils in his blood and mast cells in the surrounding connective tissue. The other white blood cell counts were normal. The patient most likely has
an allergy
124
The most common fiber in connective tissue is
collagen
125
If you were unable to produce the protein elastin that makes up elastic fibers, you would have great difficulty
breathing
126
Glycosaminoglycan (GAG) is a long polysaccharide composed of amino sugars and uronic acid. GAGs, such as hyaluronic acid, heparin, and chondroitin sulfate, are negatively charged. GAGs help give the ground substance some of its qualities such as
holding water and maintaining electrolyte balance
127
The connective tissue that forms the framework of organs and tissue such as lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus is composed primarily of fibroblasts and
reticular fibers
128
Which one of the following does not have an abundance of collagen fibers?
cartilage of the external ear
129
Adipose tissue in adults is primarily white fat, but infants and children also have brown fat. Infants and children have a need for brown fat because they
have a large surface area to volume ratio
130
Which of the following tissues is found in the dermis of the skin?
dense irregular
131
Which one of the following is not made of hyaline cartilage?
intervertebral disc
132
The ground substance of blood is called
plasma
133
The electrical charge difference across plasma membranes of all cells is called the
membrane potential
134
Which two muscle types form sphincters?
skeletal and smooth
135
Atoms forming molecules and compounds
Chemical
136
Molecules combine to form structural and functional components of cells
Cellular
137
Groups of similar cells doing a specific function
Tissue
138
Different tissues working together that have a specific function and shape
Organ
139
Groups of tissue and organs that have a similar function
System
140
An individual
Organism
141
Structures in a cell that has individual functions
Organelle
142
Make up organelles and cellular compounds
Molecules
143
Left-right reversal organ replacement
Situs inversus
144
Sum of all chemical processes in the body
Metabolism
145
The break down on molecules
Catabolism
146
Synthesis of larger molecules from smaller ones
Anabolism
147
Argued that constant internal conditions regardless of external
Claude Bernard
148
Coined homeostasis, the body fluctuates (dynamic equilibrium) within a limited range around a set point; negative feedback keeps variable close to set point. It
Walter Cannon
149
What systems control homeostasis?
Endocrine and nervous system
150
What happens when stress disrupts balance?
There is changes in heart rate (increases),changes in Bp(increases) and insulin lowers which spikes uptake and glycogen production to glucose in the liver
151
Vasodilation
Widening of blood vessels,leads to an increase in blood flow —> flushing
152
Output is intensified by stress,usually a deadly response, increase metabolic and heat production
Positive feedback
153
Control center that processes sensory information,makes a decision,and directs the response
Integrating center
154
Carries out the final corrective action to restore homeostasis
Effector
155
A with T; G with C is what law?
he law of complementary base pairings
156
Cytosine and Thymine have ________ carbon-nitrogen ring(s) and is classified as pyrimidines
a single
157
Adenine and Guanine have _________ carbon-nitrogen ring(s) and are classified as purines
Double
158
A filamentous material in the interphase nucleus, composed of DNA and associated proteins
Chromatin
159
A complex of DNA and protein that carries the genetic material of a cell's nucleus
Chromosome
160
[T/F] When a cell is ready to divide it makes an exact coy of its DNA?
True
161
A protein plaque on each side of the centromere
Kinetochore
162
Two genetically identical rodlike sister chromatids joined together at a pinched spot called the
Centromere
163
RNA's site of action is in the
Cytoplasm
164
A sequence of 3 nucleotides for 1 amino acid is called a
base triplet
165
A 3 sequence in mRNA is called a
codon
166
UAG,UGA, and UAA are examples of
stop codons
167
DNA ---> mRNA -----> Protein
Protein Synthesis
168
DNA to mRNA is
transcription
169
mRNA to protein is
translation
170
[T/F] The DNA is too large to leave the nucleus to go to the cytoplasm, therefore, it makes mRNA so that it can migrate to the cytoplasm
True
171
What does transcription mean?
Coying genetic instructions from DNA to RNA
172
RNA Polymerase does what?
It is an enzyme that binds to DNA and assembles RNA; it opens the DNA to read the bases to correspond with RNA's and rewinds the helix behind it.
Another RNA polymerase follows behind; several polymerases may transcribe a gene at once and numerous copies of RNA are made.
173
What is needed in order for the polymerase to connect to the promoter?
Transcription factors, coactivators and activators
174
What is pre-mRNA?
An "immature form" of RNA produced by transcription contains segments called exons that will be translated into proteins later on.
175
What are introns?
Segments that are removed before translation
176
Enzymes ________ introns and ____ the exons together, which leaves the nucleus.
Cut;Spliced
Introns removed while still in the nucleus and exons are exported out of the nucleus
177
What is alternative splicing?
One gene can code for more than one protein
178
What is translation?
Converts the language of the nucleotides into the language of the amino acids
179
Translation is carried out by
mRNA and tRNA
180
mRNA in translation:
Carried the genetic code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm. During its synthesis in the nucleus, mRNA acquires a protein cap that acts like a passport, permitting it to pass through the nuclear pore into the cytosol. The cap also acts as a recognition site that tells ribosomes where to begin translation
181
tRNA in translation:
Its job is to bind a free amino acid in the cytosol and deliver it to the ribosome to be added to a protein chain. It also has an anticodon
A series of 3 nucleotides complementary to a specific codon of mRNA.
The codon AUG is UAC (the anticodon).
The first tRNA to bind to a ribosome at the start of translation is the initiator tRNA, which always has UAC and carries methionine
182
What are ribosomes?
"Reading machines". Inactive ribosomes occur in either the small subunit or large subunit
183
3 binding sites:
A site (Accept a new amino acid); P site (carries the growing protein); E site (Exit)
184
Initiation
A small ribosomal subunit binds to a leader sequence of bases on the mRNA near the cap, then slides unit it recognizes the start codon AUD. an initiator tRNA with the anticodon UAC pairs with the start and settles into the P site of the ribosomes (the middle). The assembled ribosome embraces the mRNA to begin sliding and reading its bases. Has methionine (Met)
185
Elongation
the next tRNA arrives that carries another amino acid; it binds to the A site and its anticodon pairs with the second codon of mRNA- GCU. It creates a peptide bond between Met and Ala (alanine) then transfers it to threonine (Thr) to create another peptide bond. Creates a larger and larger protein
186
Termination
Ribosome reaches stop codon it’s A site binds a protein called a releasing factor instead of tRNA. The release factor causes the finished protein to break away from the ribosome. The ribosome dissociates and is reassembled on the same mRNA to repeat the process and make another copy.
187
Making proteins for packaging/export
If a protein is to be packaged into a lysosome or secreted from the cell, the ribosome docks on the rough ER to be modified into a transport vesicle.
188
Cluster of ribosomes, all translating the same mRNA
Polyribosome
189
Guides new proteins in folding into the proper shape and helps prevent improper use
Chaperone Proteins;
Stress proteins and heat shock, help damaged proteins fold back into their correct functional shape
190
Are genes turned on and off when needed or not?
Yes, for example, prolactin stimulates cells of mammary glands to produce breast milk; contains a protein called casein.
Prolactin binds to a receptor that triggers the activation of a regulatory protein (transcription activator). The regulatory protein binds to the DNA near the casein gene and enables RNA polymerase to bind to the gene and transcribe it = producing the mRNA for casein. Casein mRNA moves to be translated by ribosomes in the rough ER; the golgi packages casein into secretory vesicles and the vesicles release the casein by exocytosis and become part of breast milk.
191
The chromosomes become visible as paired chromatids and the nuclear envelope disappears. Spindle fibers.
Prophase
192
Chromosomes are aligned at the equator and waits for a signal to stimulate them to split in two at the centromere. Spindle fibers create a lemon shaped array called a mitotic spindle.
Metaphase
193
Activation of an enzyme that cleaves the two sister chromatids from each other at the centrone. Each chromatid is now a single stranded daughter chromosome. One daughter migrates from each pole and the fiber is “chewed up” .
Anaphase
194
Daughter chromosomes cluster on each side of the cell. The mitotic spindle breaks up and vanishes, each new nucleus forms nucleoli, indicating it has already begun making RNA and is preparing for protein synthesis.
Telophase
195
Division of the cytoplasm into two cells; cleavage furrow
Cytokinesis
196
Another polymerase moves away from the replication fork and copies only a short segment of DNA at a time, and the segments are later joined together by another enzyme called
DNA ligase
197
The old parental DNA and the two new daughter DNA
Semiconservation replication
198
What happens in the G1 phase?
An interval between cell division and DNA replication. A cell synthesizes proteins, grows, and carries out its preordained tasks for the body. This phase accumulates the materials needed to replicate DNA
199
What happens in the S phase?
It is the synthesis phase. A cell makes a duplicate copy of its centrioles and nuclear DNA. This point semiconservative replication occurs and two identical sets of DNA are divided between daughter cells at the next cell division.
200
What occurs in the G2 phase?
A cell exhibits growth, makes more organelles, finishes replicating its centrioles and synthesizes enzymes. This phase also checks DNA replication and corrects any errors.
201
G1,S, and G2 are
Interphase; the length of the cell cycle varies from tye of cell
201
G1,S, and G2 are
Interphase; the length of the cell cycle varies from tye of cell
202
G1,S, and G2 are
Interphase; the length of the cell cycle varies from tye of cell
203
What is G0 phase?
An inability to stop cycling and enter this phase is characteristic of cancer
204
What is M Phase?
Mitotic phase; a cell replicates its nucleus and pinches in two forms of daughter cells
205
A chemical messenger that stimulates mitosis and differentiation of target cells that have receptors for it; important in such processes as fetal development, tissue maintenance and repair, and hematopoiesis; sometimes a contributing factor in cancer.
Growth factors
206
The cessation of cell division in response to contact with other cells
Contact inhibition
207
Regulation of cell division includes
growth factors contact inhibition, checkpoints and cyclin
208
Cylin
control replication of DNA and centrioles in the S phase; the condensation of chromosomes, breakdown of the nuclear envelope, formation of the mitotic single, and attachment of chromosomes to the single in prophase; and splitting of the centromere and separation of the sister chromatids at anaphase
209
More forms of the same element contain equal numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons in their nuclei, and hence differ in relative atomic mass but not in chemical properties;
Isotope
210
Unstable isotopes
radioisotopes
211
High-energy electromagnetic rays eject electrons from atoms or molecules and convert them to ions, frequently causing cellular damage; for example, X-rays and gamma rays.
ionizing radiation
