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Physiology Exam 1 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is cell?

A

Basic unit of life

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2
Q

What are the three parts of the cell?

A

Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus

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3
Q

What is the plasma membrane?

A

Thin and flexible layer that separates the interior and the exterior of the cell

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4
Q

What is the function of the plasma membrane?

A

Protection against the external environment, aids in transport through in and out of the cell, and acts as a receptor in cell to cell recognition

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5
Q

The structure of plasma membrane consist?

A

Made out of double layers of lipids

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6
Q

What is the most abundant lipid in cell membrane?

A

Phospholipids

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7
Q

The head of the phospholipid are

A

hydrophilic and on the exterior

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8
Q

the tail of the phospholipid are

A

hydrophobic and in the interior

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9
Q

What are the types of protein?

A

Integral and peripheral proteins

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10
Q

What is Integral protein?

A

Abundant proteins in membrane and acts as a receptors

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11
Q

What is the function of peripheral proteins?

A

located I the cytoplasmic side and supports the network of filament in the cytoplasm

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12
Q

What is a Glycocalyx and the function?

A

sugar coated that is pointed out of glycoproteins or glycolipids. functions in cell to cell binding and recognition

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13
Q

What is passive transport?

A

Can pass freely in the area and works from higher to lower concentration

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14
Q

What is diffusion?

A

movement of small molecules and fat soluble across the membrane

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15
Q

What is active transport?

A

Larger Proteins or charged that are carried through a pun and involves in integral protein. Moves from lower to higher concentration

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16
Q

What transport needs ATP?

A

Active transport

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17
Q

What is vesicular or bulk transport?

A

Large particles or macromolecules pass through membrane through exocytosis and endocytosis

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18
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

It is the process where the internal contents are released outside of the cell

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19
Q

How does the process of exocytosis?

A

Proteins extending form the vesicle membrane vSNAREs, binds with plasma membrane proteins, and the target SNAREs which causes the lipid layers to fuse together with the cell membrane

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20
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

Bring large molecules though the cell through an initial infolding part of the plasma membrane that encloses them to form cytoplasmic vesicles.

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21
Q

What are the three types of endocytosis?

A

phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis

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22
Q

What is the process of phagocytosis?

A

cell eating

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23
Q

What is the process of pinocytosis?

A

cell drinking

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24
Q

What is the process of receptor-mediated endocytosis?

A

Selective mechanism, attaches to a receptor on the membrane before being taken into the cells in a protein coated vesicle

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25
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia causes

A

inherited disease where cells lack receptor that binds to cholesterol. As a result, it leads to an accumulation of cholesterol in the blood which causes hypercholesterolemia and atherosclerosis(obstruction of blood vessel) leading up to stroke or myocardial infarction

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26
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

the site of protein production, and granules with no membrane

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27
Q

What is the rough ER?

A

involved with protein synthesis through ribosomes and transportation in vesicles

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28
Q

What is the smooth ER?

A

detoxification, lipid metabolism, lipid synthesis, and has no ribosomes

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29
Q

What is the Golgi apparatus?

A

it sorts the products from the rough ER, packages, and send them to proper location. Also, secretory granules and lysosomes arises from there

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30
Q

What is the mitochrondria?

A

main energy source and site of ATP synthesis

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31
Q

What are Lysosomes?

A

digestive enzymes of acid hydrolyses

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32
Q

The function of lysosomes is

A

intracellular digestion, destroys damaged organelles and substances brought by cells in vesicles

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33
Q

Explain the Tay-sachs disease?

A

it is an inherited disease where they lack lysosomes enzymes to break down glycolipids. Resulting in accumulation in cell membrane on neurons

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34
Q

What can Tay-sachs disease result in?

A

mental retardation, blindness, spastic movements, and death within 1.5 years of birth

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35
Q

What is Gaucher’s disease?

A

the lack of the glucocerebrosidase enzyme causes harmful substances to build up in the liver, spleen, boned, and bone marrow. Resulting in cells and organs not being able to work properly

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36
Q

Explain the Type 1 Gaucher’s disease?

A

most common, affects both children and adults, and involve bone disease, anemia, an enlarged spleen and thrombocytopenia

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37
Q

Explain the Type 2 Gaucher’s disease

A

Begins in infancy with severe neurologic involvement and leads to rapid easy death

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38
Q

Explain Type 3 Gaucher’s disease

A

Causes liver, spleen, and brain problems, may live up to adulthood

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39
Q

What are the symptoms of Gaucher’s disease?

A

Bone pain and fractures, enlarged spleen, enlarged liver, lung disease, and seizures

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40
Q

What are peroxisomes?

A

enzymes that contains oxidase and catalase enzymes. Oxidase uses oxygen to neutralize aggressively reactive substances called free radicals by converting them to hydrogen peroxide

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41
Q

What is the function of microtubules?

A

give cell its shape, organize distributions, and transport various organelles in cytoplasm

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42
Q

what is the function microfilaments?

A

generates contractile forces within the cell such as muscle contraction, and other typed of cellular movements

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43
Q

What is the function of intermediate filaments?

A

tough fibers to resist tension placed on the cell

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44
Q

How Glucose transport into the target cell?

A

With insulin or otherwise it leads to hyperglycemia

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45
Q

Glucose formula

A

Glucose is brought to the cell; NAD is coenzymes is reduced by hydrogen ions. There’s no sufficient oxygen aerobic. The pyretic acid is not able to enter into mitochondria. Pyruvuc stays in cytoplasm, then the pyretic acid is reduced to lactic acid. Lactic acid is a good sign fr disorders such as myocardial infarction. MI cannot receive enough oxygen.

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46
Q

Glucose formula

A

Glucose is brought to the cell; NAD is coenzymes is reduced by hydrogen ions. There’s no sufficient oxygen aerobic. The pyretic acid is not able to enter into mitochondria. Pyruvuc stays in cytoplasm, then the pyretic acid is reduced to lactic acid. Lactic acid is a good sign fr disorders such as myocardial infarction. MI cannot receive enough oxygen.

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47
Q

What is the main parts of the nucleus?

A

Nuclear, envelope, chromatin and chromosomes, and nucleoli

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48
Q

Nuclear envelope

A

Surrounds the nucleus and has pores and is continuous with endoplasmic reticulum

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49
Q

What is Glycogenenis?

A

Extra glucose gets into liver, liver accumulates the glucose, then converts into glycogen (large molecule).

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50
Q

What is the nucleolus?

A

Dark staining body within the nucleus. Contains parts of chromosomes and it’s cells ribosome producing machine

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51
Q

What are chromatin and chromosomes?

A

granular thread-like material in the nucleus composed of DNA and histone proteins

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52
Q

Krebb cycle/ Aerobic cell respiration

A

when pyretic acid gets mitochondria, consumes the pyretic acid in the cycle meanwhile it releases carbon dioxide and water, the last molecule used in ATP is oxygen

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53
Q

What is the first step of electron transport chain?

A

NADH and FADH bring high energy electrons and proton to the crustal from either glycolysis or the Krebs cycle

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54
Q

What are the chemiosmosis steps?

A

NadH and FAD carries hydrogen ions and electrons. First electrons passes through electron transport chain of crustal membrane, once it loses its power, then it releases hydrogen ions from NAD, FAD. then it is able to move from matrix to other compartment after a while concentration increases in other part then it is chemiosmiosis. simple diffusion of hydrogen ions fuses back into the matrix. Then it passes through if the ATP synthase where there’s formation of water, ATP, and releases the CO2.

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55
Q

What is DNA?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid and constitutes go genes

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56
Q

what happens in the Interphase part of the cell?

A

cell grows and carries on its usual activities

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57
Q

What is Gap1 in the interphase?

A

cells are active and grow vigorously and controls start to replicate

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58
Q

What is the S phase in Interphase?

A

DNA replicates itself for the future two daughter cells having identical genetic material

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59
Q

what is gap 2 in interphase?

A

enzymes needed for cell division are synthesized , centrioles finish replication and cells get ready to divide

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60
Q

What is mitosis

A

When cells divide into 2 cells

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61
Q

What are the four stages of mitosis?

A

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

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62
Q

What happenes in Prophase?

A

1) Asters(stars form)
2) Chromosomes are formed from coiling and condensation of a chromatin threads
3)Nucleolic disappear
4)Centriole pairs separate
5) Nuclear envelope fragments
6) Microtubules disables and are newly assembled to form mitotic spindles which lengthen and push the centrioles farther apart to the poles of the cell

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63
Q

What happens in Metaphase?

A

Chromosomes cluster at the middle of the cell, to form a metaphase plate

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64
Q

What is separase?

A

an enzyme which cleaves cohesion, start to separates the chromatids

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65
Q

What is anaphase?

A

The V-shaped chromatids are pulled apart* by the kinetochore spindles to become the chromosomes of the daughter cells, and the polar spindles still push against each other to elongate the cell

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66
Q

Telophase

A

chromosomes at the opposite sides of the cell uncoil and resume extension of the chromatin
-nuclear envelope forms by rER
-Nuclear appear

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67
Q

what is the process of cytokinesis?

A

For a short period, the cell has 2 nuclei until it is completely separated

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68
Q

What is meiosis?

A

specialization process used to produce gametes or sex cells

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69
Q

What are the important events that happened in meiosis?

A

!0 synapsis:pairing of 46 homologous duplicated chromosomes
2) Crossing over: large segments of DNA are exchanged
3)Alignment: 46 homologous duplicated chromosomes align at the metaphase plate
4) Disjunction: 46 homologous duplicated chromosomes separate from each other, centromeres do not split
5) cell division: two secondary gametocytes(23 duplicated chromosomes, 2N) are formed

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70
Q

What are the important events that happens in meiosis 2?

A

1)Alignment: 23 duplicated chromosomes align at the metaphase plate
2) disjunction: 23 duplicated chromosomes separate to form 23 single chromosomes; centromeres split
3) Cell division: four games (23 single chromosomes, 1N) are found

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71
Q

What is absent in meiosis 2?

A

synapsis and crossing over

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72
Q

What is Aneuploidy

A

abnormal number of chromosomes (trisomy or monosomy)

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73
Q

Down syndrome

A

trisomy 21

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74
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

XXY

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75
Q

Turner

A

XO; monosomy

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76
Q

What are gametes?

A

contains 23 single chromosomes and 1N amount of DNA

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77
Q

Females only contain what gene?

A

X sex chromosomes

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78
Q

Male gametes only contain what sex chromosomes?

A

either X or Y chromosomes

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79
Q

Who determine genetic sex of an individual?

A

Male

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80
Q

Who determine genetic sex of an individual?

A

Male

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81
Q

What is aging?

A

Aging is complex and may involve cell damage due to free radicals as a result of normal cell metabolism or cell injury due to radiation and chemical pollutants

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82
Q

Define Mitochondrial theory of aging

A

involves a decrease of energy production by radical-damaged mitochondria which weakens and ages the cell

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83
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Programmed cell death because of normal maintenance or during development

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84
Q

When cells that undergo apoptosis have several morphological features such as?

A

chromatin condensation, breaking up of the nucleus, and plasma membrane

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85
Q

apoptotic bodies

A

the cell shrinks and is fragmented into membrane-enclosed fragments

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86
Q

How can signals that induce apoptosis?

A

through several mechanisms

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87
Q

Defects in the apoptosis may contribute to disease such as

A

Alzheimer disease, stoke

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88
Q

What are oncogenes

A

result of mutations of certain regulatory genes (protooncogenes) which normally stimulates or inhibits cell proliferation and development

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89
Q

What are tissues?

A

are collection of structurally similar cells with related function

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90
Q

What is the function of the nervous tissue?

A

specialized to react to stimuli and to conduct impulses to various organs in the body which bring about a response to the stimulus

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91
Q

What is the function of epithelial tissue?

A

Protection, sensation sensory stimuli, secretion ion glands, and absorption, excretion, diffusion, cleaning, and reduces friction

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92
Q

what is the function of simple squamous epithelia?

A

seen in the lining body cavities and capillaries to reduces friction and facilitate gas exchange; also flat so gas and liquid can pass through them

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93
Q

What is the function of the simple cuboidal epithelium?

A

secretion and absorption

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94
Q

Where is the simple cuboidal epithelium?

A

found in glands, and the lining of the kidney tubes and the ducts of the hands.

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95
Q

What is the location of the simple columnar epithelium?

A

the lining of the stomach and intestines.

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96
Q

What is the function of the simple columnar epithelium?

A

secrete mucus or slime

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97
Q

What is the function of the pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

A

secretion, mucus

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98
Q

What is the location of the pseudo stratified columnar epithelium?

A

Ducts of the large glands ciliated variety lines the trachea, most upper respiratory tract

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99
Q

What is the function of the stratified cuboidal epithelia?

A

protection

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100
Q

What is the function of the stratified columnar epithelium?

A

protection and secretion

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101
Q

What is the location of the stratified columnar epithelium?

A

small amount in male urethra and in large ducts of some glands

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102
Q

Where is the stratified squamous epithelium?

A

vagina

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103
Q

Where is the transitional epithelium located?

A

lines the ureters, bladder, and part of the urethra

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104
Q

What is the function of the traditional epithelium?

A

stretches readily and permits distension of urinary organ by contacted urine

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105
Q

What is an exocrine gland?

A

secret their products onto body surfaces or body cavities

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106
Q

What does endocrine glands do?

A

secrete hormones

107
Q

What is the merocrine method?

A

Cells secrete products by form membrane-bound sectors vesicles internal to the cell; most glands secrete their products that way

108
Q

What is the apocrine method?

A

glands released product by the apical portions of cells are pinched off and lost during the secretory process

109
Q

What is the holocrine release?

A

death of the cell; sweat glands, pubic areas, around the areole of the breast, and sebaceous glands

110
Q

What are the factors that hold epithelial cells together?

A

Adhesion proteins link plasma membranes of adjacent cells, contours of adjacent cell membranes

111
Q

What is tight junction (zone occludes)

A

junction complex, formed by Claudio and occluding proteins, joining the cytoskeletons of the adjacent cells

112
Q

What are the function of the tight junctions?

A

hold cells together, block movement of integral membrane proteins between the apical and basolateral surfaces of the cell (preserve the trans cellular transport), prevent the passage of molecules and ions through the space between cells

113
Q

Desmosomes

A

1) two disc-like plaques connected across intercellular space
2)Plaques of adding cells are joined by proteins called cadherins
3)Proteins interdigitate into extracellular space
4)Intermediate filaments insert into plaques from cytoplasmic side

114
Q

Gap junctions

A

1)passageways between two adjacent cells
2) they let small molecules move directly between neighboring cells
3) cells are connected by hollow cylinders of protein

115
Q

what is Marfan syndrome?

A

autosomal dominant genetic disorder of the connective tissue characterized by disproportionately long limbs, long thin fingers, a relatively tall strature, and a predisposition to cardiovascular abnormalities, specifically those affecting the the heart valves and aorta

116
Q

What is the pathogenesis?

A

linked to a defect in the gene on chromosomes 15 which encodes a glycoprotein called fibrillar-1, which is essential for the formation of the elastic fibers found in connective tissue

117
Q

What is Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A

group of rare genetic disorders affecting humans and domestic animals caused by a defect in collagen synthesis (1 and 3)

118
Q

What are body fluids?

A

67% is water within the cell, 33% of water compromises the extracellular compartment, and 20% of this extrecular fluid os contained the vessels of the cardiovascular system specifically of blood plasma

119
Q

what is the extracellular matrix?

A

extracellular environment fluid within a matrix of glycoproteins and proteoglycans; consists of the protein fibers collagen and elastin. The fluid provides nutrients and regulatory molecules to the cells,

120
Q

What are the integrins?

A

are a class of glycoproteins that extend from the cytoskeleton within a cell through its plasma membrane and into the cellular matrix. serves as a adhesion molecule between the cells and the extracellular matrix

121
Q

What is passive transport?

A

the net movement of molecules and ions across a membrane from higher to know concentration, doesn’t require energy.

122
Q

What are the three different types of passive transport?

A

simple diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion

123
Q

Simple diffusion

A

not carrier-mediated, occurs down, and passive

124
Q

what is active transport?

A

net movement across a membrane that occurs against a concentration gradient (low to high concentration). Requires energy and specific carrier proteins

125
Q

What are factors that increases permeability?

A

High oil/water partition coefficient of the solute increases soluability in the lipid of the membrane, decrease radius(size) of the solute increases the speed of diffusion, decrease membrane thickness decreases the diffusion distance

126
Q

True or False: Small hydrophobic solutes have the highest permeabilities in lipid membranes

127
Q

Hydrophilic solutes must cross cell membrane through water-filled channel or

128
Q

If the solute is an ion, then its flux will depend on both what?

A

concentration difference and the potential difference across the membrane

129
Q

What are the characteristries of carrier-mediated transport?

A

-stereospecificty
-saturation
-competition

130
Q

what are the characteristics of facilitated diffusion?

A

occurs down, passive, more rapid, carrier mediated

131
Q

What is an example of facilitated diffusion?

A

glucose transport in muscle and adipose cells in downhill is carrier-mediated, and is inhibited by sugars such as galactose, therefore, it is categorized as facilitated diffusion

132
Q

What is an example of facilitated diffusion?

A

glucose transport in muscle and adipose cells in downhill is carrier-mediated, and is inhibited by sugars such as galactose, therefore, it is categorized as facilitated diffusion

133
Q

What are characteristics of primary active transport?

A

-occurs against an electrochemical gradient
-requires ATP
-carrier-mediated

134
Q

Whata are examples of primary active transport?

A

-sodium and calcium pump
-Ca2-ATPase(or Ca2+ pump)
-h+, proton pump

135
Q

What Arte the characeristics of secondary active transport?

A
  1. The transport of two or more solutes is coupled
  2. transported uphill and provides energy for the uphill transport for other solute
  3. Metabolic energy is not provided directly, however, indirectly from sodium from gradient
  4. cotransport or symport
  5. counter transport, exchange, or anti port
136
Q

Cotransport (symport)

A

if the solutes move in the same direction across the cell membrane

137
Q

Countertransport, exchange, et antiport

A

if the solutes move in opposite directions across the cell membrane

138
Q

what is osmolarity?

A

the concentration of osmotically active particles in a solution

139
Q

What are isosmotic?

A

two solution that have same calculated osmolarity

140
Q

What is the hyper osmotic?

A

the solution with the higher osmolarity

141
Q

What is hyposmotic?

A

solution with the lower osmolarity

142
Q

What is the osmosis?

A

the flow of water across a semipermeable membrane from a solution with low solute concentration to a solution with high solute concentration

143
Q

When the OP increases, what happens to the solute concentration?

144
Q

The higher the osmotic pressure, how does it affect the water flow?

A

the greater the water flow

145
Q

What is colloid osmotic pressure?

A

the osmotic pressure created by proteins (plasma proteins)

146
Q

What is colloid osmotic pressure?

A

the osmotic pressure created by proteins (plasma proteins)

147
Q

What is the reflection coefficient?

A

the number between zero and one that describes the ease with which a solute permeates a membrane

148
Q

What does it mean when the RC is one?

A

impermeable; exert maximal effective osmotic pressure

149
Q

What does the RC is zero?

A

completely permeable

150
Q

What is an effective osmotic pressure?

A

The osmotic pressure multiplied by the reflection coefficient

151
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

genetic defect abnormal Nail and water movement occurs across wt epithelial membranes

152
Q

What is the pathophysiology of CF?

A

When there’s mutation in the CFTR gene where this channel controls movement of chloride from inside to the outside of the cell. However, when is does not work, chloride is trapped inside the cell

153
Q

What is the pathophysiology of CF?

A

When there’s mutation in the CFTR gene where this channel controls movement of chloride from inside to the outside of the cell. However, when is does not work, chloride is trapped inside the cell

154
Q

how the regulation of blood osmolality works?

A
  1. Increased plasma osmolality stimulates osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus of the brain
  2. The osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus then stimulate a tract of axons that terminate in the posterior pituitary which causes the posterior pituitary to release antiderietic hormone into the blood
  3. ADH acts on the kidney to proton water retention, so that a lower volume of more concentrated urine is excreted
155
Q

What is the normal osmolality in plasma?

A

280-303 mili-osmoses per kilogram

156
Q

What is edema?

A

when the return returns from tissue fluid to blood capillaries because the protein concentration of blood plasma is higher than the protein concentration of tissue fluid. However, plasma protein are able to pass from the cappilaries into the tissue fluid. Which leads to low concentration of plasma proteins, furthering to accumulation of fluid ion tissue.

157
Q

What is hyperglycemia?

A

if the concentration of glucose and filtrate is high which can further to too much sugar in the blood (glucouria). this may lead to the insulin not being able to function properly due to consumption of too much sugar which then can eat to diabetes mellitus(higher than 120)

158
Q

What is hypoglycemia?

A

when the plasma glucose concentration is abnormally low. (lower than 50)

159
Q

What is oral rehydration therapy?

A
  1. The absorption of water by osmosis across the intestine is proportional to the absorption of sodium
  2. The intestinal epithelium cotransport sodium and glucose
160
Q

What is diffusion potential

A

the potential difference generated across a membrane because of a concentration difference of an ion

161
Q

When can diffusion potential be generated?

A

when membrane is permeable to the ion

162
Q

What does the size of diffusion potential depend on?

A

the size of the concentration gradient

163
Q

What is the equilibrium potential?

A

diffusion potential that exactly balances(opposes) the tendency for diffusion caused by a concentration difference

164
Q

What is the Nernst equation is used for?

A

calculate the equilibrium potential at a given concentration difference of a permeable ion. across a cell membrane

165
Q

What is the approximate values for EP for sodium?

A

positive 65 mV

166
Q

What is the approximate values for EP for Calcium?

167
Q

What is the approximate values for EP for Potassium?

168
Q

what is the approximate values for EP for chloride?

169
Q

Describe resting membrane potential?

A

the measured potential difference across the cell membrane in mini volts; -70

170
Q

What does the depolarization makes the membrane?

A

less negative

171
Q

What does the hyperpolization make the membrane?

A

more negative

172
Q

What is the inward current?

A

the flow of positive charge into the cells; depolarizes the membrane potential

173
Q

What is the outward current?

A

the flow of positive charge out of the cell; hyper polarizes the membrane potential

174
Q

what is action potential?

A

property of excitable cells that consists of a rapid depolarization to upstroke followed by repolarization of the membrane potential

175
Q

What is threshold?

A

the membrane potential at which the action potential is inevitable

176
Q

What happens in resting membrane potential?

A

the rest of the high resting conductance to potassium, which drive the membrane potential toward the potassium equilibrium potential; the sodium channel are closed and the sodium conductance are low

177
Q

Describe the the upstroke of the action potential?

A
  1. Inward current depolarizes the membrane potential to threshold
  2. Depolarization causes rapid opening of the activation gates of the Na channel, and the sodium conductance of the membrane promptly increases
  3. The sodium conductance becomes higher than the potassium conductance and the membrane potential is drive toward the sodium equilibrium potential of +65, Thus the rapid depolarization during the upstroke is caused by an inward sodium current
  4. The overshoot is the brief portion at the peak of the action potential when membrane potential is positive
  5. Tetrodotoxin(TTX) blocks these voltage-sensitive sodium channels and abolishes action potential
178
Q

Describe the depolarization of the action potential?

A
  1. Depolarization also closes the inactivation gates of the sodium channel.Closure of the inactivation gates results in closure of the sodium channels, and the sodium conductance returns toward zero.
  2. Depolarization slowly opens potassium channel and increases potassium conductance to even higher levels than at rest
  3. The combined effect of closing the sodium channels and greater opening of the potassium channels makes the potassium conductance higher than the sodium conductance, and the membrane potential is depolarized. Thus, depolarization is caused by an outward potassium current
179
Q

What id absolute refractory period?

A

the period during which another action potential cannot be elicited, no matter how large the stimulus

180
Q

What is relative refectory period?

A
  1. begins at the end of the absolute refectory period and continues until the membrane potential returns to the resting level
  2. An action potential can be elicited during this period only if a larger than usual inward current is provided
181
Q

What is accommodation?

A

-occurs when the cell membrane is held at a depolarized level such that the threshold potential is passed without firing an action potential

182
Q

What is accommodation?

A

-occurs when the cell membrane is held at a depolarized level such that the threshold potential is passed without firing an action potential

183
Q

how is conduction velocity is increased by?

A
  1. Increased fiber size. Increasing the diameter of a nerve fiber results in decreased internal resistance; this conduction velocity down the nerve is faster
  2. Myelination. Myeline acts as an insulator around nerve axons and increases conduction velocity. Myelinated b=nerves exhibit saltatory conduction because action potential can degenerated only at the nodes of ranvier where there are gaps in the myelin sheath
184
Q

What is serotonin?

A

present in high concentration in brainstem; formed tryptophan; converted to melatonin in the pineal gland

185
Q

What is histamine?

A
  1. formed from histidine
  2. present in the neurons of the hypothalamus
186
Q

What is glutamate?

A
  1. most prevalent excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain
  2. khanate receptor, which is an ion channel for sodium and potassium
187
Q

What is GABA?

A
  1. inhibitory neurotransmitter
  2. synthesized from glutamate by glutamate decarboxylase
    -The GABAa receptor increases Cl conductance and is the site of action of benzodiazepines and barbiturates
    -The GABAb receptor increases potassium conductance
188
Q

What is Glycine?

A
  1. inhibitory neurotransmitter found primarily in the spinal cord and the brain stem
  2. increases Cl conductance
189
Q

What is Glycine?

A
  1. inhibitory neurotransmitter found primarily in the spinal cord and the brain stem
  2. increases Cl conductance
190
Q

What is dopamine?

A
  1. prominent in midbrain neurons
  2. released from the hypothalamus and inhibits prolactin secretion
  3. metabolized by MAO and COMT
    -D1 receptors activate adenylate cyclase via a Gs protein
    -D2 receptors inhibit adenylate cyclase via a Gi protein
    -Parkinson’s disease involves degeneration of dopaminergic neurons that use the D2 receptors
    -schizophrenia involves increased levels of D2 receptors
191
Q

What is the epinephrine?

A
  1. synthesized from norepinephrine by the action of phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase
  2. secreted, along with norepinephrine, from the adrenal medulla
192
Q

What is norepinephrine?

A
  1. primary transmitter released from postganglionic sympathetic neurons
  2. synthesized in the nerve terminal and released into the synapse to bind with alpha or beta receptors on the postsynaptic membrane
  3. removed from the synapse by reuptake or is metabolize in the presynaptic terminal by monamine oxide(MAO) and catechol-O-methyltransferase(COMT)
193
Q

What is pheochromocytoma?

A

urinary excretion of Via is increased

194
Q

What are the neurotransmitters?

A

Ach, norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, histamine, glutamate, GABA, and glycine

195
Q

What is one-to-one synapses?

A

an action potential in the presynaptic element produces an action potential in the postsynaptic element

196
Q

What is many-to one synapses?

A

an action potential in a single presynaptic cell is sufficient to produce an action potential ion the postsynaptic cell. Instead, many cells synapse on the postsynaptic cell to depolarize it to threshold. The presynaptic input may be excitatory or inhibitory

197
Q

What is excitatory postsynaptic potential?

A
  1. inputs that depolarizes the postsynaptic cell, bringing it closer to threshold and closer to firing an action potential
  2. are caused by opening of channels that are permeable to Na and K, similar to Act channels.
198
Q

What is inhibitory postsynaptic potentials?

A

-inputs that hyper polarize the postsynaptic cell, moving it away from threshold and farther from firing and action potential
-caused by opening Cl channels

199
Q

What is myasthenia graves?

A

-caused by the presence of antibodies to the Act receptors
-characterized by skeletal muscle weakness and fatibability resulting from a reduced number of Act receptors on the muscle end plate
-the size of EPP is reduced; therefore, it os more difficult to depolarize the muscle membrane to threshold and to produce action potential
Treatment: AChE inhibitors

200
Q

what is neuromuscular junction?

A

the snaps between axons of motoneurons and skeletal muscle
-the neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic terminal is Act,and the postsynaptic membrane contains a nicotinic receptor

201
Q

What is the process of neuromuscular junction?

A
  1. Synthesis and storage of Act in the presynaptic terminal
  2. Depolarization of the presynaptic terminal and calcium uptake
  3. Calcium uptake causes releases of Act into the synaptic cleft
  4. Diffusion of Act to the postsynaptic membrane and binding of Act to nicotinic receptors
  5. End plate potential in the postsynaptic membane
  6. Depolarization of adjacent muscle membrane to threshold
  7. Degradation of Act
202
Q

What is the general characteristics of chemical synapses?

A
  1. An action potential in the presynaptic cell causes depolarization of the presynaptic terminal
  2. As the result of the depolarization, Calcium enters the presynaptic terminal, causing release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft
  3. Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and combines with receptors on the postsynaptic cell membrane, causing a change in its permeability to ions and consequently, a change in its membrane potential
  4. Inhibitor neurotransmitter hyper polarize the postsynaptic membrane; excitatory neurotransmitters depolarize the postsynaptic membrane
203
Q

Atom

A

smallest particle characterizing a chemical element

204
Q

electron

A

negative charge; small-sized

205
Q

proton

A

positive charge; massive than electron

206
Q

neutrons

A

no charge; same sized protons

207
Q

atomic mass

A

sum of the proton and neutrons in an atom

208
Q

atomic number

A

the number of proton sin an atom s given as its atomic number

209
Q

isotopes

A

same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons

210
Q

What is the three types of chemical bonding?

A

Covalent, Ionic, and Hydrogen

211
Q

What is a covalent bond

A

bond is which one or more pairs of electrons are shared by two atoms

212
Q

What is ionic bond?

A

bond in which one or more electrons from one atom are removed and attached to another atom, resulting in positive and negative ions which attract each other

213
Q

What is an acid?

A

ionic compounds that break apart in water to form a hydrogen ion; react strongly with metals; the stronger hydrogen, the stronger the acid

214
Q

What is the bases?

A

ionic compounds that break apart to form a negatively charged hydroxide ion in water; OH concentrated

214
Q

What is the bases?

A

ionic compounds that break apart to form a negatively charged hydroxide ion in water; OH concentrated

215
Q

What is the neutralization reaction?

A

Acid+ Base= Salt + Water

216
Q

ph

A

strength of acid or base in a solution

217
Q

What is galactosemia?

A

inherited autosomal recessive trait that affects the way the sugar galactose is broken down, due to the lack of the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase

218
Q

What are the symptoms of galactosemia?

A

swollen and inflamed liver, kidney failure, ovarian failure in girls, mental growth, and cataracts in the eyes

219
Q

What is the treatment?

A

restrict galactose and lactose from the diet

220
Q

What is the function pf protein?

A
  1. Binding, transport, and storage
  2. Molecular switching
  3. Coordinated motion
  4. Structural support
  5. Immune protection
  6. Generation and transmission of nerve impulses
  7. Control of growth and differentiation
221
Q

What is marasmus?

A

severe protein-energy malnutrition characterized b energy defienciency

222
Q

What are the signs of marasmus?

A
  1. Dry skin, loose skin folds hanging over the glut, axial,
  2. Drastic loss od adipose tissue from normal areas of fat deposits like buttocks and thighs
  3. Often fretful, irritable, and voraciously hungry
  4. There may be alternate bands of pigmented or depigmented hair, or flaky paint appearance f skin due to peeling
223
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

build of lipids that forms a plaque which causes blockage to the arteries

224
Q

symptoms of atherosclerosis

A

slows or stop heart, angina, shortness of breath, heart attack

225
Q

What are ketone bodies?

A

three water soluble compounds that are produced as by-products when fatty acids are broken down for energy; source od energy in the heart and brain

226
Q

What are the three ketone bodies?

A

acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, and acetone

227
Q

what is ketosis?

A

When the excess amount of ketone bodies accumulate, leads to an abnormality not yet harmful

228
Q

What is ketoacidosis?

A

large amount of ketone bodies accumulates such that the body’s pH is lowered to dangerously acidic levels

229
Q

How does it relate to diabetes?

A

When person has diabetes, the bodies do not revceive enough insulin, so it leads to ketone bodies being released. Then it enters bloodstream, acidifies the blood, and excretes through ruin,. However, without treatment, accumulation of glucose and ketone bodies may reach dangerous levels,

229
Q

How does it relate to diabetes?

A

When person has diabetes, the bodies do not revceive enough insulin, so it leads to ketone bodies being released. Then it enters bloodstream, acidifies the blood, and excretes through ruin,. However, without treatment, accumulation of glucose and ketone bodies may reach dangerous levels,

230
Q

Signs and Symptoms of glucose and ketone overload?

A
  1. thirst, frequent urination, dehydration, nausea, heavy breathing, dilation of pupils and confusion, fruity order, even lead to death or coma
231
Q

What is the treatment for this condition of overload of glucose ad ketone accumulation?

A

0insulin and intravenous to restore blood sugar and end ketoacidosis and ketonuria

232
Q

What are steroid

A

cholesterol is a precursor for the sex hormones produced by gonads and adrenal medulla

233
Q

What are the role of prostaglandins?

A

causes constriction or dilation in vascular smooth muscle cells, sensitize spinal neurons to pain, constrict smooth muscle, regulate inflammatory mediation, regulate calcium movement, regulate hormone regulation, control cell growth

234
Q

What is the lock and key model?

A

the active site is reshaped by the interaction of the substrate with the enzyme, until it binds to the active site, where it is able to perform their catalytic functions

234
Q

What is the lock and key model?

A

the active site is reshaped by the interaction of the substrate with the enzyme, until it binds to the active site, where it is able to perform their catalytic functions

235
Q

What is the effect of the temperature e and pH on enzymes>

A

the increase of temperature may increase rate of non-catalyzed reactions. At 0 edges of celsius, occurs slow, if raised above the temperature,e, reaction rate increases, but by a point. If the few degrees above body’s temperature, it plateaus.

235
Q

What is the effect of the temperature e and pH on enzymes>

A

the increase of temperature may increase rate of non-catalyzed reactions. At 0 edges of celsius, occurs slow, if raised above the temperature,e, reaction rate increases, but by a point. If the few degrees above body’s temperature, it plateaus.

236
Q

What are cofactors?

A

enzymes don’t need additional components to show full activity, however, others may require a non-protein molecule to be bound for activity

237
Q

What are coenzymes?

A

organic molecules that are needed for the function of particular enzymes

238
Q

Describe oxidation

A

loses electrons

239
Q

Describe reduction

A

gains electron

240
Q

Metabolism

A

complete set of chemical reactions that occur in living cells which include basis of life, allowing cells to grow and reproduce, maintain their structure, and respond to their environment

241
Q

catabolism

A

releases energy by breaking down of larger organic molecules scubas glucose, fatty acids, amino acids into smaller molecules

242
Q

anabolism

A

require the input of energy and include the
synthesis of large energy-storage molecules, including glycogen, fat,
and protein.

243
Q

What is glycolysis?

A

conversion from glucose a 6 carbon sugar into pyruvate

243
Q

What is glycolysis?

A

conversion from glucose a 6 carbon sugar into pyruvate

244
Q

What is the formula of glycolysis?

A

glucose + 2NAD 2 ADP + 2Pi=2 pyretic acid + 2 ANDH + 2 ATP

245
Q

function of NAD

A

carrier of electrons in the transfer of reduction potential

246
Q

function of FAD

A

energy-carrying molecule

247
Q

full name of FAD

A

flavine adenine dinucleotide

248
Q

full name of NAD

A

nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

249
Q

What is aerobic?

A

metabolic pathways by which glucose is converted to lactic acid

250
Q

what is fermentation?

A

process of energy production in a cell under anaerobic conditions; anaerobic respiration

251
Q

what is ischemia?

A

insuffienct oxygen to an organ; which is associated with increased levels of lactic

251
Q

what is ischemia?

A

insuffienct oxygen to an organ; which is associated with increased levels of lactic acid

252
Q

What and where is glycogenolysis

A

the enzymes of glycogen catalyzes te breakdown of glycogen into glucose-1-phosphate; occurs in the liver and skeletal muscle

253
Q

what and where is gluconerogenesis?

A

conversion of pyruvate glucose into glucose; occurs in the liver

254
Q

Where is the cori cycle located?

A

skeletal muscle

255
Q

Describe the structure of the mitchondria?

A

outer membrane, inner membrane, inter membrane space, matrix, and crista

256
Q

Cori cycle

A

gluconeogensiss in the liver allows depleted skeletal muscles glycogen to be resotred within 48 hours

257
Q

What are the different uses of energy sources?

A

The blood as it carries glucose and ketone bodies from the liver, fatty acids from fat tissue, lactic acid and amino acid from amino acids.

Physiology Exam 1 (6 decks)

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