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Laboratory Management > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

According to Hersey & Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Theory, what style would work best for employees both unskilled and unwilling to perform?

A

directing

coaching

supporting

delegating (answer)

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2
Q

What is the term that signifies any informal/formal, planned/unplanned interactions with the employee between the acceptance of the job offer through the first 90 days of the job?

A

Onboarding

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3
Q

Which leadership style only works well with highly skilled and motivated teams because the leader avoids making decisions and delegates responsibility for determining what work will be performed?

A

laissez-faire

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4
Q

D.
Mayo proved workplace conditions impact productivity.

J.
McGregor found proposed there are two types of employees: a person refusing work and a person cheering to work.

C.
A german biologist, Bertalanffy, introduced this theory which was later applied to Katz & Kahn’s Open Systems Theory of organizations.

B.
The engineer, Taylor, applied time and motion studies to reduce the time or number of movements to effectively and efficiently person a task.

G.
Weber’s rational-legal approach advocated for standard guidelines for hiring and firing, clear rules for performance assessment, and legitimate power.

F.
This theory by Orton and Weick concludes that there can be a high interdependence between subsystems (making them indistinct) or low interdependence (making them distinct and only affect each other occasionally and indirectly).

E.
Maslow’s theory includes five levels of beginning with physiological needs and culminating in self-actualization.

H.
Emery and Trist studied the effects of technology on the coal mining industry and expanded the systems theory to add procedures, equipment, and technology to the social (people) layer.

I.
Reason’s work concluded a system of systems wherein each system serves as a defense mechanism intended to prevent small errors from overlapping.

A.
Fayol, a french engineer, describe his theory of the management process as planning, organizing, directing, coordinating, as controlling.

A

A.
Administrative Science Theory

B.
Bureaucratic Theory

C.
General Systems Theory

D.
Hawthorne Effect

E.
Hierarchy of Needs

F.
Loose Coupling Theory

G.
Scientific Theory

H.
Socio-Technical Systems Theory

I.
Swiss Cheese Model

J.
Theory X and Y

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5
Q

Match the culture to its corresponding description.

D.
Competitive / focused on profitability and productivity

C.

Controlled with clear lines of authority / bureaucratic / structured work processes

A.
Stimulating / challenging / entrepreneurial / creative / innovative

B.
Team-oriented / sociable / empowering / friendly

A

A.
adhocracy culture

B.
clan culture

C.
hierarchy culture

D.
market culture

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6
Q

Which of the following statements describes centralized decision-making?

A

Due to the lack of their input, there is less buy-in from staff.

Lesser experienced leaders are making decisions.

There is likely an inconsistency in policies across the organization.

Different department may provide different solutions to the same issue.

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7
Q

Which of the following relational leadership theories is epitomized by the enduring commitment the leader has to the individual growth and potential of all their followers?

A

servant

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8
Q

The upper and lower specification limits on the control charts are determined by the:

A

client needs

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9
Q

Stages of the PDCA Process are:

A

plan,do,check,act

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10
Q

G.
The threat of force or negative action used by leader to gain compliance from the follower

A.
The experience, special talents, or skills of the leader that the follower does not possess

F.
The needed or wanted information possessed by the leader that the follower does not have

B.
The formal authority based on position in an organization or system

E.
The influence over the follower because of the follower’s loyalty, respect, friendship, or admiration

C.
The offer of a reward to the follower for doing what is expected of the follower

A

A.
expert power

B.
absolute power

C.
reward power

D.
legitimate power

E.
referent power

F.
informational power

G.
coercive power

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11
Q

Which step of the PDCA performance improvement model gathers and studies the data and results?

A

check

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12
Q

Which of Fayol’s fourteen principles of management states that the employee should be focused on one set of objectives?

A

unity of direction

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13
Q

Box and Whiskers Plot is useful tool to:

A

Visualize paired numerical data to determine whether two variables are related and therefore identify potential root causes.

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14
Q

C.
External factor that is unfavorable to achieving the goal and objectives.

D.
Internal factor that is unfavorable to achieving the goal and objectives.

B.
Internal factor that is favorable to achieving the goal and objectives.

A.
External factor that is favorable to achieving the goal and objectives.

A

A.
opportunity

B.
strength

C.
threat

D.
weakness

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a commonly accepted stage of the Management Process?

A

developing

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16
Q

Which organizational culture would be relatively flexible with an external focus?

A

adhocracy culture (create)

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17
Q

Which phrases describe special cause variation?

A

signal of change

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18
Q

What is the most visible stage of Henri Fayol’s management process?

A

The directing process because this is where the manager is working to manage the staff’s progress toward the goals.

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19
Q

C.
This less complex but more specific and detailed type of decision is usually made by middle managers.

A.
This routine day-to-day decision is usually made by junior managers.

B.
This long-term, broad, and complex decision is made by senior managers using the mission statement as guidance.

A

A.
operational decision

B.
strategic decision

C.
tactical decision

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20
Q

Order the needs of Maslow’s hierarchy placing most basic need at the lowest level last (at the bottom, last).

-
physiological

-
self-actualization

-
esteem

-
love and belonging

-
safety

A

5.
physiological

1.
self-actualization

2.
esteem

3.
love and belonging

4.
safety

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21
Q

Which of following is NOT one of the main types of leadership styles?

A

Self-reliant leadership

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22
Q

Which of the following best describes the “Great Man” concept attributed to Thomas Carlyle?

A

Leadership cannot be learned or developed and can be determined by studying influential leaders.

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23
Q

According to Hersey & Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Theory, what style would work best for employees with high competence and high commitment?

A

delegating

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24
Q

Which of the following terms can be defined as the concept that there is no best way to accomplish a goal, but not all ways are equally effective ways to accomplish a goal.

A

equifinality

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25
Q

According to Pink, which of the following is the most powerful motivator?

A

intrinsic rewards

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26
Q

Job description must include the following EXCEPT

A

Position or title

Whether the job exempt or nonexempt

Number of direct reports

Holidays schedule (this is the answer)

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27
Q

It is appropriate to ask the following interview questions EXCEPT:

A

Education and certifications

Communication style

Marital status (answer)

5 year goals

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28
Q

The most important parameter(s) of competency-based evaluation is(are):

A

Employee performs exact tasks as part of the evaluation

Evaluation is based on direct observation

There is an on-going component to this evaluation (maybe)

All of the above (answer?)

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29
Q

All of the following are major steps in progressive discipline EXCEPT:

A

Meaningful argument

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30
Q

Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) provides an eligible employee with:

A

Up to 12 weeks leave in case of serious health condition

Up to 12 weeks leave to care for an immediate family member

Up to 12 weeks in case of child birth or adoption

All of the above (answer)

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31
Q

Affirmative Action of 1965 prohibits employers to discriminate on basis of the following EXCEPT:

A

First language

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32
Q

Job analysis should include the following

A

Job tasks, working conditions, technology, and communication skills

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33
Q

Match the drive in the ABCD’s of motivation with its primary lever and description.

A.
Reward system which sharply differentiates good performers from average and poor performers.

C.
A job design that has distinct and important roles that foster a sense of contribution to the organization.

D.
Performance management and resource allocation that is fair and transparent.

B.
A culture that fosters mutual reliance and friendship among coworkers.

A

A.
acquire

B.
bond

C.
comprehend

D.
defend

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34
Q

A performance and appraisal plan (PMAP) should be in place within ______of an employee’s first reporting to duty.

A

30 days

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35
Q

SMART goals defined as:

A

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-framed

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36
Q

What is the tool used for a written plan for professional development that addresses the employee’s needs as well as the needs of the organization?

A

IDP

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37
Q

ABCD of Motivation stands for:

A

Acquire, bond, create, defend

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38
Q

What is the federal minimum wage?

A

$7.25

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39
Q

Which is the most effective management?

A

Coercion Management

Cooperation Management

Collaborative Management

None of the above

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40
Q

C.
ADA

E.
Affirmative action

B.
FLSA

D.
ADEA

A.
FMLA

A

A.
Allows eligible employees to take an extended leave of absence for several reasons including the birth of a child.

B.
Establishes minimum wage and overtime pay.

C.
Prohibits discrimination against disabilities.

D.
Prohibits discrimination against employees 40 years of age and older.

E.
Requires recruitment and advancement of qualified minorities, women, veterans, and persons with disabilities.

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41
Q

Which one of the following would be considered a hygiene factor in Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory of motivation

A

job security

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42
Q

The FMLA allows up to _____ weeks in case of child birth or adoption.

A

twelve

43
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a need in McClelland’s Need Theory of Motivation?

A

power

safety (answer)

achievement

affiliation

44
Q

C.
Objectives should be realistic and achievable.

A.
Objectives and expectations should be well-defined and clearly stated.

E.
Outcomes should be assessed at a point when the work is typically expected to be completed.

B.
Outcomes should be compared to a standard.

D.
Objectives should align with the overall direction of the organization.

A

A.
[S] specific

B.
[M] measurable

C.
[A] attainable

D.
[R] relevant

E.
[T] timely

45
Q

Place the four steps of planning a training activity in the appropriate order, starting with goals.

A

4.
Evaluation

2.
Objectives

3.
Learning / Training Activity

1.
Goals

46
Q

According to CLIA’88, competency testing must occur every _______ in the first year of employment and then every ______ unless the test method or instrumentation changes.

A

6 months / 12 months

47
Q

Which of the following organizations require continuing education for clinical laboratory personnel? (Choose all that apply)

A

College of American Pathologists (CAP)

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988 (CLIA ‘88)

The Joint Commission (TJC)

ASCP Certification Maintenance

National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS)

48
Q

C.
This occurs when an evaluator’s ratings of an individual tend to be higher than they should be. This usually occurs because the evaluator knows and likes the student or the practitioner.

A.
This error occurs when evaluators contrast the trait in themselves and the student or practitioner. For example, instructors who perceive themselves as extremely efficient may give students low ratings on efficiency.

D.
This occurs when the evaluator has a general impression of an individual, and this impression influences the judgment of all of that individual’s traits.

B.
Some evaluators hesitate to give high or low ratings and tend toward an average rating for all students or employees. This is especially true if the evaluator has not had much time to observe the individual’s behavior.

E.
The evaluator may tend to rate traits that are placed next to one another on the rating scale form in a similar fashion.

A

A.
contrast error

B.
error of central tendency

C.
error of leniency

D.
halo effect

E.
proximity error

49
Q

Which of the following test items are difficult to construct but is easy to grade and can sample a large amount of material?

A

multiple choice question (MCQ)

50
Q

Which of Miller’s Levels of Clinical Competence represents performance that occurs in clinical practice rather than objectives met in the training environment?

A

does

51
Q

A.
Awareness, valuing, committment

B.
Recall, application, problem solving

C.
Readiness, proficiency, adaptation

B.
Calculate, convert, explain, restate

C.
Calibrate, dilute, pipet

A.
Assist, invite, join

A

A.
Affective

B.
Cognitive

C.
Psychomotor

52
Q

B.
Given a calculator, the student will:

A.
Calculate the mean and standard deviation

C.
within 30 minutes

A.
List the components of complement.

A

A.
terminal behavior

B.
condition

C.
standard of performance

53
Q

A.
Bloom’s Levels 1 & 2: Remember and Understand

C.
Bloom’s Levels 5 & 6: Evaluate and Create

B.
Bloom’s Levels 3 & 4: Apply and Analyze

A

A.
Level 1: Recall

B.
Level 2: Application

C.
Level 3: Problem Solving

54
Q

C.
After the demonstration on performing a gram stain, the student will assemble all the equipment needed to stain five smears.

B.

After the demonstration on performing a gram stain, the student will prepare five stained smears that meet the instructor’s standards for color and stain consistency.

A.
Given a sputum specimen with a suspected case of penumococcal pneumonia, the student will be able to modify the gram stain procedure to obtain a smear with consistent color.

A

A.
Adaptation (Level 3)

B.
Proficiency (Level 2)

C.
Readiness (Level 1)

55
Q

Given the objective, “The student will perform the Jaffe procedure for total creatinine with control values within + 2 SD of stated values,” + 2 SD of the stated values is an example of a:

A

Criteria (standard of performance)

56
Q

Goals are focused, specific, and measurable guidelines for desired results.

A

false

57
Q

Given the objective: “State the microorganism associated with tuberculosis.” The objective could be improved by

A

Using an action verb

58
Q

Match the following affective objectives with their correct affective level.

A.
Given a role-playing situation in which information about a patient would help a friend or family member the trainee will justify the need to maintain confidentiality. The student’s justification must be consistent with hospital guidelines.

C.
After reading the hospital policy on patient records and completing one clinical rotation the trainee will explain the importance of maintaining the confidentiality of patient records. The explanation must match the hospital policy.

B.
After reading the hospital policy on patient records the trainee will follow all patient confidentiality rules at all times.

A

A.
Committment

B.
Awareness

C.
Valuing

59
Q

What is the difference between coaching and mentoring?

A

Mentoring is usually used in the development of high-level skills such as leadership, strategic management, and critical thinking skills while coaching is used for development of basic technical skills.

60
Q

Example objective: Given a neubauer counting chamber, the student will perform manual WBC counts on 4 CSF samples with 90% accuracy.

C.
… the student will perform manual WBC counts …

B.
… on 4 CSF samples with 90% accuracy.

A.
Given a neubauer counting chamber, …

A

A.
condition

B.
standard of performance

C.
terminal behavior

61
Q

Those objectives that emphasize values, attitudes, and interests are classified in which of the following domains?

A

affective

62
Q

_________ tests are used to assess the mastery of material and learners’ readiness to progress in a program or profession.

A

summative

63
Q

What is the major difference between a CL activity and a PBL activity?

A

The PBL activity does not provide any background information on the problem being investigated.

64
Q

Clinical rotations where students are participating in hands-on exercises is most useful in achieving objectives in which domain?

A

psychomotor

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a balance sheet?

A

It is designed to give investors an idea as to what the company plans to spend in the next 12 months.

66
Q

An accrued liability is:

A

An expense that a business has incurred but has not yet paid.

67
Q

What are major characteristics of variable cost?

A

They vary depending on a company’s production volume (Laboratory test volume).

68
Q

Which of the following is a variable cost?

A

technologists’ wages

69
Q

Revenue is

A

The amount of money received during a specific period

70
Q

What is revenue?

A

It is the amount of money that a company actually receives during a specific period, including discounts and deductions for returned merchandise.

71
Q

Non-billable procedure is a procedure that:

A

Contributes to the generation of the billable test result, but is not directly reimbursable.

72
Q

Different options can be considered when deciding to adopt or purchase capital equipment and instrumentation. What type of agreement is used when the lab agrees to pay a set price per patient result obtained using the instrument and the instrument is included at no cost?

A

cost per reportable agreement

73
Q

VOB stands for

A

Voice of the Business

74
Q

What is Cost-Volume-Profit analysis is used for

A

Cost-volume profit analysis is based upon determining the breakeven point of cost and volume of goods

75
Q

The following ratio is known as the _________.

Current ratio = current assets / current liabilities

A

liquidity ratio

76
Q

What is Return on Investment (ROI)?

A

ROI measures the amount of return on an investment relative to the investment’s cost

77
Q

Capital Budget Request should include the following EXCEPT:

A

Historical Variance Reports

78
Q

An expense budget …

A

Only takes into consideration expenses and costs.

79
Q

C.
A new auto sheath system which protects the phlebotomists from needle stick injuries

D.
A new transport line that moves the specimens directly into the analyzer, thereby removing the step that required the technologists to carry specimens to the analyzer

A.
A high-tech molecular analyzer that will outperform other competitors in the marketplace

B.
A new online portal that allows patients to see their lab results

A

A.
VOB

B.
VOC

C.
VOE

D.
VOP

80
Q

Which of the following is a fixed cost?

A

equipment costs and maintenance

81
Q

What type of operational budget is used to decide if activities should be eliminated or funded?

A

zero-based budget

82
Q

What is the parameter used to measure the degree of likelihood that the prediction used in an ROI is correct?

A

confidence factor

83
Q

A legal entity that exists on its own apart from its stakeholders which requires a state or federal application is called a(n):

A

corporation

84
Q

Which of the following would be considered a “T” in SWOT analysis?

A

patient dissatisfaction

85
Q

What is the purpose of a DRG? It is used to calculate the:

A

reimbursement based on the severity, number of tests, and complications related to diagnosis

86
Q

Match the medicare plan with its corresponding description.

B.
Part A

C.
Part B

A.
Part C

D.
Part D

A

A.
Advantage Plan (includes A + B + extra benefits)

B.
Hospital coverage (inpatient care in hospitals)

C.
Medical coverage (outpatient care)

D.
Prescription drug coverage

87
Q

Which of the following describes basic concepts of Medicare?

A

federally funded program mostly for people ages 65 or older

88
Q

Co-payments and deductibles do not apply to services paid under the Medicare clinical laboratory fee schedule.

A

True

89
Q

PPACA pays physicians based on volume not value.

A

False

90
Q

Submitting a Claim in Healthcare means…

A

Sending a bill for all services provided to the insurance company

91
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of PPACA?

A

Prohibits discrimination due to pre-existing conditions

92
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of value-based care?

A

Patient outcomes difficult to measure

93
Q

B.
This is a state-run federal program for the poor (eligibility is based on income).

D.
Other than the poor or elderly, this is a group of programs for specific populations also funded by the federal government.

C.
This program is for persons > 65 years and covers only certain costs. There are 3 parts: A B C.

A

A.
americaid

B.
medicaid

C.
medicare

D.
veteran and native american healthcare

94
Q

What is the term for the scenario when one payment is issued across the continuum of care, which could include all of the following: facility costs across the continuum of care (hospital, nursing home, and outpatient rehabilitation), technical and professional components of procedures in radiology, pathology, and the laboratory, physician professional fees for anesthesia, and post-surgery home care costs?

A

total-episode-of-care

95
Q

Which of the following is disadvantage of the global capitation model? Global capitation model may provide:

A

deferred care due to costs of care beyond contract

96
Q

Which of the following populations are eligible for both Medicare and Medicaid?

A

Adults who are low income, disabled, and cannot work

97
Q

Basic Concept of Fee-for-Service Is…

A

Provider is paid by the payer for all services the physician ordered

98
Q

The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA), also known as the Affordable Care Act (ACA) requires that insurers must cover certain preventive care without charging the patient a deductible, co-pay, or coinsurance.

A

True

99
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes global capitation?

A

Insurance pays the HMO a specified amount per patient

100
Q

What is the term for the reimbursement system used where the employer assumes healthcare costs for its employees, members, and dependents?

A

self-insured plan

101
Q

Match the healthcare reimbursement terms with their corresponding description.

E.
Medical services and prescription the health insurance plan pays for

D.
A flat fee the patient pays for a service

B.
The percentage the patient pays after they have met their deductible

G.
The amount the patient pays out-of-pocket before insurance will pay

A.
Doctors and healthcare providers pre-approved by the patient’s insurance plan

F.
The total amount of money the patient pays for medical services throughout the year

C.
The amount the patient pays each month for health insurance

A

A.
network

B.
coinsurance (cost-sharing)

C.
premium

D.
copay (cost-sharing)

E.
covered benefits

F.
out-of-pocket limits

G.
deductible

102
Q

Which of the following are used to determine RBRVS? Choose all that apply.

the time it takes to perform a service

technical skill used to perform the service(s

patient’s ability to pay the cost of the services

the clinician stress due to potential risk to patient

A

the time it takes to perform a service
technical skill used to perform the service(s
the clinician stress due to potential risk to patient

103
Q

The following are major reasons for soaring healthcare costs:

A

Future cost projections on utilization of advanced diagnostic tools

104
Q

What is the HCAHPS?

A

A standardized survey that asks patients about their experience during a recent overnight hospital stay.

Laboratory Management (4 decks)

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