Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ai > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Microbes Timeline: 3.5 billion yr ago

A

Prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Microbes timeline: 2.5 billion yrs ago

A

Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Microbes timeline: 1 billion years ago

A

Multi-celled organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Microbes timeline: 500 mil years ago

A

Development of brains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Microbes timeline: 475 yrs ago

A

Life moves to land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Microbes timeline: 230 yrs ago

A

Mammals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Microbes timeline: if you imagine Earth began as a single day

A

5 am: microbes
10pm: dinos
seconds before 12am: humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tree of life: 3 domains

A

Archaea, bacteria, eukaryota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tree of life: Archaea

A

bacteria with internal membranes, found in extreme environments (out bodies too!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tree of life: bacteria

A

Single celled organisms, more forms of bacteria than any other organism on Earth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tree of life: Eukaryota categories

A

Protista
Plantae
Fungi
Animalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tree of life: Eukaryota: Protista

A

mostly single-celled organisms that have a nucleus, usually live in water
Made up of: protozoa, unicellular algae, and slime molds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Protista examples

A

Algae, paramecium, amoeba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Protista are made up of

A

protozoa, unicellular algae, slime molds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tree of life: Eukaryota: Plantae

A

Plants contain chlorophyll for photosynthesis and have cellulose for cell walls
Fixed in one place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tree of life: Eukaryota: Fungi

A

Motionless organisms that absorb nutrients for survival

Ex. mushrooms, molds, and yeasts (the only that are not multicellular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tree of life: Eukaryota: animalia

A

Most complex organisms on earth
Divided into vertebrates and invertebrates
Include mammals, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pathogen: 6 categories

A 
Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Protozoa ("first animal") 
Parasites
Prion proteins

Increasing complexity: viruses 0.03-0.3µm, bacteria 0.1-10µm, fungi (4-10µm), parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pathogens: Viruses

A

Non-cellular, size 20-300nm
no cytoplasm or organelles, no chromosomes (only RNA/DNA)
Covered in protein coat
depend on cells for metabolism/reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pathogens: Viruses: structure

A

Core of RNA/DNA enclosed in a capsid
Capsid surrounded by envelope
Surface proteins (spikes) on the outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Viral shedding

A

Expulsions and release of virus progeny following successful reproduction during a host-cell infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bacteriophage viruses

A

Virus head “capsid” has high pressure and it pushes DNA into the cell
Bacteriophage can be dormant or lyse (burst) and kill host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pathogen: Bacteria

A

Single celled microbes
No nucleus or membrane bound organelles
Genetic info is in a single loop of DNA
Extra genes in an extra loop of genetic material called plasmid (usually advantages like abx resistance )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pathogens: Fungi

A

Usually saprophytes (consume dead organisms)
Fungal spore size 1-40µm in length
Ex. Candida albicans - alkalinizes local extracellular environment (picture of tongue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Example of fungi pathogen

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pathogen: Virus size

A

20-300nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pathogen: Fungi spore size

A

1-40µm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pathogen: Prion proteins

A

Mad-cow disease starts when PrP in nervous system abnormally fold and cause normal PrPs to abnormally fold too, brain cells become clogged with abnormal PrPs

Usually due to mutation but can be passed along when animal/human eats infected nervous system tissue

Cannot be destroyed by cooking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Pathogens: Diseases caused by prions

A

Mad cow
Scrapie
Kuru
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pathogen: Prion: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

A

Caused by prion build up, brain slowly shrinks, tissue filled with holes looks like a sponge

Lose ability to think and move, memory loss
Always fatal, usually within a year of onset of illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

4 developments that have taken us from 2 generation society to a four

A

Vaccination
Hygienic medical practice
Chlorination
Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Vaccines have been made for only ___ of the 400+ known pathogens that are harmful to man

A

34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is chlorination?

A

Water chlorination is the process of adding Cl2 or hypochlorite to water
It kills bacteria and other microbes in tap water
Prevents spread of waterborne diseases such as cholera, dysentery, typhoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are some waterborne diseases chlorination helps prevent?

A

Cholera, dysentery, typhoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What were Sir Alexander Fleming’s best known discoveries

A

enzyme lysozyme in 1923 and penicillin from the mold Penicillium notatum in 1923

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Who were the 2 people Alexander Fleming shared the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1945 with?

A

Howard Florey and Ernst Boris Chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What mold is penicillin made from?

A

Penicillium notatum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are Koch’s postulates?

A
  1. microorganisms must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease and none from healthy organisms
  2. Microorganisms must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture
  3. Cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced to a healthy organism
  4. Microorganism must be reisolated from inoculated diseased experimental host and identified as identical to the original specific causative agent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Endemic def

A

constant presence (regularly found among particular people or in a certain area)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Epidemic def

A

localized outbreak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pandemic def

A

Widespread regional or global epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 5 characteristics of epidemics?

A 
Infectivity 
Disease index
Virulence
Incidence
Prevalence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Epidemics: Infectivity: def

A

The frequency with which an infection is transmitted when there is contact between the agent and a susceptible individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Epidemics: Disease index: Def

A

The number of persons who develop the disease divided by total number infected (disease vs infected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Epidemics: Virulence: Def

A

The number of fatal or severe cases per total number of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Epidemics: Incidence: Def

A 
The number of new cases of a disease within a specified period, is described as a rate in which the number of cases is the numerator and the number of people in the population under surveillance is the denominator 
# cases / # of ppl in pop. under surveillance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Epidemics: Prevalence: Def

A

It can also be described as a rate to indicate the total number of case existing in the population at a risk at a point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What increases complexity?

A

Genes + proteins (+ microbes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Our relationship with out microbes is not just one of ___ but ____

A

Not just one of TOLERANCE but ENCOURAGEMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

You are 0.5% human: ___ human cells make the human body (___genes)

A

10 trillion human cells, 21,000 genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

You are 0.5% human: ___ plus or minus microbes on one person alone (____ genes)

A

100 trillion microbes, 4.4 million genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

You are 0.5% human: around ___ species of microbes are found in the intestines

A

1200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

More than ____ species of microbes live in the stomach, where they graze on the slime lining its walls

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Younger children who lose ___ from their stomach by taking antibiotics are molikely to develop asthma and allergies

A

Helicobacter pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Over your lifetime, you will play hose to bugs the equivalent weight of _____ african elephants

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Most of the microbes living inside us die when they are exposed to ___ because ____

A

oxygen because they are adapted to an oxygen-free existence deep in our guts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Microbes on the subway: 1.6% is associated with the ___

A

eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Microbes on the subway: almost ___ associated with BREATHING

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Microbes on the subway: ___ associated with MOUTH bacteria

A

6.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Microbes on the subway: ____ associated with GI tract

A

32.3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Microbes on subway: ___ associated with SKIN bacterial

A

29%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Microbes on subway: ___ associated with urogenital tract

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Microbes on the subway: ____ of the genetic data found on the subway did not match to any known organism, showing how vast and unexplored the microbiome is

A

48%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Benefits of the normal flora: Many of these microbes do not hurt us but are essential for keeping us healthy and happy. Some functions are ___

A

produce vitamins we cannot make
Breakdown food for us
Strengthen immune system
Fight off disease-causing organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Microbiome at birth: For ___ years baby microbiomes grow while their immune systems develop, learning not to attack friendly bacteria

A

2-3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the name of the mummy that researchers found remains of his gut bacteria?

A

Oetzi the Iceman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Caecum is considered the _____ of the human body’s microbial community

A

Heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The ___ is connected to the cecum

A

Appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

___ is an intraperitoneal pouch that is considered to be the beginning of the large intestine

A

Cecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cecum is the epicenter of microbial life where trillions of microbes of at least ___ species make the most of the partially digested food that has passed through nutrient-extraction processes into the small intestine

A

4000 species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

___ are left over for the microbes in the cecum to tack in round 2 digestion

A

Tough bits - plant fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The appendix helps protect out ____

A

beneficial gut bacteria when a serious infection strikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Appendix is packed full of _____

A

specialized immune cells and molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The gut can be repopulated with its normal inhabitants, which have been lurking in the ___

A

Appendix (a safe house that human body has provided for its microbial inhabitants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The appendix is a blind-ended tube connected to the caecum, from which it develops ____

A

embryologically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The appendix protects us from:

A 
Recurrent GI infections
Immune dysfunction
blood cancer
some autoimmune diseases
Heart attacks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Biofilm def

A

Aggregates the bacteria embedded in a matrix produced by them interspersed by water channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Example of biofilm

A

Dental plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is quorum sensing

A

Microbes communicating with each other by chemical language via signals called auto inducers

Quorum sensing coordinates gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Some studies suggested that C-section babies may have an elevated risk for developing immune and metabolic disorders like ____

A

T1DM, allergies, asthma, and obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is vaginal microbial transfer?

A

When they introduce microbes from vaginal fluids (collected before surgery) to the baby after a C-section for 1-2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A mother’s vaginal fluids are loaded with one such essential bacterium ___ that helps digest human milk

A

lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

____ is considered to be a “newly discovered organ” since its existence was not generally recognized until the late 1990s and it is understood to potentially have overwhelming impact on human health

A

microbiome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Catabolic pathways: 2 types

A

Anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is anaerobic respiration (fermentation)?

A

Partial breakdown of organics that occurs w/o O2

Yields 2 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is aerobic respiration?

A

Complete breakdown of organics with O2

Yields 36 or 38 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

_____ yields only 2 ATP while ___ yields 36 or 38 ATP

A

Anaerobic yields 2 ATP

Aerobic yields 36 or 38 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Compare fermentation and aerobic respiration

A

Both use glycolysis (glu to pyruvate)
Have different e-acceptors (pyruvate/acetaldehye vs O2)
Aerobic respiration produces 36 or 38 ATP/glucose but fermentation produces 2 ATP/glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Obligate aerobes def

A

Require an ample oxygen source to perform respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Microaerophilic/microaerobic

A

Requires small amounts of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Capnophilic def

A

Microbes that require low oxygen but high CO2 conc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Facultative anaerobes def

A

Organisms that perform anaerobic glycolysis in the absence of oxygen but can perform aerobic respiration in the presence of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Obligate anerobes def

A

Die in presence of oxygen because they lack chemistry to produce organic compounds via reduction of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Bacteria use 3 main mechanisms to adapt to changing environments

A
  1. gene transfer
  2. Regulation of gene expression
  3. mutation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Bacteria adaptation: Gene transfer consists of these 3 things

A
  1. transformation
  2. transduction
  3. conjugation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Gene transfer: Transformation def

A

The recipient cell directly takes up naked DNA released from the donor cell altering its genotype (it can occur in the medium and natural transformation can also occur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Gene transfer: Transduction

A

Process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Gene transfer: Conjugation

A

Cell to cell contact and transfers genetic material (male/female cells)

Plasmids are most frequently transferred by conjugation

Sex pilus is responsible for the attachment of donor and recipient cell (male has sex pilus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Gene transfer: conjugation: Which cell has the sex pilus?

A

Male cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are operons?

A

A group of genes that are transcribed at the same time
Usually control an important biochemical process
Only found in PROKARYOTES
includes a series of structural genes along a segment of DNA and two other portions of DNA (promoter and operator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Operons are only found in ___

A

Prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

In prokaryotes, genes are turned on and off using ___

A

operons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Operons: what happens when the operator area is ON

A

RNA polymerase attaches at the promoter and transcription occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Operons: What happens when operator is “off”?

A

Operator area is blocked by repressor protein and transcription cannot occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is the lac operon?

A

Operon processing the sugar lactose
One of the mis the gene for the en
Enzyme beta-galactosidase (lactase)
Lactase breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What happens when the lac operon is on?

A

Lactose inhibits the repressor, allowing RNA polymerase to bind with the promotor and synthesize lactase
Lactase will digest all of the lactose until there is none to bind to the repressor and then the repressor will bind to the operator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Explain process of gram staining

A

Crystal violet is applied to the specimen, then iodine (kills cell and fixes the stain)
Slide washed with alcohol

Gram positive - retains crystal violet iodine stain (purple)
Gam negative - safranin dye (pink)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Structural differences between gram-neg and gram-pos bacteria

A

Gram-pos: peptidogylcan and membrane

Gram-neg: outer membrane, peptidoglycan (much thinner than the gram-positive one), membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

4 Phases off population bacterial growth in closed culture

A 
Lag phase
Log phase (optimal growth) 
Stationary phase (bacterial pop levels out and population growth nears 0 again, fermentation/pharmaceuticals use chemostat to keep bacteria in stationary phase) 
Death phase (waste and dead cells begin to accumulate, population declines, spore formers can persist beyond this stage and can regenerate a population if conditions become favorable again)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The chemostat is used in fermentation and pharmaceutical industries to keep bacterial growth in the ___ phase

A

stationery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Infection vs infectious disease

A

Infection is the INVASION, MULTIPLICATION of disease causing agents and the REACTION of host tissues to these organisms and toxins they produce

Infectious disease (aka transmissible disease or communicable disease) is illness resulting from an infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Bacteria that causes dental caries

A

Streptococcus mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

T/F: Streptococcus mutans is an example of obligate anaerobes

A

FALSE - it is a facultative anaerobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

T/F: Streptococcus mutans is gram-NEGATIVE

A

FALSE - it is gram-positive coccus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Dental caries (tooth decay) is caused by specific types of bacteria that produce acid in the presence of fermentable carbohydrates such as ____

A

sucrose, fructose, and glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Complications of dental caries

A

S. Mutans colonize in the heart, often in heart valves and cause inflammation (endocarditis) and can be lethal
Endocarditis is most often caused by invasion of S. mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Endocarditis can be caused by which two bacteria

A

Staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

HSV-1 pathway

A

Herpesvirus enters body, lies dormant in the nerves, reactivated and cause another outbreak

119
Q

HSV-1 progression

A 
Tingling 1 day
Redness and bumps 1-2 days 
Blisters 2-3 days 
Scabs 5-7 days 
Redness 1-2 days
120
Q

HSV-1: Primary (acute) herpetic gingivostomatitis: Young children are at risk for developing extensive _____ when first infected with the virus

A

oropharyngeal vesicular eruptions

121
Q

HSV-1: Primary (acute) herpetic gingivostomatitis: S/sx and diagnosis

A

Self-limiting disease
Significant mouth discomfort, fever, lymphadenopathy, and difficulty with eating/drinking
May last for 2 weeks

Diagnosis clinically and confirmed by lab tests

122
Q

HSV-1: Primary (acute) herpetic gingivostomatitis: Treatment

A

Some young children require hospitalization for dehydration/pain

Acyclovir

123
Q

Mononucleosis incubation period and transmission

A

Incubation for 4-6 weeks, spreads by casual contact, usually via saliva (kissing disease)

124
Q

T/F: Mononucleosis is not self-treatable and lasts for an extended amount of time

A

FALSE - it is self treatable and resolves within days/weeks

125
Q

Mononucleosis: S/sx

A 
Fatigue malaise, loss of appetite, headache
Photophobia
Red/swelling tonsils
Throat: soreness, pharyngitis, palatal petechiae (roof of mouth is red) 
Swollen lymph. nodes 
Cough
Spleen: enlargement, abdominal pain
Systemic: chills, fevers, aches 
Nausea

Rash - erythema nodosum

126
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

Skin rash caused by mono

127
Q

What is palatal petechiae

A

Roof of mouth is red

128
Q

What is a complication of mono

A

splenomegaly

129
Q

What is a role of the spleen

A

filters blood
Recycles RBC and stores WBC/platelets
Fights bacteria that causes pneumonia and meningitis

130
Q

Someone with mono should avoid ______ because of the possibility that the ____ can rupture

A

contact sports

spleen

131
Q

What is the epstein barr virus

A

Human herpesvirus 4 (HHV-4)
one of the 8 known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, one of most common viruses in humans
95% of adults in the US have evidence of EBV antibodies in blood

132
Q

Who found the Epstein-Barr virus

A

Sir Michael Anthony Epstein and Yvonne Barr

133
Q

Describe staphylococci

A

Common inhabitant of the skin and mucous membranes
Spherical cells arranged in irregular clusters
Gram-POSITIVE
Lack spores and flagella
May have capsules
31 species

134
Q

There are ___ species of staphylococci

A

31

135
Q

Staphylococci is gram-____

A

positive

136
Q

Boils description

A

Most common S. aureus skin infection
Infection of hair follicle or oil gland
S/sx: redness, pus swelling
Treatment: drainage, keep skin clean, abx

137
Q

MRSA description

A

Caused by S. aureus
First recognized around 1960 and entered wider community in 1990s (community-associated MRSA or CA-MRSA)
Resistant to common antibiotics, generally harmless unless it enters via cut/wounds

138
Q

MRSA s/sx

A

red or tender skin around wound
swollen, painful, oozing boils
Does not get better with typical abx treatments
Serious symptoms: fever, difficulty breathing, chills, chest pain

139
Q

Complications of MRSA

A

Often community acquired so isolation is important (ASAP)

Sepsis can result if bacterial infection invades bloodstream

140
Q

Streptococci description

A

Gram-POSITIVE spherical/ovoid cocci arranged in long chains
non-spore forming, nonmotile
Can form capsules and slime layers
Facultative anaerobes
Do not form catalase
Most parasitic forms are fastidious and require enriched media
Small, non-pigmented colonies

141
Q

T/F: Streptococci are facultative anaerobes

A

True

142
Q

Strep throat transmission

A

spreads through person-person contact, through fluids from nose/saliva

143
Q

Strep s/sx

A

Red sore throat, fever, pain when swallowing, swollen neck glands

144
Q

Strep throat treatment

A

Penicillin, amoxicillin for 10 days

145
Q

T/F: S/sx Red/swollen tonsils and throat ONLY is an indication of strep

A

FALSE – probably viral infection, not bacterial.

Strep has red/swollen tonsils and throat, AND swollen uvula, white spots, gray and furry tongue

146
Q

Describe conjunctivitis

A

Aka pink eye

Inflammation of the outermost layer of the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelid

147
Q

Describe keratitis

A

Condition in which the eye’s cornea, the front part of the eye, becomes inflamed

148
Q

T/F: the transparent, fibrous outer layer of the anterior outer layer of the eye is the conjunctiva

A

FALSE - it is the cornea

149
Q

T/F: The mucous membrane lining the eyelid and covering eyeball is the cornea

A

FALSE - it is the conjunctiva

150
Q

What are the 5 types of conjunctivitis

A 
Bacterial
Viral
Chlamydia
Allergic
REactive
151
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis is caused by _____

A

STtphylococcus aureus, streptococcus pneumoniae, H. influenza, M. catarrhalis

152
Q

Describe bacterial conjunctivitis

A

A red eye with a stick yellow/green/white purulent discharge throughout the day
Eyelids may be stuck together upon waking (matting), can affect one/both eyes
Usually spread by direct contact only

153
Q

Describe viral conjunctivitis

A

Commonly associated with “pink eye” can affect one or both eyes, highly contagious
Appearance: injected, red, itchy, watery (or mucoserous) eye, may be associated with URI symptoms, burning, sandy/gritting feeling in eye

154
Q

Viral conjunctivitis is caused by ______

A

adenovirus (the common cold)

155
Q

Chlamydia conjunctivitis is caused by ___

A

sexually transmitted infections

156
Q

Allergic conjunctivitis are caused by ___

A

pollen, dust

157
Q

Reactive conjunctivitis is caused by ___

A

chemicals such as chlorine in swimming pools, shampoos, and other foreign objects

158
Q

S/sx of keratitis

A

Reduce visual clarity, produce corneal discharges, erosion

Can cause corneal scarring and impair vision (may require corneal transplant)

159
Q

Types of keratitis

A

Bacterial
Viral
Acanthamoeba
Fungal

160
Q

Bacterial keratitis is caused by ___

A

staphylococcus, streptococcus, moraxella, haemophilus, gonococcus

161
Q

Viral keratitis is caused by ____

A

herpes simplex, herpes zoster

162
Q

Bacterial meningitis is caused by ____

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenzae

163
Q

What is the meninges

A

Layered unit of membranous connective tissue that covers brain and spinal cord

164
Q

What is the function of meninges

A 
Protect and support CNS
connect brain and spinal cord to skull and spinal canal
Form protective barrier 
Supply blood vessels for CNS 
Produce CSF
165
Q

3 membranes of meninges

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

166
Q

Pneumococcal meningitis is caused by ___

A

pneumococcus

167
Q

T/F: There is no vaccine for pneumococcus that causes pneumococcal meningitis

A

False - there is a vaccine that covers most common strains of pneumococcus (which causes pneumonia, one of the leading causes of death in US)

168
Q

T/F: Neisseria meningitidis is gram-negative

A

True

169
Q

T/F: Haemophilus influenzae is gram-positive

A

FALSE – it is gram negative

170
Q

Bacterial meningitis transmission

A

Respiratory droplets, direct contact, formites

College students are at increased risk for meningococcal meningitis

171
Q

Bacterial meningitis portal of entry

A

Respiratory

172
Q

Bacterial meningitis: Disease mechanism

A

All three are encapsulated, capsule protects from complement but not antibody
N. meningitidis uses type IV pili to adhere and enter epithelium

All pass BBB (inflammation of brain/spinal coverings)
Endotoxin of N. meningitidis and H. influenzae causes disseminated intravascular coagulation

Can be fatal within hours

173
Q

T/F: Bacterial meningitis can be fatal within days

A

FALSE - hours

174
Q

Bacterial meningitis: Endotoxin of ___ and ___ cause disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

N. meningitidis and H. influenzae

175
Q

S/sx of bacterial meningitis

A

Headache, neck pain, fever, altered mental status, phonophobia, photophobia, petechiae, N/V

176
Q

Infectious diseases that cause photophobia (2)

A

Mono and bacterial meningitis

177
Q

Diagnosis of bacterial meningitis

A

S/sx and culture of organisms from spinal fluid

178
Q

Treatment of bacterial meningitis

A

Broad-spectrum abx administered immediately

179
Q

Prevention of bacterial meningitis

A

Immunization (for pneumococcus, meningococcus, and Hib)
Isolation of patients
Prophylactic abx for close contacts

Lifestyle: immune system healthy, quit smoking, rest, healthy diet, avoid close contact with sick people

180
Q

Complications of bacterial meningitis

A

Stroke and brain damage
Can be fatal
Memory problems, hearing loss, paralysis, kidney failure, body-wide infection and shock (septicemia), movement problems, learning disabilities

181
Q

Best treatment for bacterial meningitis is ___

A

prevention

182
Q

In 1985 ___ was the main cause of bacterial meningitis but in 1995 ___ was the main cause of bacterial meningitis

A

1985 - H. influenzae (then S. pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis)
1995 - Streptococcus pneumoniae (then neisseria meningitidis, S. pneumoniae)

183
Q

Strept throat is caused by ___

A

Streptococcus pyogenes group A/B/C

184
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes are gram ____

A

positive

185
Q

Transmission of strep throat

A

Direct contact (sharing food/drinks, not washing hands), respiratory, droplets (cough/sneeze), indirect by fomites (clothes, utensils, surfaces, etc.)

186
Q

Strep throat portal of entry

A

Respiratory

187
Q

Strep disease mechanism

A

S. pyogenes is B-hemolytic (lyses RBC via exotoxin streptolysin) and uses proteins to help evade phagocytosis, allows for colonization in the. throat/skin

Bacteria in throat will bring RBC/WBC causing inflammation, swells mucous membranes in pharynx and tonsils, SORE THROAT

188
Q

S pyogenes pyrogenic exotxin can cause ____

A

scarlet fever

189
Q

S. pyogenes M protein can trigger autoimmune reaction such as ____ and ___

A

rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis

190
Q

S/sx of strep throat

A

Sore throat, enlarged cervical lymph nodes, exudate on tonsils, fever, no cough

191
Q

Diagnosis of strep throat

A

Rapid strep test, culture of organisms

192
Q

Treatment of strep throat

A

Abx, rest

193
Q

Prevention of strep throat

A

Isolation of infected patient

194
Q

Otitis media is caused by ____

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, moraxella catarrhalis

195
Q

Disease mechanism of otitis media

A

Inflammation of middle ear

Following bacterial infection of upper respiratory system, bacteria travels from nasopharynx to middle ear via eustachian tube, alters pressure in middle ear, bacteria arrives in middle ear, inflammation

196
Q

____ help the tendency in forming acute otitis media

A

Nose blowing, pressure changes, and perforation of the membrane

197
Q

Treatment of otitis media

A

Amoxicillin for children and adults (adults with higher doses)

198
Q

Describe otitis media

A

Inflammation of middle ear

199
Q

Bacterial pneumonias are caused by ___

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae, mycoplasma pneumoniae

200
Q

What is bacterial pneumonias

A

An infection of the lungs characterized by the inflammation of filling of alveoli with fluid + pus (alveoli fill with bacteria and blood cells) with fevers, cough, chest pain, and chills

201
Q

Influenza types

A

Type A/B/C enveloped RNA virus

202
Q

Transmission of influenza

A

Respiratory droplets

203
Q

Portal of entry of influenza

A

Respiratory system

204
Q

Disease mechanism of influenza

A

HA proteins bind to respiratory epithelium, host cells engulf virus, virus is uncoated in vacuole, RNA enters cytoplasm, replicates, new virus particles assemble, NA allows exit from host cell

205
Q

S/sx of influenza

A

1 day incubation period, sudden fever, sore throat, dry cough, malaise, headache, muscle pains

206
Q

Diagnosis of influenza

A

s/sx during outbreak, antibody test

207
Q

Treatment of influenza

A

Antiviral drugs (zanamivisr and oseltamivir), bed rest, fever reduction, respiratory support if needed

208
Q

2 examples of influenza antiviral meds

A

Zanamivir and oseltamivir

209
Q

Describe endocarditis

A

Inflammation of the endocardium (inner heart muscle lining)

Rapid destruction of heart valves leads to death

210
Q

Bacterial endocarditis is caused by ____

A

staphylococcus aureus and streptococci

211
Q

Bacterial endocarditis treatment

A

Rx penicillin

212
Q

Lyme disease is caused by ____

A

deer tick

213
Q

Pathogen of lyme disease

A

Bacteria borrelia

214
Q

S/sx of lyme disease

A

Headache, hearing loss, paralysis of face, muscle soreness, erythema migrans (rash) fever/chills/fatigue/weakness/heart complications, N/V, swollen knee

215
Q

Stages of lyme disease

A

Stage 1 (early localized) days
- erythema migrans rash at tick bite site
Stage 2 (early disseminated) weeks
- flu-like illness, cardiac, neurologic
Stage 3 (late) months to years
- lyme arthritis, encephalopathy or neuropathy

216
Q

Treatment for lyme disease

A

ASAP abx

  • oral abx for early-stage lyme disease (doxycycline for adults and children <8 // amoxicillin or cefuroxime for adults, younger children, and pregnant/breastfeeding women)
  • IV abx: CNS involvement
217
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning is caused by ___

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Ingestion of enterotoxin in improperly stored foods (room temp)

218
Q

Food poisoning is caused by the ingestion of ____ in improperly stored foods

A

Enterotoxins

219
Q

Food poisoning source: foods with _____ and those not cooked immediately before ___

A

high somatic pressure and not cooked before consumption

220
Q

Mechanism of food poisoning

A

Food containing protein is cooked (bacterial killed)
and then contaminated by worker with staphylococci on hands
Organisms incubate in food long enough to form and release toxins
Reheat will eliminate staphylococci but not toxins
Toxins are ingested
1-6 hours intoxication occurs

221
Q

T/F: When food is contaminated by staphylococci, reheating will eliminate both the bacteria and toxins

A

False - only the bacteria, but toxins will remain

222
Q

Food poisoning (intoxication) occurs ___ hours after ingestion

A

1-6 hours

223
Q

E. coli stands for

A

Escherichia coli

224
Q

E.coli transmission

A

Fecal - oral

225
Q

Portal of entry for e.coli

A

GI

226
Q

E. coli disease mechanism

A

Depends on specific genes in different pathovars of E.coli
LT and ST enterotoxins disrupt chloride channels
Shiga toxin inhibits protein synthesis and endothelial cells in intestine, kidney, and brain

227
Q

____ and ___ enterotoxins of E.coli disrupt ____ channels

A

LT and ST disrupt chloride

228
Q

___ toxin inhibits ___ synthesis of endothelial cells in ____,____, and ____

A

shiga toxin inhibits protein synthesis in intestine, kidney, and brain

229
Q

S/sx of E.coli enteritis

A

Enterotoxins cause water diarrhea
Shiga toxin causes bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome which causes kidney damage, intravascular clots that lead to skin hemorrhages, coma

230
Q

S/sx of e.coli: Enterotoxins cause ____

A

water diarrhea

231
Q

S/sx of e.coli: Shiga toxin causes ___

A

blood diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome which causes kidney damage, intravascular clots that lead to skin hemorrhages, coma

232
Q

Which toxin of E.coli causes bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome, which causes kidney damage, intravascular clots that lead to skin hemorrhages, coma

A

Shiga toxin

233
Q

Diagnosis E.coli

A

Culture of organism and genetic characterization

234
Q

Treatment of E.coli

A

Supportive, transfusion, dialysis

Abx will trigger release of shiga toxins

235
Q

___ will trigger the release of shiga toxins of E.coli

A

Antibiotics

236
Q

Prevention of E.coli

A

personal hygiene

cook food thoroughly

237
Q

Helicobacter pylori produces ____ which ____ stomach acid

A

ammonia which neutralizes stomach acid

238
Q

____ will colonize the stomach mucosa and cause peptic ulcer disease

A

Helicobacter pylori

239
Q

____ can be used to detect in clinical examination to indicate infection or antigen detection of helicobacter pylori

A

Urease (enzyme)

240
Q

Treatment of peptic ulcers

A

Bismuth, combination abx, acid suppressors

241
Q

What kind of endoscopy can be used for peptic ulcer disease?

A

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD or upper endoscopy)

242
Q

Clinical outcomes of helicobacter pylori infections

A

> 80% asymptomatic or chronic gastritis
15-20% chronic atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia, or gastric/duodenal ulcers
<1% gastric cancer, MALT lymphoma

243
Q

Types of hepatitis

A

Hep A/B/C/D/E

244
Q

____ is 100x more infectious than HIV

A

HepB

245
Q

1 in 5 people with ___ don’t know they have it and there is no vaccination for it (but there is a treatment!)

A

Hep C

246
Q

____ is the leading cause of liver cancer and most common reason for liver transplant

A

Hepatitis

247
Q

Over ____ million Americans are infected with hepatitis and most do not know it

A

4.4 million

248
Q

Which hepatitis has fecal-oral transmission

A

Hep A and E

249
Q

which hepatitis has bloodborne, sexual, vertical transmission

A

B, C, and D

250
Q

Incubation and chronic infection of Hep A

A

15-40 days, no chronic infxn

251
Q

Incubation and chronic infection of HepB

A

60-180 days, YES chronic infxn

252
Q

Incubation and chronic infection of Hep C

A

60-120 days YES chronic infxn

253
Q

Incubation and chronic infection of HepD

A

60-180 days, YES chronic infection

254
Q

Incubation and chronic infection of Hep E

A

21-42 days, NO chronic infection

255
Q

Which hepatitis has clinical outcomes of chronic infection of cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Hep B and C

256
Q

Which hep has co-infection as clinical outcomes of chronic infection

A

Hep D

257
Q

Def hepatitis

A

inflammation of liver

258
Q

Def acute viral hepatitis

A

Symptoms last less than 6 mo

259
Q

Def acute hepatic failure

A

The appearance of severe complications rapidly after the first signs of liver disease (such as jaundice) and indicates that the liver has sustained severe damage (loss of fxn in 80-90% liver cells)
Massive hepatic necrosis with impaired consciousness within 8 weeks of onset of illness

260
Q

Def chronic hepatitis

A

Inflammation of liver for at least 6 mo

261
Q

Def cirrhosis

A

Replacement of liver tissue leads to fibrosis (scar tissue), leads to loss of liver fxn (lack of blood flow thru liver)

262
Q

Def fulminant hepatitis

A

severe impairment of hepatic functions or severe necrosis of hepatocytes in the absence of preexisting liver disease

263
Q

S/sx of hepatitis

A

Acute infection with limited or no symptoms

Symptoms: jaundice, dark urine, extreme fatigue, N/V, abdominal pain

264
Q

Progression of Hepatitis

A

Normal liver, chronic hepatitis, 20-25 years Cirrhosis, 25-30 years HCC/ESLD/Death

265
Q

_____ people under age 50 (67%) have HSV1 infection globally

A

3.7 billion

266
Q

___ people aged 15-49 (11%) have HSV2 infection globally

A

417 million

267
Q

___ is oral herpes vs ____ is genital herpes

A

HSV 1 vs HSV 2

268
Q

Transmission of HSV2

A

during sex, through contact with genital surfaces, skins, sores, or fluids of someone infected with the virus
Can be transmitted in the absence of symptoms

Rare: mother to infant during delivery

269
Q

T/F: HSV2 cannot be transmitted from a mother to infant during delivery

A

FALSE - it’s rare but can happen

270
Q

S/sx of HSV2

A

often no symptoms or mild symptoms (unrecognized)
10-20% people with HSV2 infection report a prior diagnosis of genital herpes

Characterized by one or more genital/anal blisters or open sores called ulcers
New HSV2 infections may include fever, body aches, and swollen lymph nodes

271
Q

HPV stands for

A

Human papillomavirus

272
Q

HPV transmission

A

through direct skin-to-skin contact

appox 30 types are transmitted sexually

273
Q

HPV infects ____ and causes ____

A

Infects human skin and mucosal cells and causes warts

274
Q

Several highly pathogenic types of HPV may cause ___

A

cancer

275
Q

Nearly all cases of cervical cancer are the result of ___

A

HPV infection

276
Q

T/F: The viral particle of HPV is enveloped

A

False - UNenveloped

277
Q

Capsid of HPV is composed of ___ and ___

A

L1 and L2

278
Q

Major protein ___ forms pentameters of 2 types ___ and ___

A

L1
60 hexavalent pentamers
12 pentavalent pentamers

279
Q

___ proteins of HPV are glycosated

A

L1

280
Q

Minor protein ____ connects to each ____ pentameter from the ____ of the particle

A

L2
L1
inside

281
Q

T/F: Most cases of HPV also have genital warts called condyloma acuminatum

A

FALSE - 90% of HPV will NOT get gential warts

282
Q

What does condyloma acuminatum mean

A

Condyloma - knuckle like growth

Acuminatum - latin for pointed

283
Q

What is the plural of condyloma acuminatum?

A

Condylomata acuminata

284
Q

Condyloma acuminatum transmission

A

Direct skin to skin contact usually during oral/genital/anal sex with infected partner

285
Q

Portal of entry for HPV

A

Mucous membranes of genitals, mouth

286
Q

S/sx of genital warts

A

Warts can be flat, raised, or lumpy

287
Q

T/F: Cervical cancer has early symptoms

A

False - it has no early symptoms

288
Q

Diagnosis of genital warts

A

Visual inspection, biopsy

289
Q

Treatment of genital warts

A

Topica interferon, surgical removal, cryotherapy

290
Q

What is cryotherapy

A

Freezing off warts

291
Q

What is the vaccine Gardasil for

A

prevention of genital warts associated with cancer

292
Q

Who should be vaccinated for HPV

A

all children 11 or 12 yo
Males: thru age 21 if they did not as a child (age 26 if gay/bisexual)
Females thru age 26 if they did not as a child
Immunocompromised thru age 26

293
Q

T/F: there are tests to find out HPV status

A

False - no test to find out HPV status, no approved HPV test to find HPV in the mouth or throat

ai (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions