Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Microbes Timeline: 3.5 billion yr ago
A
Prokaryotes
2
Q
Microbes timeline: 2.5 billion yrs ago
A
Eukaryotes
3
Q
Microbes timeline: 1 billion years ago
A
Multi-celled organisms
4
Q
Microbes timeline: 500 mil years ago
A
Development of brains
5
Q
Microbes timeline: 475 yrs ago
A
Life moves to land
6
Q
Microbes timeline: 230 yrs ago
A
Mammals
7
Q
Microbes timeline: if you imagine Earth began as a single day
A
5 am: microbes
10pm: dinos
seconds before 12am: humans
8
Q
Tree of life: 3 domains
A
Archaea, bacteria, eukaryota
9
Q
Tree of life: Archaea
A
bacteria with internal membranes, found in extreme environments (out bodies too!)
10
Q
Tree of life: bacteria
A
Single celled organisms, more forms of bacteria than any other organism on Earth
11
Q
Tree of life: Eukaryota categories
A
Protista
Plantae
Fungi
Animalia
12
Q
Tree of life: Eukaryota: Protista
A
mostly single-celled organisms that have a nucleus, usually live in water
Made up of: protozoa, unicellular algae, and slime molds
13
Q
Protista examples
A
Algae, paramecium, amoeba
14
Q
Protista are made up of
A
protozoa, unicellular algae, slime molds
15
Q
Tree of life: Eukaryota: Plantae
A
Plants contain chlorophyll for photosynthesis and have cellulose for cell walls
Fixed in one place
16
Q
Tree of life: Eukaryota: Fungi
A
Motionless organisms that absorb nutrients for survival
Ex. mushrooms, molds, and yeasts (the only that are not multicellular)
17
Q
Tree of life: Eukaryota: animalia
A
Most complex organisms on earth
Divided into vertebrates and invertebrates
Include mammals, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and fish
18
Q
Pathogen: 6 categories
A
Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Protozoa ("first animal")
Parasites
Prion proteins
Increasing complexity: viruses 0.03-0.3µm, bacteria 0.1-10µm, fungi (4-10µm), parasites
19
Q
Pathogens: Viruses
A
Non-cellular, size 20-300nm
no cytoplasm or organelles, no chromosomes (only RNA/DNA)
Covered in protein coat
depend on cells for metabolism/reproduction
20
Q
Pathogens: Viruses: structure
A
Core of RNA/DNA enclosed in a capsid
Capsid surrounded by envelope
Surface proteins (spikes) on the outside
21
Q
Viral shedding
A
Expulsions and release of virus progeny following successful reproduction during a host-cell infection
22
Q
Bacteriophage viruses
A
Virus head “capsid” has high pressure and it pushes DNA into the cell
Bacteriophage can be dormant or lyse (burst) and kill host cell
23
Q
Pathogen: Bacteria
A
Single celled microbes
No nucleus or membrane bound organelles
Genetic info is in a single loop of DNA
Extra genes in an extra loop of genetic material called plasmid (usually advantages like abx resistance )
24
Q
Pathogens: Fungi
A
Usually saprophytes (consume dead organisms)
Fungal spore size 1-40µm in length
Ex. Candida albicans - alkalinizes local extracellular environment (picture of tongue)
25
Example of fungi pathogen
Candida albicans
26
Pathogen: Virus size
20-300nm
27
Pathogen: Fungi spore size
1-40µm
28
Pathogen: Prion proteins
Mad-cow disease starts when PrP in nervous system abnormally fold and cause normal PrPs to abnormally fold too, brain cells become clogged with abnormal PrPs
Usually due to mutation but can be passed along when animal/human eats infected nervous system tissue
Cannot be destroyed by cooking
29
Pathogens: Diseases caused by prions
Mad cow
Scrapie
Kuru
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
30
Pathogen: Prion: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Caused by prion build up, brain slowly shrinks, tissue filled with holes looks like a sponge
Lose ability to think and move, memory loss
Always fatal, usually within a year of onset of illness
31
4 developments that have taken us from 2 generation society to a four
Vaccination
Hygienic medical practice
Chlorination
Antibiotics
32
Vaccines have been made for only ___ of the 400+ known pathogens that are harmful to man
34
33
What is chlorination?
Water chlorination is the process of adding Cl2 or hypochlorite to water
It kills bacteria and other microbes in tap water
Prevents spread of waterborne diseases such as cholera, dysentery, typhoid
34
What are some waterborne diseases chlorination helps prevent?
Cholera, dysentery, typhoid
35
What were Sir Alexander Fleming's best known discoveries
enzyme lysozyme in 1923 and penicillin from the mold Penicillium notatum in 1923
36
Who were the 2 people Alexander Fleming shared the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1945 with?
Howard Florey and Ernst Boris Chain
37
What mold is penicillin made from?
Penicillium notatum
38
What are Koch's postulates?
1. microorganisms must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease and none from healthy organisms
2. Microorganisms must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture
3. Cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced to a healthy organism
4. Microorganism must be reisolated from inoculated diseased experimental host and identified as identical to the original specific causative agent
39
Endemic def
constant presence (regularly found among particular people or in a certain area)
40
Epidemic def
localized outbreak
41
Pandemic def
Widespread regional or global epidemic
42
What are the 5 characteristics of epidemics?
```
Infectivity
Disease index
Virulence
Incidence
Prevalence
```
43
Epidemics: Infectivity: def
The frequency with which an infection is transmitted when there is contact between the agent and a susceptible individual
44
Epidemics: Disease index: Def
The number of persons who develop the disease divided by total number infected (disease vs infected)
45
Epidemics: Virulence: Def
The number of fatal or severe cases per total number of cases
46
Epidemics: Incidence: Def
```
The number of new cases of a disease within a specified period, is described as a rate in which the number of cases is the numerator and the number of people in the population under surveillance is the denominator
# cases / # of ppl in pop. under surveillance
```
47
Epidemics: Prevalence: Def
It can also be described as a rate to indicate the total number of case existing in the population at a risk at a point in time
48
What increases complexity?
Genes + proteins (+ microbes)
49
Our relationship with out microbes is not just one of ___ but ____
Not just one of TOLERANCE but ENCOURAGEMENT
50
You are 0.5% human: ___ human cells make the human body (___genes)
10 trillion human cells, 21,000 genes
51
You are 0.5% human: ___ plus or minus microbes on one person alone (____ genes)
100 trillion microbes, 4.4 million genes
52
You are 0.5% human: around ___ species of microbes are found in the intestines
1200
53
More than ____ species of microbes live in the stomach, where they graze on the slime lining its walls
100
54
Younger children who lose ___ from their stomach by taking antibiotics are molikely to develop asthma and allergies
Helicobacter pylori
55
Over your lifetime, you will play hose to bugs the equivalent weight of _____ african elephants
5
56
Most of the microbes living inside us die when they are exposed to ___ because ____
oxygen because they are adapted to an oxygen-free existence deep in our guts
57
Microbes on the subway: 1.6% is associated with the ___
eye
58
Microbes on the subway: almost ___ associated with BREATHING
10%
59
Microbes on the subway: ___ associated with MOUTH bacteria
6.5%
60
Microbes on the subway: ____ associated with GI tract
32.3%
61
Microbes on subway: ___ associated with SKIN bacterial
29%
62
Microbes on subway: ___ associated with urogenital tract
20%
63
Microbes on the subway: ____ of the genetic data found on the subway did not match to any known organism, showing how vast and unexplored the microbiome is
48%
64
Benefits of the normal flora: Many of these microbes do not hurt us but are essential for keeping us healthy and happy. Some functions are ___
produce vitamins we cannot make
Breakdown food for us
Strengthen immune system
Fight off disease-causing organisms
65
Microbiome at birth: For ___ years baby microbiomes grow while their immune systems develop, learning not to attack friendly bacteria
2-3 years
66
What is the name of the mummy that researchers found remains of his gut bacteria?
Oetzi the Iceman
67
Caecum is considered the _____ of the human body's microbial community
Heart
68
The ___ is connected to the cecum
Appendix
69
___ is an intraperitoneal pouch that is considered to be the beginning of the large intestine
Cecum
70
Cecum is the epicenter of microbial life where trillions of microbes of at least ___ species make the most of the partially digested food that has passed through nutrient-extraction processes into the small intestine
4000 species
71
___ are left over for the microbes in the cecum to tack in round 2 digestion
Tough bits - plant fibers
72
The appendix helps protect out ____
beneficial gut bacteria when a serious infection strikes
73
Appendix is packed full of _____
specialized immune cells and molecules
74
The gut can be repopulated with its normal inhabitants, which have been lurking in the ___
Appendix (a safe house that human body has provided for its microbial inhabitants)
75
The appendix is a blind-ended tube connected to the caecum, from which it develops ____
embryologically
76
The appendix protects us from:
```
Recurrent GI infections
Immune dysfunction
blood cancer
some autoimmune diseases
Heart attacks
```
77
Biofilm def
Aggregates the bacteria embedded in a matrix produced by them interspersed by water channels
78
Example of biofilm
Dental plaque
79
What is quorum sensing
Microbes communicating with each other by chemical language via signals called auto inducers
Quorum sensing coordinates gene expression
80
Some studies suggested that C-section babies may have an elevated risk for developing immune and metabolic disorders like ____
T1DM, allergies, asthma, and obesity
81
What is vaginal microbial transfer?
When they introduce microbes from vaginal fluids (collected before surgery) to the baby after a C-section for 1-2 minutes
82
A mother's vaginal fluids are loaded with one such essential bacterium ___ that helps digest human milk
lactobacillus
83
____ is considered to be a "newly discovered organ" since its existence was not generally recognized until the late 1990s and it is understood to potentially have overwhelming impact on human health
microbiome
84
Catabolic pathways: 2 types
Anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration
85
What is anaerobic respiration (fermentation)?
Partial breakdown of organics that occurs w/o O2
| Yields 2 ATP
86
What is aerobic respiration?
Complete breakdown of organics with O2
| Yields 36 or 38 ATP
87
_____ yields only 2 ATP while ___ yields 36 or 38 ATP
Anaerobic yields 2 ATP
| Aerobic yields 36 or 38 ATP
88
Compare fermentation and aerobic respiration
Both use glycolysis (glu to pyruvate)
Have different e-acceptors (pyruvate/acetaldehye vs O2)
Aerobic respiration produces 36 or 38 ATP/glucose but fermentation produces 2 ATP/glucose
89
Obligate aerobes def
Require an ample oxygen source to perform respiration
90
Microaerophilic/microaerobic
Requires small amounts of oxygen
91
Capnophilic def
Microbes that require low oxygen but high CO2 conc
92
Facultative anaerobes def
Organisms that perform anaerobic glycolysis in the absence of oxygen but can perform aerobic respiration in the presence of oxygen
93
Obligate anerobes def
Die in presence of oxygen because they lack chemistry to produce organic compounds via reduction of oxygen
94
Bacteria use 3 main mechanisms to adapt to changing environments
1. gene transfer
2. Regulation of gene expression
3. mutation
95
Bacteria adaptation: Gene transfer consists of these 3 things
1. transformation
2. transduction
3. conjugation
96
Gene transfer: Transformation def
The recipient cell directly takes up naked DNA released from the donor cell altering its genotype (it can occur in the medium and natural transformation can also occur)
97
Gene transfer: Transduction
Process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus
98
Gene transfer: Conjugation
Cell to cell contact and transfers genetic material (male/female cells)
Plasmids are most frequently transferred by conjugation
Sex pilus is responsible for the attachment of donor and recipient cell (male has sex pilus)
99
Gene transfer: conjugation: Which cell has the sex pilus?
Male cell
100
What are operons?
A group of genes that are transcribed at the same time
Usually control an important biochemical process
Only found in PROKARYOTES
includes a series of structural genes along a segment of DNA and two other portions of DNA (promoter and operator)
101
Operons are only found in ___
Prokaryotes
102
In prokaryotes, genes are turned on and off using ___
operons
103
Operons: what happens when the operator area is ON
RNA polymerase attaches at the promoter and transcription occurs
104
Operons: What happens when operator is "off"?
Operator area is blocked by repressor protein and transcription cannot occur
105
What is the lac operon?
Operon processing the sugar lactose
One of the mis the gene for the en
Enzyme beta-galactosidase (lactase)
Lactase breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose
106
What happens when the lac operon is on?
Lactose inhibits the repressor, allowing RNA polymerase to bind with the promotor and synthesize lactase
Lactase will digest all of the lactose until there is none to bind to the repressor and then the repressor will bind to the operator
107
Explain process of gram staining
Crystal violet is applied to the specimen, then iodine (kills cell and fixes the stain)
Slide washed with alcohol
Gram positive - retains crystal violet iodine stain (purple)
Gam negative - safranin dye (pink)
108
Structural differences between gram-neg and gram-pos bacteria
Gram-pos: peptidogylcan and membrane
| Gram-neg: outer membrane, peptidoglycan (much thinner than the gram-positive one), membrane
109
4 Phases off population bacterial growth in closed culture
```
Lag phase
Log phase (optimal growth)
Stationary phase (bacterial pop levels out and population growth nears 0 again, fermentation/pharmaceuticals use chemostat to keep bacteria in stationary phase)
Death phase (waste and dead cells begin to accumulate, population declines, spore formers can persist beyond this stage and can regenerate a population if conditions become favorable again)
```
110
The chemostat is used in fermentation and pharmaceutical industries to keep bacterial growth in the ___ phase
stationery
111
Infection vs infectious disease
Infection is the INVASION, MULTIPLICATION of disease causing agents and the REACTION of host tissues to these organisms and toxins they produce
Infectious disease (aka transmissible disease or communicable disease) is illness resulting from an infection
112
Bacteria that causes dental caries
Streptococcus mutans
113
T/F: Streptococcus mutans is an example of obligate anaerobes
FALSE - it is a facultative anaerobe
114
T/F: Streptococcus mutans is gram-NEGATIVE
FALSE - it is gram-positive coccus
115
Dental caries (tooth decay) is caused by specific types of bacteria that produce acid in the presence of fermentable carbohydrates such as ____
sucrose, fructose, and glucose
116
Complications of dental caries
S. Mutans colonize in the heart, often in heart valves and cause inflammation (endocarditis) and can be lethal
Endocarditis is most often caused by invasion of S. mutans
117
Endocarditis can be caused by which two bacteria
Staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus mutans
118
HSV-1 pathway
Herpesvirus enters body, lies dormant in the nerves, reactivated and cause another outbreak
119
HSV-1 progression
```
Tingling 1 day
Redness and bumps 1-2 days
Blisters 2-3 days
Scabs 5-7 days
Redness 1-2 days
```
120
HSV-1: Primary (acute) herpetic gingivostomatitis: Young children are at risk for developing extensive _____ when first infected with the virus
oropharyngeal vesicular eruptions
121
HSV-1: Primary (acute) herpetic gingivostomatitis: S/sx and diagnosis
Self-limiting disease
Significant mouth discomfort, fever, lymphadenopathy, and difficulty with eating/drinking
May last for 2 weeks
Diagnosis clinically and confirmed by lab tests
122
HSV-1: Primary (acute) herpetic gingivostomatitis: Treatment
Some young children require hospitalization for dehydration/pain
Acyclovir
123
Mononucleosis incubation period and transmission
Incubation for 4-6 weeks, spreads by casual contact, usually via saliva (kissing disease)
124
T/F: Mononucleosis is not self-treatable and lasts for an extended amount of time
FALSE - it is self treatable and resolves within days/weeks
125
Mononucleosis: S/sx
```
Fatigue malaise, loss of appetite, headache
Photophobia
Red/swelling tonsils
Throat: soreness, pharyngitis, palatal petechiae (roof of mouth is red)
Swollen lymph. nodes
Cough
Spleen: enlargement, abdominal pain
Systemic: chills, fevers, aches
Nausea
```
Rash - erythema nodosum
126
What is erythema nodosum?
Skin rash caused by mono
127
What is palatal petechiae
Roof of mouth is red
128
What is a complication of mono
splenomegaly
129
What is a role of the spleen
filters blood
Recycles RBC and stores WBC/platelets
Fights bacteria that causes pneumonia and meningitis
130
Someone with mono should avoid ______ because of the possibility that the ____ can rupture
contact sports
| spleen
131
What is the epstein barr virus
Human herpesvirus 4 (HHV-4)
one of the 8 known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, one of most common viruses in humans
95% of adults in the US have evidence of EBV antibodies in blood
132
Who found the Epstein-Barr virus
Sir Michael Anthony Epstein and Yvonne Barr
133
Describe staphylococci
Common inhabitant of the skin and mucous membranes
Spherical cells arranged in irregular clusters
Gram-POSITIVE
Lack spores and flagella
May have capsules
31 species
134
There are ___ species of staphylococci
31
135
Staphylococci is gram-____
positive
136
Boils description
Most common S. aureus skin infection
Infection of hair follicle or oil gland
S/sx: redness, pus swelling
Treatment: drainage, keep skin clean, abx
137
MRSA description
Caused by S. aureus
First recognized around 1960 and entered wider community in 1990s (community-associated MRSA or CA-MRSA)
Resistant to common antibiotics, generally harmless unless it enters via cut/wounds
138
MRSA s/sx
red or tender skin around wound
swollen, painful, oozing boils
Does not get better with typical abx treatments
Serious symptoms: fever, difficulty breathing, chills, chest pain
139
Complications of MRSA
Often community acquired so isolation is important (ASAP)
| Sepsis can result if bacterial infection invades bloodstream
140
Streptococci description
Gram-POSITIVE spherical/ovoid cocci arranged in long chains
non-spore forming, nonmotile
Can form capsules and slime layers
Facultative anaerobes
Do not form catalase
Most parasitic forms are fastidious and require enriched media
Small, non-pigmented colonies
141
T/F: Streptococci are facultative anaerobes
True
142
Strep throat transmission
spreads through person-person contact, through fluids from nose/saliva
143
Strep s/sx
Red sore throat, fever, pain when swallowing, swollen neck glands
144
Strep throat treatment
Penicillin, amoxicillin for 10 days
145
T/F: S/sx Red/swollen tonsils and throat ONLY is an indication of strep
FALSE -- probably viral infection, not bacterial.
| Strep has red/swollen tonsils and throat, AND swollen uvula, white spots, gray and furry tongue
146
Describe conjunctivitis
Aka pink eye
| Inflammation of the outermost layer of the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelid
147
Describe keratitis
Condition in which the eye's cornea, the front part of the eye, becomes inflamed
148
T/F: the transparent, fibrous outer layer of the anterior outer layer of the eye is the conjunctiva
FALSE - it is the cornea
149
T/F: The mucous membrane lining the eyelid and covering eyeball is the cornea
FALSE - it is the conjunctiva
150
What are the 5 types of conjunctivitis
```
Bacterial
Viral
Chlamydia
Allergic
REactive
```
151
Bacterial conjunctivitis is caused by _____
STtphylococcus aureus, streptococcus pneumoniae, H. influenza, M. catarrhalis
152
Describe bacterial conjunctivitis
A red eye with a stick yellow/green/white purulent discharge throughout the day
Eyelids may be stuck together upon waking (matting), can affect one/both eyes
Usually spread by direct contact only
153
Describe viral conjunctivitis
Commonly associated with "pink eye" can affect one or both eyes, highly contagious
Appearance: injected, red, itchy, watery (or mucoserous) eye, may be associated with URI symptoms, burning, sandy/gritting feeling in eye
154
Viral conjunctivitis is caused by ______
adenovirus (the common cold)
155
Chlamydia conjunctivitis is caused by ___
sexually transmitted infections
156
Allergic conjunctivitis are caused by ___
pollen, dust
157
Reactive conjunctivitis is caused by ___
chemicals such as chlorine in swimming pools, shampoos, and other foreign objects
158
S/sx of keratitis
Reduce visual clarity, produce corneal discharges, erosion
| Can cause corneal scarring and impair vision (may require corneal transplant)
159
Types of keratitis
Bacterial
Viral
Acanthamoeba
Fungal
160
Bacterial keratitis is caused by ___
staphylococcus, streptococcus, moraxella, haemophilus, gonococcus
161
Viral keratitis is caused by ____
herpes simplex, herpes zoster
162
Bacterial meningitis is caused by ____
Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenzae
163
What is the meninges
Layered unit of membranous connective tissue that covers brain and spinal cord
164
What is the function of meninges
```
Protect and support CNS
connect brain and spinal cord to skull and spinal canal
Form protective barrier
Supply blood vessels for CNS
Produce CSF
```
165
3 membranes of meninges
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater
166
Pneumococcal meningitis is caused by ___
pneumococcus
167
T/F: There is no vaccine for pneumococcus that causes pneumococcal meningitis
False - there is a vaccine that covers most common strains of pneumococcus (which causes pneumonia, one of the leading causes of death in US)
168
T/F: Neisseria meningitidis is gram-negative
True
169
T/F: Haemophilus influenzae is gram-positive
FALSE -- it is gram negative
170
Bacterial meningitis transmission
Respiratory droplets, direct contact, formites
College students are at increased risk for meningococcal meningitis
171
Bacterial meningitis portal of entry
Respiratory
172
Bacterial meningitis: Disease mechanism
All three are encapsulated, capsule protects from complement but not antibody
N. meningitidis uses type IV pili to adhere and enter epithelium
All pass BBB (inflammation of brain/spinal coverings)
Endotoxin of N. meningitidis and H. influenzae causes disseminated intravascular coagulation
Can be fatal within hours
173
T/F: Bacterial meningitis can be fatal within days
FALSE - hours
174
Bacterial meningitis: Endotoxin of ___ and ___ cause disseminated intravascular coagulation
N. meningitidis and H. influenzae
175
S/sx of bacterial meningitis
Headache, neck pain, fever, altered mental status, phonophobia, photophobia, petechiae, N/V
176
Infectious diseases that cause photophobia (2)
Mono and bacterial meningitis
177
Diagnosis of bacterial meningitis
S/sx and culture of organisms from spinal fluid
178
Treatment of bacterial meningitis
Broad-spectrum abx administered immediately
179
Prevention of bacterial meningitis
Immunization (for pneumococcus, meningococcus, and Hib)
Isolation of patients
Prophylactic abx for close contacts
Lifestyle: immune system healthy, quit smoking, rest, healthy diet, avoid close contact with sick people
180
Complications of bacterial meningitis
Stroke and brain damage
Can be fatal
Memory problems, hearing loss, paralysis, kidney failure, body-wide infection and shock (septicemia), movement problems, learning disabilities
181
Best treatment for bacterial meningitis is ___
prevention
182
In 1985 ___ was the main cause of bacterial meningitis but in 1995 ___ was the main cause of bacterial meningitis
1985 - H. influenzae (then S. pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis)
1995 - Streptococcus pneumoniae (then neisseria meningitidis, S. pneumoniae)
183
Strept throat is caused by ___
Streptococcus pyogenes group A/B/C
184
Streptococcus pyogenes are gram ____
positive
185
Transmission of strep throat
Direct contact (sharing food/drinks, not washing hands), respiratory, droplets (cough/sneeze), indirect by fomites (clothes, utensils, surfaces, etc.)
186
Strep throat portal of entry
Respiratory
187
Strep disease mechanism
S. pyogenes is B-hemolytic (lyses RBC via exotoxin streptolysin) and uses proteins to help evade phagocytosis, allows for colonization in the. throat/skin
Bacteria in throat will bring RBC/WBC causing inflammation, swells mucous membranes in pharynx and tonsils, SORE THROAT
188
S pyogenes pyrogenic exotxin can cause ____
scarlet fever
189
S. pyogenes M protein can trigger autoimmune reaction such as ____ and ___
rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis
190
S/sx of strep throat
Sore throat, enlarged cervical lymph nodes, exudate on tonsils, fever, no cough
191
Diagnosis of strep throat
Rapid strep test, culture of organisms
192
Treatment of strep throat
Abx, rest
193
Prevention of strep throat
Isolation of infected patient
194
Otitis media is caused by ____
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, moraxella catarrhalis
195
Disease mechanism of otitis media
Inflammation of middle ear
Following bacterial infection of upper respiratory system, bacteria travels from nasopharynx to middle ear via eustachian tube, alters pressure in middle ear, bacteria arrives in middle ear, inflammation
196
____ help the tendency in forming acute otitis media
Nose blowing, pressure changes, and perforation of the membrane
197
Treatment of otitis media
Amoxicillin for children and adults (adults with higher doses)
198
Describe otitis media
Inflammation of middle ear
199
Bacterial pneumonias are caused by ___
Streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae, mycoplasma pneumoniae
200
What is bacterial pneumonias
An infection of the lungs characterized by the inflammation of filling of alveoli with fluid + pus (alveoli fill with bacteria and blood cells) with fevers, cough, chest pain, and chills
201
Influenza types
Type A/B/C enveloped RNA virus
202
Transmission of influenza
Respiratory droplets
203
Portal of entry of influenza
Respiratory system
204
Disease mechanism of influenza
HA proteins bind to respiratory epithelium, host cells engulf virus, virus is uncoated in vacuole, RNA enters cytoplasm, replicates, new virus particles assemble, NA allows exit from host cell
205
S/sx of influenza
1 day incubation period, sudden fever, sore throat, dry cough, malaise, headache, muscle pains
206
Diagnosis of influenza
s/sx during outbreak, antibody test
207
Treatment of influenza
Antiviral drugs (zanamivisr and oseltamivir), bed rest, fever reduction, respiratory support if needed
208
2 examples of influenza antiviral meds
Zanamivir and oseltamivir
209
Describe endocarditis
Inflammation of the endocardium (inner heart muscle lining)
| Rapid destruction of heart valves leads to death
210
Bacterial endocarditis is caused by ____
staphylococcus aureus and streptococci
211
Bacterial endocarditis treatment
Rx penicillin
212
Lyme disease is caused by ____
deer tick
213
Pathogen of lyme disease
Bacteria borrelia
214
S/sx of lyme disease
Headache, hearing loss, paralysis of face, muscle soreness, erythema migrans (rash) fever/chills/fatigue/weakness/heart complications, N/V, swollen knee
215
Stages of lyme disease
Stage 1 (early localized) days
- erythema migrans rash at tick bite site
Stage 2 (early disseminated) weeks
- flu-like illness, cardiac, neurologic
Stage 3 (late) months to years
- lyme arthritis, encephalopathy or neuropathy
216
Treatment for lyme disease
ASAP abx
- oral abx for early-stage lyme disease (doxycycline for adults and children <8 // amoxicillin or cefuroxime for adults, younger children, and pregnant/breastfeeding women)
- IV abx: CNS involvement
217
Staphylococcal food poisoning is caused by ___
Staphylococcus aureus
| Ingestion of enterotoxin in improperly stored foods (room temp)
218
Food poisoning is caused by the ingestion of ____ in improperly stored foods
Enterotoxins
219
Food poisoning source: foods with _____ and those not cooked immediately before ___
high somatic pressure and not cooked before consumption
220
Mechanism of food poisoning
Food containing protein is cooked (bacterial killed)
and then contaminated by worker with staphylococci on hands
Organisms incubate in food long enough to form and release toxins
Reheat will eliminate staphylococci but not toxins
Toxins are ingested
1-6 hours intoxication occurs
221
T/F: When food is contaminated by staphylococci, reheating will eliminate both the bacteria and toxins
False - only the bacteria, but toxins will remain
222
Food poisoning (intoxication) occurs ___ hours after ingestion
1-6 hours
223
E. coli stands for
Escherichia coli
224
E.coli transmission
Fecal - oral
225
Portal of entry for e.coli
GI
226
E. coli disease mechanism
Depends on specific genes in different pathovars of E.coli
LT and ST enterotoxins disrupt chloride channels
Shiga toxin inhibits protein synthesis and endothelial cells in intestine, kidney, and brain
227
____ and ___ enterotoxins of E.coli disrupt ____ channels
LT and ST disrupt chloride
228
___ toxin inhibits ___ synthesis of endothelial cells in ____,____, and ____
shiga toxin inhibits protein synthesis in intestine, kidney, and brain
229
S/sx of E.coli enteritis
Enterotoxins cause water diarrhea
Shiga toxin causes bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome which causes kidney damage, intravascular clots that lead to skin hemorrhages, coma
230
S/sx of e.coli: Enterotoxins cause ____
water diarrhea
231
S/sx of e.coli: Shiga toxin causes ___
blood diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome which causes kidney damage, intravascular clots that lead to skin hemorrhages, coma
232
Which toxin of E.coli causes bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome, which causes kidney damage, intravascular clots that lead to skin hemorrhages, coma
Shiga toxin
233
Diagnosis E.coli
Culture of organism and genetic characterization
234
Treatment of E.coli
Supportive, transfusion, dialysis
| Abx will trigger release of shiga toxins
235
___ will trigger the release of shiga toxins of E.coli
Antibiotics
236
Prevention of E.coli
personal hygiene
| cook food thoroughly
237
Helicobacter pylori produces ____ which ____ stomach acid
ammonia which neutralizes stomach acid
238
____ will colonize the stomach mucosa and cause peptic ulcer disease
Helicobacter pylori
239
____ can be used to detect in clinical examination to indicate infection or antigen detection of helicobacter pylori
Urease (enzyme)
240
Treatment of peptic ulcers
Bismuth, combination abx, acid suppressors
241
What kind of endoscopy can be used for peptic ulcer disease?
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD or upper endoscopy)
242
Clinical outcomes of helicobacter pylori infections
>80% asymptomatic or chronic gastritis
15-20% chronic atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia, or gastric/duodenal ulcers
<1% gastric cancer, MALT lymphoma
243
Types of hepatitis
Hep A/B/C/D/E
244
____ is 100x more infectious than HIV
HepB
245
1 in 5 people with ___ don't know they have it and there is no vaccination for it (but there is a treatment!)
Hep C
246
____ is the leading cause of liver cancer and most common reason for liver transplant
Hepatitis
247
Over ____ million Americans are infected with hepatitis and most do not know it
4.4 million
248
Which hepatitis has fecal-oral transmission
Hep A and E
249
which hepatitis has bloodborne, sexual, vertical transmission
B, C, and D
250
Incubation and chronic infection of Hep A
15-40 days, no chronic infxn
251
Incubation and chronic infection of HepB
60-180 days, YES chronic infxn
252
Incubation and chronic infection of Hep C
60-120 days YES chronic infxn
253
Incubation and chronic infection of HepD
60-180 days, YES chronic infection
254
Incubation and chronic infection of Hep E
21-42 days, NO chronic infection
255
Which hepatitis has clinical outcomes of chronic infection of cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma
Hep B and C
256
Which hep has co-infection as clinical outcomes of chronic infection
Hep D
257
Def hepatitis
inflammation of liver
258
Def acute viral hepatitis
Symptoms last less than 6 mo
259
Def acute hepatic failure
The appearance of severe complications rapidly after the first signs of liver disease (such as jaundice) and indicates that the liver has sustained severe damage (loss of fxn in 80-90% liver cells)
Massive hepatic necrosis with impaired consciousness within 8 weeks of onset of illness
260
Def chronic hepatitis
Inflammation of liver for at least 6 mo
261
Def cirrhosis
Replacement of liver tissue leads to fibrosis (scar tissue), leads to loss of liver fxn (lack of blood flow thru liver)
262
Def fulminant hepatitis
severe impairment of hepatic functions or severe necrosis of hepatocytes in the absence of preexisting liver disease
263
S/sx of hepatitis
Acute infection with limited or no symptoms
| Symptoms: jaundice, dark urine, extreme fatigue, N/V, abdominal pain
264
Progression of Hepatitis
Normal liver, chronic hepatitis, 20-25 years Cirrhosis, 25-30 years HCC/ESLD/Death
265
_____ people under age 50 (67%) have HSV1 infection globally
3.7 billion
266
___ people aged 15-49 (11%) have HSV2 infection globally
417 million
267
___ is oral herpes vs ____ is genital herpes
HSV 1 vs HSV 2
268
Transmission of HSV2
during sex, through contact with genital surfaces, skins, sores, or fluids of someone infected with the virus
Can be transmitted in the absence of symptoms
Rare: mother to infant during delivery
269
T/F: HSV2 cannot be transmitted from a mother to infant during delivery
FALSE - it's rare but can happen
270
S/sx of HSV2
often no symptoms or mild symptoms (unrecognized)
10-20% people with HSV2 infection report a prior diagnosis of genital herpes
Characterized by one or more genital/anal blisters or open sores called ulcers
New HSV2 infections may include fever, body aches, and swollen lymph nodes
271
HPV stands for
Human papillomavirus
272
HPV transmission
through direct skin-to-skin contact
| appox 30 types are transmitted sexually
273
HPV infects ____ and causes ____
Infects human skin and mucosal cells and causes warts
274
Several highly pathogenic types of HPV may cause ___
cancer
275
Nearly all cases of cervical cancer are the result of ___
HPV infection
276
T/F: The viral particle of HPV is enveloped
False - UNenveloped
277
Capsid of HPV is composed of ___ and ___
L1 and L2
278
Major protein ___ forms pentameters of 2 types ___ and ___
L1
60 hexavalent pentamers
12 pentavalent pentamers
279
___ proteins of HPV are glycosated
L1
280
Minor protein ____ connects to each ____ pentameter from the ____ of the particle
L2
L1
inside
281
T/F: Most cases of HPV also have genital warts called condyloma acuminatum
FALSE - 90% of HPV will NOT get gential warts
282
What does condyloma acuminatum mean
Condyloma - knuckle like growth
| Acuminatum - latin for pointed
283
What is the plural of condyloma acuminatum?
Condylomata acuminata
284
Condyloma acuminatum transmission
Direct skin to skin contact usually during oral/genital/anal sex with infected partner
285
Portal of entry for HPV
Mucous membranes of genitals, mouth
286
S/sx of genital warts
Warts can be flat, raised, or lumpy
287
T/F: Cervical cancer has early symptoms
False - it has no early symptoms
288
Diagnosis of genital warts
Visual inspection, biopsy
289
Treatment of genital warts
Topica interferon, surgical removal, cryotherapy
290
What is cryotherapy
Freezing off warts
291
What is the vaccine Gardasil for
prevention of genital warts associated with cancer
292
Who should be vaccinated for HPV
all children 11 or 12 yo
Males: thru age 21 if they did not as a child (age 26 if gay/bisexual)
Females thru age 26 if they did not as a child
Immunocompromised thru age 26
293
T/F: there are tests to find out HPV status
False - no test to find out HPV status, no approved HPV test to find HPV in the mouth or throat
