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Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Microbes Timeline: 3.5 billion yr ago

A

Prokaryotes

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2
Q

Microbes timeline: 2.5 billion yrs ago

A

Eukaryotes

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3
Q

Microbes timeline: 1 billion years ago

A

Multi-celled organisms

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4
Q

Microbes timeline: 500 mil years ago

A

Development of brains

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5
Q

Microbes timeline: 475 yrs ago

A

Life moves to land

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6
Q

Microbes timeline: 230 yrs ago

A

Mammals

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7
Q

Microbes timeline: if you imagine Earth began as a single day

A

5 am: microbes
10pm: dinos
seconds before 12am: humans

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8
Q

Tree of life: 3 domains

A

Archaea, bacteria, eukaryota

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9
Q

Tree of life: Archaea

A

bacteria with internal membranes, found in extreme environments (out bodies too!)

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10
Q

Tree of life: bacteria

A

Single celled organisms, more forms of bacteria than any other organism on Earth

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11
Q

Tree of life: Eukaryota categories

A

Protista
Plantae
Fungi
Animalia

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12
Q

Tree of life: Eukaryota: Protista

A

mostly single-celled organisms that have a nucleus, usually live in water
Made up of: protozoa, unicellular algae, and slime molds

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13
Q

Protista examples

A

Algae, paramecium, amoeba

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14
Q

Protista are made up of

A

protozoa, unicellular algae, slime molds

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15
Q

Tree of life: Eukaryota: Plantae

A

Plants contain chlorophyll for photosynthesis and have cellulose for cell walls
Fixed in one place

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16
Q

Tree of life: Eukaryota: Fungi

A

Motionless organisms that absorb nutrients for survival

Ex. mushrooms, molds, and yeasts (the only that are not multicellular)

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17
Q

Tree of life: Eukaryota: animalia

A

Most complex organisms on earth
Divided into vertebrates and invertebrates
Include mammals, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and fish

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18
Q

Pathogen: 6 categories

A 
Bacteria
Viruses
Fungi
Protozoa ("first animal") 
Parasites
Prion proteins

Increasing complexity: viruses 0.03-0.3µm, bacteria 0.1-10µm, fungi (4-10µm), parasites

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19
Q

Pathogens: Viruses

A

Non-cellular, size 20-300nm
no cytoplasm or organelles, no chromosomes (only RNA/DNA)
Covered in protein coat
depend on cells for metabolism/reproduction

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20
Q

Pathogens: Viruses: structure

A

Core of RNA/DNA enclosed in a capsid
Capsid surrounded by envelope
Surface proteins (spikes) on the outside

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21
Q

Viral shedding

A

Expulsions and release of virus progeny following successful reproduction during a host-cell infection

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22
Q

Bacteriophage viruses

A

Virus head “capsid” has high pressure and it pushes DNA into the cell
Bacteriophage can be dormant or lyse (burst) and kill host cell

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23
Q

Pathogen: Bacteria

A

Single celled microbes
No nucleus or membrane bound organelles
Genetic info is in a single loop of DNA
Extra genes in an extra loop of genetic material called plasmid (usually advantages like abx resistance )

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24
Q

Pathogens: Fungi

A

Usually saprophytes (consume dead organisms)
Fungal spore size 1-40µm in length
Ex. Candida albicans - alkalinizes local extracellular environment (picture of tongue)

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25
Q

Example of fungi pathogen

A

Candida albicans

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26
Q

Pathogen: Virus size

A

20-300nm

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27
Q

Pathogen: Fungi spore size

A

1-40µm

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28
Q

Pathogen: Prion proteins

A

Mad-cow disease starts when PrP in nervous system abnormally fold and cause normal PrPs to abnormally fold too, brain cells become clogged with abnormal PrPs

Usually due to mutation but can be passed along when animal/human eats infected nervous system tissue

Cannot be destroyed by cooking

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29
Q

Pathogens: Diseases caused by prions

A

Mad cow
Scrapie
Kuru
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

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30
Q

Pathogen: Prion: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

A

Caused by prion build up, brain slowly shrinks, tissue filled with holes looks like a sponge

Lose ability to think and move, memory loss
Always fatal, usually within a year of onset of illness

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31
Q

4 developments that have taken us from 2 generation society to a four

A

Vaccination
Hygienic medical practice
Chlorination
Antibiotics

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32
Q

Vaccines have been made for only ___ of the 400+ known pathogens that are harmful to man

A

34

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33
Q

What is chlorination?

A

Water chlorination is the process of adding Cl2 or hypochlorite to water
It kills bacteria and other microbes in tap water
Prevents spread of waterborne diseases such as cholera, dysentery, typhoid

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34
Q

What are some waterborne diseases chlorination helps prevent?

A

Cholera, dysentery, typhoid

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35
Q

What were Sir Alexander Fleming’s best known discoveries

A

enzyme lysozyme in 1923 and penicillin from the mold Penicillium notatum in 1923

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36
Q

Who were the 2 people Alexander Fleming shared the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1945 with?

A

Howard Florey and Ernst Boris Chain

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37
Q

What mold is penicillin made from?

A

Penicillium notatum

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38
Q

What are Koch’s postulates?

A
  1. microorganisms must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease and none from healthy organisms
  2. Microorganisms must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture
  3. Cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced to a healthy organism
  4. Microorganism must be reisolated from inoculated diseased experimental host and identified as identical to the original specific causative agent
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39
Q

Endemic def

A

constant presence (regularly found among particular people or in a certain area)

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40
Q

Epidemic def

A

localized outbreak

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41
Q

Pandemic def

A

Widespread regional or global epidemic

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42
Q

What are the 5 characteristics of epidemics?

A 
Infectivity 
Disease index
Virulence
Incidence
Prevalence
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43
Q

Epidemics: Infectivity: def

A

The frequency with which an infection is transmitted when there is contact between the agent and a susceptible individual

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44
Q

Epidemics: Disease index: Def

A

The number of persons who develop the disease divided by total number infected (disease vs infected)

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45
Q

Epidemics: Virulence: Def

A

The number of fatal or severe cases per total number of cases

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46
Q

Epidemics: Incidence: Def

A 
The number of new cases of a disease within a specified period, is described as a rate in which the number of cases is the numerator and the number of people in the population under surveillance is the denominator 
# cases / # of ppl in pop. under surveillance
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47
Q

Epidemics: Prevalence: Def

A

It can also be described as a rate to indicate the total number of case existing in the population at a risk at a point in time

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48
Q

What increases complexity?

A

Genes + proteins (+ microbes)

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49
Q

Our relationship with out microbes is not just one of ___ but ____

A

Not just one of TOLERANCE but ENCOURAGEMENT

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50
Q

You are 0.5% human: ___ human cells make the human body (___genes)

A

10 trillion human cells, 21,000 genes

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51
Q

You are 0.5% human: ___ plus or minus microbes on one person alone (____ genes)

A

100 trillion microbes, 4.4 million genes

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52
Q

You are 0.5% human: around ___ species of microbes are found in the intestines

A

1200

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53
Q

More than ____ species of microbes live in the stomach, where they graze on the slime lining its walls

A

100

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54
Q

Younger children who lose ___ from their stomach by taking antibiotics are molikely to develop asthma and allergies

A

Helicobacter pylori

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55
Q

Over your lifetime, you will play hose to bugs the equivalent weight of _____ african elephants

A

5

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56
Q

Most of the microbes living inside us die when they are exposed to ___ because ____

A

oxygen because they are adapted to an oxygen-free existence deep in our guts

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57
Q

Microbes on the subway: 1.6% is associated with the ___

A

eye

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58
Q

Microbes on the subway: almost ___ associated with BREATHING

A

10%

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59
Q

Microbes on the subway: ___ associated with MOUTH bacteria

A

6.5%

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60
Q

Microbes on the subway: ____ associated with GI tract

A

32.3%

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61
Q

Microbes on subway: ___ associated with SKIN bacterial

A

29%

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62
Q

Microbes on subway: ___ associated with urogenital tract

A

20%

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63
Q

Microbes on the subway: ____ of the genetic data found on the subway did not match to any known organism, showing how vast and unexplored the microbiome is

A

48%

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64
Q

Benefits of the normal flora: Many of these microbes do not hurt us but are essential for keeping us healthy and happy. Some functions are ___

A

produce vitamins we cannot make
Breakdown food for us
Strengthen immune system
Fight off disease-causing organisms

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65
Q

Microbiome at birth: For ___ years baby microbiomes grow while their immune systems develop, learning not to attack friendly bacteria

A

2-3 years

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66
Q

What is the name of the mummy that researchers found remains of his gut bacteria?

A

Oetzi the Iceman

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67
Q

Caecum is considered the _____ of the human body’s microbial community

A

Heart

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68
Q

The ___ is connected to the cecum

A

Appendix

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69
Q

___ is an intraperitoneal pouch that is considered to be the beginning of the large intestine

A

Cecum

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70
Q

Cecum is the epicenter of microbial life where trillions of microbes of at least ___ species make the most of the partially digested food that has passed through nutrient-extraction processes into the small intestine

A

4000 species

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71
Q

___ are left over for the microbes in the cecum to tack in round 2 digestion

A

Tough bits - plant fibers

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72
Q

The appendix helps protect out ____

A

beneficial gut bacteria when a serious infection strikes

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73
Q

Appendix is packed full of _____

A

specialized immune cells and molecules

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74
Q

The gut can be repopulated with its normal inhabitants, which have been lurking in the ___

A

Appendix (a safe house that human body has provided for its microbial inhabitants)

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75
Q

The appendix is a blind-ended tube connected to the caecum, from which it develops ____

A

embryologically

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76
Q

The appendix protects us from:

A 
Recurrent GI infections
Immune dysfunction
blood cancer
some autoimmune diseases
Heart attacks
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77
Q

Biofilm def

A

Aggregates the bacteria embedded in a matrix produced by them interspersed by water channels

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78
Q

Example of biofilm

A

Dental plaque

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79
Q

What is quorum sensing

A

Microbes communicating with each other by chemical language via signals called auto inducers

Quorum sensing coordinates gene expression

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80
Q

Some studies suggested that C-section babies may have an elevated risk for developing immune and metabolic disorders like ____

A

T1DM, allergies, asthma, and obesity

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81
Q

What is vaginal microbial transfer?

A

When they introduce microbes from vaginal fluids (collected before surgery) to the baby after a C-section for 1-2 minutes

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82
Q

A mother’s vaginal fluids are loaded with one such essential bacterium ___ that helps digest human milk

A

lactobacillus

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83
Q

____ is considered to be a “newly discovered organ” since its existence was not generally recognized until the late 1990s and it is understood to potentially have overwhelming impact on human health

A

microbiome

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84
Q

Catabolic pathways: 2 types

A

Anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration

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85
Q

What is anaerobic respiration (fermentation)?

A

Partial breakdown of organics that occurs w/o O2

Yields 2 ATP

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86
Q

What is aerobic respiration?

A

Complete breakdown of organics with O2

Yields 36 or 38 ATP

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87
Q

_____ yields only 2 ATP while ___ yields 36 or 38 ATP

A

Anaerobic yields 2 ATP

Aerobic yields 36 or 38 ATP

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88
Q

Compare fermentation and aerobic respiration

A

Both use glycolysis (glu to pyruvate)
Have different e-acceptors (pyruvate/acetaldehye vs O2)
Aerobic respiration produces 36 or 38 ATP/glucose but fermentation produces 2 ATP/glucose

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89
Q

Obligate aerobes def

A

Require an ample oxygen source to perform respiration

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90
Q

Microaerophilic/microaerobic

A

Requires small amounts of oxygen

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91
Q

Capnophilic def

A

Microbes that require low oxygen but high CO2 conc

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92
Q

Facultative anaerobes def

A

Organisms that perform anaerobic glycolysis in the absence of oxygen but can perform aerobic respiration in the presence of oxygen

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93
Q

Obligate anerobes def

A

Die in presence of oxygen because they lack chemistry to produce organic compounds via reduction of oxygen

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94
Q

Bacteria use 3 main mechanisms to adapt to changing environments

A
  1. gene transfer
  2. Regulation of gene expression
  3. mutation
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95
Q

Bacteria adaptation: Gene transfer consists of these 3 things

A
  1. transformation
  2. transduction
  3. conjugation
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96
Q

Gene transfer: Transformation def

A

The recipient cell directly takes up naked DNA released from the donor cell altering its genotype (it can occur in the medium and natural transformation can also occur)

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97
Q

Gene transfer: Transduction

A

Process by which DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus

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98
Q

Gene transfer: Conjugation

A

Cell to cell contact and transfers genetic material (male/female cells)

Plasmids are most frequently transferred by conjugation

Sex pilus is responsible for the attachment of donor and recipient cell (male has sex pilus)

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99
Q

Gene transfer: conjugation: Which cell has the sex pilus?

A

Male cell

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100
Q

What are operons?

A

A group of genes that are transcribed at the same time
Usually control an important biochemical process
Only found in PROKARYOTES
includes a series of structural genes along a segment of DNA and two other portions of DNA (promoter and operator)

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101
Q

Operons are only found in ___

A

Prokaryotes

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102
Q

In prokaryotes, genes are turned on and off using ___

A

operons

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103
Q

Operons: what happens when the operator area is ON

A

RNA polymerase attaches at the promoter and transcription occurs

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104
Q

Operons: What happens when operator is “off”?

A

Operator area is blocked by repressor protein and transcription cannot occur

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105
Q

What is the lac operon?

A

Operon processing the sugar lactose
One of the mis the gene for the en
Enzyme beta-galactosidase (lactase)
Lactase breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose

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106
Q

What happens when the lac operon is on?

A

Lactose inhibits the repressor, allowing RNA polymerase to bind with the promotor and synthesize lactase
Lactase will digest all of the lactose until there is none to bind to the repressor and then the repressor will bind to the operator

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107
Q

Explain process of gram staining

A

Crystal violet is applied to the specimen, then iodine (kills cell and fixes the stain)
Slide washed with alcohol

Gram positive - retains crystal violet iodine stain (purple)
Gam negative - safranin dye (pink)

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108
Q

Structural differences between gram-neg and gram-pos bacteria

A

Gram-pos: peptidogylcan and membrane

Gram-neg: outer membrane, peptidoglycan (much thinner than the gram-positive one), membrane

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109
Q

4 Phases off population bacterial growth in closed culture

A 
Lag phase
Log phase (optimal growth) 
Stationary phase (bacterial pop levels out and population growth nears 0 again, fermentation/pharmaceuticals use chemostat to keep bacteria in stationary phase) 
Death phase (waste and dead cells begin to accumulate, population declines, spore formers can persist beyond this stage and can regenerate a population if conditions become favorable again)
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110
Q

The chemostat is used in fermentation and pharmaceutical industries to keep bacterial growth in the ___ phase

A

stationery

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111
Q

Infection vs infectious disease

A

Infection is the INVASION, MULTIPLICATION of disease causing agents and the REACTION of host tissues to these organisms and toxins they produce

Infectious disease (aka transmissible disease or communicable disease) is illness resulting from an infection

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112
Q

Bacteria that causes dental caries

A

Streptococcus mutans

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113
Q

T/F: Streptococcus mutans is an example of obligate anaerobes

A

FALSE - it is a facultative anaerobe

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114
Q

T/F: Streptococcus mutans is gram-NEGATIVE

A

FALSE - it is gram-positive coccus

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115
Q

Dental caries (tooth decay) is caused by specific types of bacteria that produce acid in the presence of fermentable carbohydrates such as ____

A

sucrose, fructose, and glucose

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116
Q

Complications of dental caries

A

S. Mutans colonize in the heart, often in heart valves and cause inflammation (endocarditis) and can be lethal
Endocarditis is most often caused by invasion of S. mutans

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117
Q

Endocarditis can be caused by which two bacteria

A

Staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus mutans

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118
Q

HSV-1 pathway

A

Herpesvirus enters body, lies dormant in the nerves, reactivated and cause another outbreak

119
Q

HSV-1 progression

A 
Tingling 1 day
Redness and bumps 1-2 days 
Blisters 2-3 days 
Scabs 5-7 days 
Redness 1-2 days
120
Q

HSV-1: Primary (acute) herpetic gingivostomatitis: Young children are at risk for developing extensive _____ when first infected with the virus

A

oropharyngeal vesicular eruptions

121
Q

HSV-1: Primary (acute) herpetic gingivostomatitis: S/sx and diagnosis

A

Self-limiting disease
Significant mouth discomfort, fever, lymphadenopathy, and difficulty with eating/drinking
May last for 2 weeks

Diagnosis clinically and confirmed by lab tests

122
Q

HSV-1: Primary (acute) herpetic gingivostomatitis: Treatment

A

Some young children require hospitalization for dehydration/pain

Acyclovir

123
Q

Mononucleosis incubation period and transmission

A

Incubation for 4-6 weeks, spreads by casual contact, usually via saliva (kissing disease)

124
Q

T/F: Mononucleosis is not self-treatable and lasts for an extended amount of time

A

FALSE - it is self treatable and resolves within days/weeks

125
Q

Mononucleosis: S/sx

A 
Fatigue malaise, loss of appetite, headache
Photophobia
Red/swelling tonsils
Throat: soreness, pharyngitis, palatal petechiae (roof of mouth is red) 
Swollen lymph. nodes 
Cough
Spleen: enlargement, abdominal pain
Systemic: chills, fevers, aches 
Nausea

Rash - erythema nodosum

126
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

Skin rash caused by mono

127
Q

What is palatal petechiae

A

Roof of mouth is red

128
Q

What is a complication of mono

A

splenomegaly

129
Q

What is a role of the spleen

A

filters blood
Recycles RBC and stores WBC/platelets
Fights bacteria that causes pneumonia and meningitis

130
Q

Someone with mono should avoid ______ because of the possibility that the ____ can rupture

A

contact sports

spleen

131
Q

What is the epstein barr virus

A

Human herpesvirus 4 (HHV-4)
one of the 8 known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, one of most common viruses in humans
95% of adults in the US have evidence of EBV antibodies in blood

132
Q

Who found the Epstein-Barr virus

A

Sir Michael Anthony Epstein and Yvonne Barr

133
Q

Describe staphylococci

A

Common inhabitant of the skin and mucous membranes
Spherical cells arranged in irregular clusters
Gram-POSITIVE
Lack spores and flagella
May have capsules
31 species

134
Q

There are ___ species of staphylococci

135
Q

Staphylococci is gram-____

136
Q

Boils description

A

Most common S. aureus skin infection
Infection of hair follicle or oil gland
S/sx: redness, pus swelling
Treatment: drainage, keep skin clean, abx

137
Q

MRSA description

A

Caused by S. aureus
First recognized around 1960 and entered wider community in 1990s (community-associated MRSA or CA-MRSA)
Resistant to common antibiotics, generally harmless unless it enters via cut/wounds

138
Q

MRSA s/sx

A

red or tender skin around wound
swollen, painful, oozing boils
Does not get better with typical abx treatments
Serious symptoms: fever, difficulty breathing, chills, chest pain

139
Q

Complications of MRSA

A

Often community acquired so isolation is important (ASAP)

Sepsis can result if bacterial infection invades bloodstream

140
Q

Streptococci description

A

Gram-POSITIVE spherical/ovoid cocci arranged in long chains
non-spore forming, nonmotile
Can form capsules and slime layers
Facultative anaerobes
Do not form catalase
Most parasitic forms are fastidious and require enriched media
Small, non-pigmented colonies

141
Q

T/F: Streptococci are facultative anaerobes

142
Q

Strep throat transmission

A

spreads through person-person contact, through fluids from nose/saliva

143
Q

Strep s/sx

A

Red sore throat, fever, pain when swallowing, swollen neck glands

144
Q

Strep throat treatment

A

Penicillin, amoxicillin for 10 days

145
Q

T/F: S/sx Red/swollen tonsils and throat ONLY is an indication of strep

A

FALSE – probably viral infection, not bacterial.

Strep has red/swollen tonsils and throat, AND swollen uvula, white spots, gray and furry tongue

146
Q

Describe conjunctivitis

A

Aka pink eye

Inflammation of the outermost layer of the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelid

147
Q

Describe keratitis

A

Condition in which the eye’s cornea, the front part of the eye, becomes inflamed

148
Q

T/F: the transparent, fibrous outer layer of the anterior outer layer of the eye is the conjunctiva

A

FALSE - it is the cornea

149
Q

T/F: The mucous membrane lining the eyelid and covering eyeball is the cornea

A

FALSE - it is the conjunctiva

150
Q

What are the 5 types of conjunctivitis

A 
Bacterial
Viral
Chlamydia
Allergic
REactive
151
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis is caused by _____

A

STtphylococcus aureus, streptococcus pneumoniae, H. influenza, M. catarrhalis

152
Q

Describe bacterial conjunctivitis

A

A red eye with a stick yellow/green/white purulent discharge throughout the day
Eyelids may be stuck together upon waking (matting), can affect one/both eyes
Usually spread by direct contact only

153
Q

Describe viral conjunctivitis

A

Commonly associated with “pink eye” can affect one or both eyes, highly contagious
Appearance: injected, red, itchy, watery (or mucoserous) eye, may be associated with URI symptoms, burning, sandy/gritting feeling in eye

154
Q

Viral conjunctivitis is caused by ______

A

adenovirus (the common cold)

155
Q

Chlamydia conjunctivitis is caused by ___

A

sexually transmitted infections

156
Q

Allergic conjunctivitis are caused by ___

A

pollen, dust

157
Q

Reactive conjunctivitis is caused by ___

A

chemicals such as chlorine in swimming pools, shampoos, and other foreign objects

158
Q

S/sx of keratitis

A

Reduce visual clarity, produce corneal discharges, erosion

Can cause corneal scarring and impair vision (may require corneal transplant)

159
Q

Types of keratitis

A

Bacterial
Viral
Acanthamoeba
Fungal

160
Q

Bacterial keratitis is caused by ___

A

staphylococcus, streptococcus, moraxella, haemophilus, gonococcus

161
Q

Viral keratitis is caused by ____

A

herpes simplex, herpes zoster

162
Q

Bacterial meningitis is caused by ____

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumonia
Haemophilus influenzae

163
Q

What is the meninges

A

Layered unit of membranous connective tissue that covers brain and spinal cord

164
Q

What is the function of meninges

A 
Protect and support CNS
connect brain and spinal cord to skull and spinal canal
Form protective barrier 
Supply blood vessels for CNS 
Produce CSF
165
Q

3 membranes of meninges

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

166
Q

Pneumococcal meningitis is caused by ___

A

pneumococcus

167
Q

T/F: There is no vaccine for pneumococcus that causes pneumococcal meningitis

A

False - there is a vaccine that covers most common strains of pneumococcus (which causes pneumonia, one of the leading causes of death in US)

168
Q

T/F: Neisseria meningitidis is gram-negative

169
Q

T/F: Haemophilus influenzae is gram-positive

A

FALSE – it is gram negative

170
Q

Bacterial meningitis transmission

A

Respiratory droplets, direct contact, formites

College students are at increased risk for meningococcal meningitis

171
Q

Bacterial meningitis portal of entry

A

Respiratory

172
Q

Bacterial meningitis: Disease mechanism

A

All three are encapsulated, capsule protects from complement but not antibody
N. meningitidis uses type IV pili to adhere and enter epithelium

All pass BBB (inflammation of brain/spinal coverings)
Endotoxin of N. meningitidis and H. influenzae causes disseminated intravascular coagulation

Can be fatal within hours

173
Q

T/F: Bacterial meningitis can be fatal within days

A

FALSE - hours

174
Q

Bacterial meningitis: Endotoxin of ___ and ___ cause disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

N. meningitidis and H. influenzae

175
Q

S/sx of bacterial meningitis

A

Headache, neck pain, fever, altered mental status, phonophobia, photophobia, petechiae, N/V

176
Q

Infectious diseases that cause photophobia (2)

A

Mono and bacterial meningitis

177
Q

Diagnosis of bacterial meningitis

A

S/sx and culture of organisms from spinal fluid

178
Q

Treatment of bacterial meningitis

A

Broad-spectrum abx administered immediately

179
Q

Prevention of bacterial meningitis

A

Immunization (for pneumococcus, meningococcus, and Hib)
Isolation of patients
Prophylactic abx for close contacts

Lifestyle: immune system healthy, quit smoking, rest, healthy diet, avoid close contact with sick people

180
Q

Complications of bacterial meningitis

A

Stroke and brain damage
Can be fatal
Memory problems, hearing loss, paralysis, kidney failure, body-wide infection and shock (septicemia), movement problems, learning disabilities

181
Q

Best treatment for bacterial meningitis is ___

A

prevention

182
Q

In 1985 ___ was the main cause of bacterial meningitis but in 1995 ___ was the main cause of bacterial meningitis

A

1985 - H. influenzae (then S. pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis)
1995 - Streptococcus pneumoniae (then neisseria meningitidis, S. pneumoniae)

183
Q

Strept throat is caused by ___

A

Streptococcus pyogenes group A/B/C

184
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes are gram ____

185
Q

Transmission of strep throat

A

Direct contact (sharing food/drinks, not washing hands), respiratory, droplets (cough/sneeze), indirect by fomites (clothes, utensils, surfaces, etc.)

186
Q

Strep throat portal of entry

A

Respiratory

187
Q

Strep disease mechanism

A

S. pyogenes is B-hemolytic (lyses RBC via exotoxin streptolysin) and uses proteins to help evade phagocytosis, allows for colonization in the. throat/skin

Bacteria in throat will bring RBC/WBC causing inflammation, swells mucous membranes in pharynx and tonsils, SORE THROAT

188
Q

S pyogenes pyrogenic exotxin can cause ____

A

scarlet fever

189
Q

S. pyogenes M protein can trigger autoimmune reaction such as ____ and ___

A

rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis

190
Q

S/sx of strep throat

A

Sore throat, enlarged cervical lymph nodes, exudate on tonsils, fever, no cough

191
Q

Diagnosis of strep throat

A

Rapid strep test, culture of organisms

192
Q

Treatment of strep throat

193
Q

Prevention of strep throat

A

Isolation of infected patient

194
Q

Otitis media is caused by ____

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, moraxella catarrhalis

195
Q

Disease mechanism of otitis media

A

Inflammation of middle ear

Following bacterial infection of upper respiratory system, bacteria travels from nasopharynx to middle ear via eustachian tube, alters pressure in middle ear, bacteria arrives in middle ear, inflammation

196
Q

____ help the tendency in forming acute otitis media

A

Nose blowing, pressure changes, and perforation of the membrane

197
Q

Treatment of otitis media

A

Amoxicillin for children and adults (adults with higher doses)

198
Q

Describe otitis media

A

Inflammation of middle ear

199
Q

Bacterial pneumonias are caused by ___

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae, mycoplasma pneumoniae

200
Q

What is bacterial pneumonias

A

An infection of the lungs characterized by the inflammation of filling of alveoli with fluid + pus (alveoli fill with bacteria and blood cells) with fevers, cough, chest pain, and chills

201
Q

Influenza types

A

Type A/B/C enveloped RNA virus

202
Q

Transmission of influenza

A

Respiratory droplets

203
Q

Portal of entry of influenza

A

Respiratory system

204
Q

Disease mechanism of influenza

A

HA proteins bind to respiratory epithelium, host cells engulf virus, virus is uncoated in vacuole, RNA enters cytoplasm, replicates, new virus particles assemble, NA allows exit from host cell

205
Q

S/sx of influenza

A

1 day incubation period, sudden fever, sore throat, dry cough, malaise, headache, muscle pains

206
Q

Diagnosis of influenza

A

s/sx during outbreak, antibody test

207
Q

Treatment of influenza

A

Antiviral drugs (zanamivisr and oseltamivir), bed rest, fever reduction, respiratory support if needed

208
Q

2 examples of influenza antiviral meds

A

Zanamivir and oseltamivir

209
Q

Describe endocarditis

A

Inflammation of the endocardium (inner heart muscle lining)

Rapid destruction of heart valves leads to death

210
Q

Bacterial endocarditis is caused by ____

A

staphylococcus aureus and streptococci

211
Q

Bacterial endocarditis treatment

A

Rx penicillin

212
Q

Lyme disease is caused by ____

213
Q

Pathogen of lyme disease

A

Bacteria borrelia

214
Q

S/sx of lyme disease

A

Headache, hearing loss, paralysis of face, muscle soreness, erythema migrans (rash) fever/chills/fatigue/weakness/heart complications, N/V, swollen knee

215
Q

Stages of lyme disease

A

Stage 1 (early localized) days
- erythema migrans rash at tick bite site
Stage 2 (early disseminated) weeks
- flu-like illness, cardiac, neurologic
Stage 3 (late) months to years
- lyme arthritis, encephalopathy or neuropathy

216
Q

Treatment for lyme disease

A

ASAP abx

  • oral abx for early-stage lyme disease (doxycycline for adults and children <8 // amoxicillin or cefuroxime for adults, younger children, and pregnant/breastfeeding women)
  • IV abx: CNS involvement
217
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning is caused by ___

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Ingestion of enterotoxin in improperly stored foods (room temp)

218
Q

Food poisoning is caused by the ingestion of ____ in improperly stored foods

A

Enterotoxins

219
Q

Food poisoning source: foods with _____ and those not cooked immediately before ___

A

high somatic pressure and not cooked before consumption

220
Q

Mechanism of food poisoning

A

Food containing protein is cooked (bacterial killed)
and then contaminated by worker with staphylococci on hands
Organisms incubate in food long enough to form and release toxins
Reheat will eliminate staphylococci but not toxins
Toxins are ingested
1-6 hours intoxication occurs

221
Q

T/F: When food is contaminated by staphylococci, reheating will eliminate both the bacteria and toxins

A

False - only the bacteria, but toxins will remain

222
Q

Food poisoning (intoxication) occurs ___ hours after ingestion

223
Q

E. coli stands for

A

Escherichia coli

224
Q

E.coli transmission

A

Fecal - oral

225
Q

Portal of entry for e.coli

226
Q

E. coli disease mechanism

A

Depends on specific genes in different pathovars of E.coli
LT and ST enterotoxins disrupt chloride channels
Shiga toxin inhibits protein synthesis and endothelial cells in intestine, kidney, and brain

227
Q

____ and ___ enterotoxins of E.coli disrupt ____ channels

A

LT and ST disrupt chloride

228
Q

___ toxin inhibits ___ synthesis of endothelial cells in ____,____, and ____

A

shiga toxin inhibits protein synthesis in intestine, kidney, and brain

229
Q

S/sx of E.coli enteritis

A

Enterotoxins cause water diarrhea
Shiga toxin causes bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome which causes kidney damage, intravascular clots that lead to skin hemorrhages, coma

230
Q

S/sx of e.coli: Enterotoxins cause ____

A

water diarrhea

231
Q

S/sx of e.coli: Shiga toxin causes ___

A

blood diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome which causes kidney damage, intravascular clots that lead to skin hemorrhages, coma

232
Q

Which toxin of E.coli causes bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome, which causes kidney damage, intravascular clots that lead to skin hemorrhages, coma

A

Shiga toxin

233
Q

Diagnosis E.coli

A

Culture of organism and genetic characterization

234
Q

Treatment of E.coli

A

Supportive, transfusion, dialysis

Abx will trigger release of shiga toxins

235
Q

___ will trigger the release of shiga toxins of E.coli

A

Antibiotics

236
Q

Prevention of E.coli

A

personal hygiene

cook food thoroughly

237
Q

Helicobacter pylori produces ____ which ____ stomach acid

A

ammonia which neutralizes stomach acid

238
Q

____ will colonize the stomach mucosa and cause peptic ulcer disease

A

Helicobacter pylori

239
Q

____ can be used to detect in clinical examination to indicate infection or antigen detection of helicobacter pylori

A

Urease (enzyme)

240
Q

Treatment of peptic ulcers

A

Bismuth, combination abx, acid suppressors

241
Q

What kind of endoscopy can be used for peptic ulcer disease?

A

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD or upper endoscopy)

242
Q

Clinical outcomes of helicobacter pylori infections

A

> 80% asymptomatic or chronic gastritis
15-20% chronic atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia, or gastric/duodenal ulcers
<1% gastric cancer, MALT lymphoma

243
Q

Types of hepatitis

A

Hep A/B/C/D/E

244
Q

____ is 100x more infectious than HIV

245
Q

1 in 5 people with ___ don’t know they have it and there is no vaccination for it (but there is a treatment!)

246
Q

____ is the leading cause of liver cancer and most common reason for liver transplant

247
Q

Over ____ million Americans are infected with hepatitis and most do not know it

A

4.4 million

248
Q

Which hepatitis has fecal-oral transmission

A

Hep A and E

249
Q

which hepatitis has bloodborne, sexual, vertical transmission

A

B, C, and D

250
Q

Incubation and chronic infection of Hep A

A

15-40 days, no chronic infxn

251
Q

Incubation and chronic infection of HepB

A

60-180 days, YES chronic infxn

252
Q

Incubation and chronic infection of Hep C

A

60-120 days YES chronic infxn

253
Q

Incubation and chronic infection of HepD

A

60-180 days, YES chronic infection

254
Q

Incubation and chronic infection of Hep E

A

21-42 days, NO chronic infection

255
Q

Which hepatitis has clinical outcomes of chronic infection of cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Hep B and C

256
Q

Which hep has co-infection as clinical outcomes of chronic infection

257
Q

Def hepatitis

A

inflammation of liver

258
Q

Def acute viral hepatitis

A

Symptoms last less than 6 mo

259
Q

Def acute hepatic failure

A

The appearance of severe complications rapidly after the first signs of liver disease (such as jaundice) and indicates that the liver has sustained severe damage (loss of fxn in 80-90% liver cells)
Massive hepatic necrosis with impaired consciousness within 8 weeks of onset of illness

260
Q

Def chronic hepatitis

A

Inflammation of liver for at least 6 mo

261
Q

Def cirrhosis

A

Replacement of liver tissue leads to fibrosis (scar tissue), leads to loss of liver fxn (lack of blood flow thru liver)

262
Q

Def fulminant hepatitis

A

severe impairment of hepatic functions or severe necrosis of hepatocytes in the absence of preexisting liver disease

263
Q

S/sx of hepatitis

A

Acute infection with limited or no symptoms

Symptoms: jaundice, dark urine, extreme fatigue, N/V, abdominal pain

264
Q

Progression of Hepatitis

A

Normal liver, chronic hepatitis, 20-25 years Cirrhosis, 25-30 years HCC/ESLD/Death

265
Q

_____ people under age 50 (67%) have HSV1 infection globally

A

3.7 billion

266
Q

___ people aged 15-49 (11%) have HSV2 infection globally

A

417 million

267
Q

___ is oral herpes vs ____ is genital herpes

A

HSV 1 vs HSV 2

268
Q

Transmission of HSV2

A

during sex, through contact with genital surfaces, skins, sores, or fluids of someone infected with the virus
Can be transmitted in the absence of symptoms

Rare: mother to infant during delivery

269
Q

T/F: HSV2 cannot be transmitted from a mother to infant during delivery

A

FALSE - it’s rare but can happen

270
Q

S/sx of HSV2

A

often no symptoms or mild symptoms (unrecognized)
10-20% people with HSV2 infection report a prior diagnosis of genital herpes

Characterized by one or more genital/anal blisters or open sores called ulcers
New HSV2 infections may include fever, body aches, and swollen lymph nodes

271
Q

HPV stands for

A

Human papillomavirus

272
Q

HPV transmission

A

through direct skin-to-skin contact

appox 30 types are transmitted sexually

273
Q

HPV infects ____ and causes ____

A

Infects human skin and mucosal cells and causes warts

274
Q

Several highly pathogenic types of HPV may cause ___

275
Q

Nearly all cases of cervical cancer are the result of ___

A

HPV infection

276
Q

T/F: The viral particle of HPV is enveloped

A

False - UNenveloped

277
Q

Capsid of HPV is composed of ___ and ___

278
Q

Major protein ___ forms pentameters of 2 types ___ and ___

A

L1
60 hexavalent pentamers
12 pentavalent pentamers

279
Q

___ proteins of HPV are glycosated

280
Q

Minor protein ____ connects to each ____ pentameter from the ____ of the particle

A

L2
L1
inside

281
Q

T/F: Most cases of HPV also have genital warts called condyloma acuminatum

A

FALSE - 90% of HPV will NOT get gential warts

282
Q

What does condyloma acuminatum mean

A

Condyloma - knuckle like growth

Acuminatum - latin for pointed

283
Q

What is the plural of condyloma acuminatum?

A

Condylomata acuminata

284
Q

Condyloma acuminatum transmission

A

Direct skin to skin contact usually during oral/genital/anal sex with infected partner

285
Q

Portal of entry for HPV

A

Mucous membranes of genitals, mouth

286
Q

S/sx of genital warts

A

Warts can be flat, raised, or lumpy

287
Q

T/F: Cervical cancer has early symptoms

A

False - it has no early symptoms

288
Q

Diagnosis of genital warts

A

Visual inspection, biopsy

289
Q

Treatment of genital warts

A

Topica interferon, surgical removal, cryotherapy

290
Q

What is cryotherapy

A

Freezing off warts

291
Q

What is the vaccine Gardasil for

A

prevention of genital warts associated with cancer

292
Q

Who should be vaccinated for HPV

A

all children 11 or 12 yo
Males: thru age 21 if they did not as a child (age 26 if gay/bisexual)
Females thru age 26 if they did not as a child
Immunocompromised thru age 26

293
Q

T/F: there are tests to find out HPV status

A

False - no test to find out HPV status, no approved HPV test to find HPV in the mouth or throat

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