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Anatomy & Physiology II > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define homeostasis

A

The balance of the bodies internal environment, due to the functions of the regulatory process

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2
Q

What are the four ways our cells communicate throughout the body?

A
  1. Direct Communication
  2. Paracrine Communication
  3. Endocrine Communication
  4. Synaptic Communication
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3
Q

Define; Direct Communication. How limited is it?

A

Communication between two cells of the same type through chemicals
It is the most limited; info shared between two like cells

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4
Q

Where does communication of cells occur during direct communication?

A

Gap Junctions

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5
Q

Define: Gap Junctions

A

Regions between two cells that permit the movement of ions, solutes or lipid soluble materials from one cell to the other

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6
Q

What kind of cells use gap junctions to communicate?

A

Epithelial and cardiac cells

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7
Q

Define: Paracrine Communication. How limited is it?

A

Communication to neighboring cells within the same tissue, through information in the form of cellular chemicals which gets released into surrounding extracellular fluid.
Semi limited; info travels within same tissue

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8
Q

When does paracrine communication mainly occur?

A

During inflammation with prostaglandins

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9
Q

Define: Endocrine Communication. How limited is it?

A

Cells release chemical hormones directly into he bloodstream which traces throughout the body
Least limited; info travels throughout body

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10
Q

Define: Target Cells

A

Specialized cells that hormones attach to by the cell’s receptors, they essentially receive the information, read it and later react as needed.

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11
Q

*What do hormones do?

A

Can alter metabolism of multiple tissues or entire organs

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12
Q

How long do effects of hormones last?

A

Up to a few days

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13
Q

When are observational effects of hormones at their greatest?

A

During pregnancy & puberty

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14
Q

*Define: Synaptic Communication. How limited is it?

A

Communication to adjacent neurons or muscle cells that have specific receptors for the neurotransmitter
Limited communication; due to specific receptors necessary

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15
Q

0

A

o

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16
Q

What is a major characteristic of communication within the endocrine system that is unlike other systems?

A

Chemicals (aka hormones) are released directly into the bloodstream

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17
Q

How are the endocrine glands different from exocrine glands?

A

Exocrine glands secrete info into ducts where as endocrine glands secrete info into the bloodstream

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18
Q

Hormones are secreted into ______, where as paracrine factors are secreted into _____.

A

Bloodstream/ Interstitial (extracellular) fluid

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19
Q

What parts of the body produce hormones?

A

Brain, Pancreas, Reproductive Organs & Thyroid

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20
Q

What are the three classes of hormones? & What are they made of?

A
  1. Amino Acid Derivatives –> Proteins
  2. Peptide Hormones –> Proteins
  3. Lipid Derivaties –> Lipids
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21
Q

What type of solute are lipids vs proteins?

A 
Lipids = NOT water soluble 
Proteins = water soluble
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22
Q

What are Amino Acid Derivatives

A

Small molecules that are structurally related to amino acids

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23
Q

_____ are the building blocks of proteins

A

Amino Acids

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24
Q

What are peptide hormones?

A

Chains of amino acids

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25
Q

What are the two groups of peptide hormones?

A

Glycoproteins & other than glycoproteins

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26
Q

What are the two groups of lipid derivatives. Describe them.

A
  1. Eicosaniods: small molecules with a five-carbon ring at one end
  2. Steroid Hormones: Lipids derived from cholesterol
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27
Q

What are two examples of Eicosanoids? What do they do? How are they released?

A
  1. Leukotrienes (Leuko means white): Released by WBCs to coordinate a response to injury or disease
  2. Prostaglandins: Produced in most issues of the body. Secreted by injured cells or tissue causing more blood flow (swelling).
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28
Q

Steroid hormones include _____ hormones.

A

Sex

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29
Q

Androgen, Estrogen, and Progestins are __________.

A

Sex hormones

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30
Q

Androgens are secreted by ________, creating ________. Where as Estrogens & progestins are secreted by _______, creating _______ & _______.

A

Testes; testosterone

Ovaries; estrogen & progesterone

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31
Q

What happens once hormones are released into the blood stream?

A

They circulate freely or bind to a special carrier protein

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32
Q

Usually how long do hormones stay in the bloodstream?

A

Less than one hour

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33
Q

How are hormones removed from the bloodstream?

A

Two ways:
1. They bind to receptor proteins of target cells in the liver or kidney
or
2.They’re broken down by enzymes in the blood plasma or interstitial fluid

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34
Q

What carries hormones to their destination?

A

Special carrier proteins

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35
Q

What endocrine glands are int he brain?

A

Hypothalamus, Pineal Gland, Pituitary Gland

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36
Q

What endocrine glands are in the neck?

A

Thyroid & Parathyroid glands

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37
Q

What endocrine glands are in the thoracic cavity

A

The heart and thymus

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38
Q

What endocrine glands are in the abdominal pelvis cavities

A

Kidney, adrenal glands, digestive track, pancreas, gonads, adapts tissue

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39
Q

How long can hormones stay in circulation once bonded to special carrier proteins?

A

Months (but not likely)

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40
Q

Where are receptors for target cells located?

A
  1. On the plasma membrane (Extracellular Receptors)

2. Within the cytoplasm (Intracellular Receptors)

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41
Q

Extracellular Receptors are accessible to ______. Where as Intracellular Receptors are accessible to ________. Why is this?

A

Water-soluble hormones, bc they cannot pass through a plasma membrane

Lipid-soluble hormones, bc they can pass through the the plasma membrane

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42
Q

Which receptors, extracellular or intracellular, react faster on the cell? Why?

A

Intracellular Receptors, because since they’re lipid-soluble they pass through the cell membrane fast & easy!

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43
Q

T or F: Hormones binding to intracellular receptors can directly affect activities inside the cell

A

False! There are first & second messengers needed to share the information brought in by the hormone

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44
Q

What are the three types of second messengers? What are they derivatives of?

A
  1. Cyclic-AMP (cAMP): Derivative of ATP
  2. Cyclic-GMP (cGMP): Derivative of GTP
  3. Calcium ions
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45
Q

What is the role of G protein?

A

It is the link between the first and second messenger

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46
Q

What happens when G protein is activated?

A
  • Activates adenylate cyclase, converts ATP to celiac-AMP
  • Cylic-AMP then activates kinase
  • Kinase accelerate metabolic activity of target cell by opening ion channels, activating enzymes
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47
Q

What deactivates the second messenger to prevent the cell from burning out?

A

Phosphodiesterase (PDE)

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48
Q

What does protein kinase c (PKC) do?

A

Opens up the calcium ion channels allowing extracellular calcium ions to enter the cell (Gatekeeper)

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49
Q

What are endocrine reflexes mainly for?

A

Control hormone secretion of heart, pancreas, parathyroid glands and digestive tract to maintain homeostasis

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50
Q

What does the hypothalamus secrete?

A

Regulatory hormones, epinephrin & norepinephrine

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51
Q

What are regulatory hormones? What secretes them?

A

Special hormones that control endocrine cells in the adenohypophysis (anterior lobe) of the pituitary gland

Secreted by hypothalamus

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52
Q

What are three jobs of the hypothalamus?

A
  1. Secrete regulatory hormones to control activity of pituitary gland
  2. Produce ADH and Oxytocin
  3. Secretes epinephrin and norepinephrine causing adrenalin; control of sympathetic output of adrenal medulla
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53
Q

Which endocrine organ synthesizes and transports hormones along axons within the infundibulum of the pituitary gland, to the posterior lobe where its released into the bloodstream?

A

hypothalamus

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54
Q

What is the pituitary gland

A

A small, oval endocrine gland

Contains two parts.

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55
Q

Name the lobes of the pituitary gland. How are they are distinctly different? How many peptide hormones do they each secrete?

A

Adenohypophysis- anterior lobe of pituitary gland. This part is larger and darker. Secretes 7 peptide hormones

Neurohypophysis- Posterior lobe of pituitary gland. This part is smaller and lighter stained. Secretes 2 peptide hormones

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56
Q

What separates the anterior pituitary gland from the posterior?

A

The Pars Intermedia

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57
Q

What is the Hypophyseal Portal System?

A

A capillary network that radiates through the adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) which gives every endocrine cell immediate access to the circulatory system

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58
Q

What is the name of the capillaries in the Hypophyseal Portal System?

A

Fenestrated Capillaries

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59
Q

What does fenestrated mean? Why is it important?

A

Means large pores, this allows hormones to easily pass through to the blood system

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60
Q

List the hormones, that are secreted from the Adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary), their abbreviations, what they’re secreted by and their jobs….. go!

A
  1. Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
    Job: Stimulates thyroid gland to transport iodine ions which then bind together to create T3 (Thyroxine) or T4 (Triiodothyronine)
    Secreted by: Thyroid Gland
  2. Adrenocorticotroptic Hormone (ACTH)
    Job: Stimulates the adrenal cortex to release glucorticoids (a steroid hormone that increases glucose levels in the body)
    Secreted by: Adrenal Glands
  3. Follicle- Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
    Job: Promotes growth of follicles in females & males. In combo with LH it stimulates secretion of estrogen in females. It’ll also stimulate nurse cells in males which help care for the development of sperm cells
    Secreted by: Ovaries & Testes
  4. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
    Job: induces ovulation & promotes secretion of estrogen & progestins for females. For males it stimulates product of sex hormones (androgens)
    Secreted by: Ovaries & Testes
  5. Prolactin (PRL)
    Job: Stimulates mammary gland development & milk production during & after pregnancy
    Secreted by: ?
  6. Growth Hormone (GH)
    Job: Stimulates cell growth in size and # by accelerating the rate of protein synthesis
    Secreted by: ?
  7. Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH)
    Job: Stimulates the melanocytes of the skin, increasing production of melanin
    Secreted by: ?
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61
Q

List the hormones secreted by the Neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary), their abbreviations, jobs and

A
  1. Antidiure Hormone (ADH)
    Job: Decrease the amount of water lost in the kidneys in order to increase the blood pressure (Hold of water)
    Secreted by:

2.Oxytocin (OXT)
Job:
Females: Targets smooth muscle contractions (helps during labor & delivery)
Males: Ejaculation of sperm & gland secretion into the urethra
Secreted by: uterus and nipples for females and urethra for men

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62
Q

What trigger the release of ADH?

A

Released due to increase or decrease in blood volume/pressure

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63
Q

Diabetes is a condition due to a lack of ________. Causing ______ loss. Resulting in what prominent 4 side effects?

A

Antidiure Hormone (ADH)

Water loss

Causes: thirst, dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, & death

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64
Q

Too much water loss leading to dehydration is called

A

Polyuria

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65
Q

What Endocrine Gland synthesizes a protein called thyroglobulin?

A

The Thyroid Gland

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66
Q

Thyroglobulin can attach to ___ or ____ iodine ions.

A

3 or 4

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67
Q

______ is formed when Thyroglobulin attaches to 3 iodide ions. Where as ______ is formed when Thyroglobulin attaches to 4 iodide ions

A

3 iodine ions + thyroglobulin = triiodothyronine (T3)

4 iodine ions + thyroglobulin = thyroxine (T4)

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68
Q

Where do iodine ions come from?

A

Ingested food

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69
Q

What is the function of thyroid hormones? What does this help with?

A

Increases ATP production leading to more energy & metabolic rate of cells;

Helps skeletal, muscular and nervous system development in growing children

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70
Q

A deficiency of triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4) or Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) is called _______. The symptoms are _____, ______, & ______ sensitivity.

A

Hyperthyroidism (Aka Myxedema)

eyes bulge, swollen legs, heat sensitivity

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71
Q

What is the purpose of parafollicular cells (c-cells)?

A

To secrete hormone calcitonin (CT) which decreases calcium ion concentrations in the body and deposits them to the bone

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72
Q

What are the characteristics and location of Adrenal Glands?

A

Pyramid-shaped glands located on the superior surface of the kidneys

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73
Q

What is a major characteristic of endocrine glands?

A

They’re all vascular; contain vessels

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74
Q

What are the three major layers of the Adrenal Gland?

A

Capsule
Cortex
Medulla

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75
Q

How many parts are in the adrenal cortex?

A

3

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76
Q

What are the names and attributes of the three parts of the adrenal cortex? What do they each produce?

A
  1. Zona Glomerulosa:
    • Outer most layer
    • Produces mineralocorticoids
  2. Zona Fasciculata:
    • Middle layer
    • Produces steroid hormones; glucocorticoids
  3. Zona Reticularis
    • Deepest layer
    • Produces small amounts of androgens
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77
Q

What happens to androgens once they’re put into the blood stream?

A

They turn into estrogen

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78
Q

What are mineralocorticoids?

A

Hormones that affect the electrolyte composition of the bodies fluids

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79
Q

Mineralocorticoid is produced by Zona ______, the _____ layer of the adrenal gland? What is the main mineralocorticoid? What does it do?

A

Zona Glomerulosa, the outer most layer

Aldosterone:

  • Stimulates the conservation of sodium ions
  • Eliminates potassium ions at the kidney, pancreas, sweat glands, & salivary glands
  • Helps with reabsorption of sodium
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80
Q

Glucocorticoid is produce by Zona _____, the ____ layer of the adrenal gland. What is the main glucocorticoid? What does it do? What is broken down in this process

A

Zona Fasciculata, middle layer

Cortisol:

  • Increases glucose in the blood
  • Releases fatty acids & protein into the blood for immediate energy cells by BREAKING DOWN ADIPOS TISSUE
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81
Q

What is needed to produce ATP?

A

Glucose

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82
Q

When are glucocorticoids released?

A

During stress

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83
Q

______ syndrom causes striae, muscle weakness, hairloss, buffalo hump, moon face, and hirsutism.

A

Cushing Syndrome

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84
Q

How is Cushing syndrome caused? What unnatural thing can cause this? What does this lead to in the pituitary gland?

A

When extra ACTH is secreted by the pituitary gland, glucocorticoid is released (essentially excess cortisol)

Use of synthetic glucocorticoids can cause this as well

Leads to a tumor on the pituitary gland

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85
Q

What are the affects of the Zona Reticularis on both men and women? Which of the two sex does it effect the most?

A

Men & Women: Stimulates pubic hair growth in adolescences

Women only: Promotes muscle mass, blood cell formation & libido (sexual desires) support
Effects women more

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86
Q

What part of the Adrenal Gland contains large, round cells with preganglionic sympathetic fibers?

A

Adrenal Medulla

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87
Q

The adrenal medulla secrets _____, ___% of the time & ______, _____% of the time. Both of which are essentially _______.

A

Epinephrine 80% of the time
Norepinephrine 20% of the time
Adrenalin

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88
Q

What kind of cells are most cells in the body?

A

Target cells

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89
Q

What is the function of the Adrenal Medulla?

A

Increase cardiac activity, & blood pressure
Breaks down blood glucose levels
Releases lipids by adipose tissue

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90
Q

The Pineal Gland is apart of the _____ and contains _____ cells.

A

Epithalamus / pinealocytes cells

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91
Q

What hormones do pinealocytes releases?

A

Melatonin

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92
Q

Which cells are influenced by visual pathways? What happens if it is dark around you?

A

Pinealocytes cells

Causes more melatonin production = you get sleepy!

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93
Q

Which organ is both an exocrine & endocrine gland?

A

Pancreas

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94
Q

What does the pancreas do? Is this its exocrine or endocrine side?

A

Produces digestive enzymes that are sent to small intestine through a main DUCT
Exocrine side!

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95
Q

What does the pancreas contain? Is this its exocrine or endocrine side?

A

Islets

Endocrine side!

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96
Q

Alpha cells produce the hormone ____. Where beta cells produce _____.

A

Glucagon/Insulin

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97
Q

What is the name of the peptide hormone that is released into the bloodstream when blood-glucose levels exceed “normal levels”

A

Insulin

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98
Q

What are considered “normal” blood-glucose levels?

A

70- 110 mg/dl

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99
Q

What are some examples of cells that are insulin dependent?

A

Brain
Kidney
GI tract lining
RBCs

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100
Q

What is secreted when glucose levels fall below normal?

A

Glucagon

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101
Q

How does glucagon help the body out? How does it do this?

A
  1. Increases the amount of glucose in the blood

2. Breaks down glycogen in skeletal muscle and liver cells

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102
Q

Gluconeogenesis is a process that takes….

A

amino acids or fats, and converts them to glucose

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103
Q

Non carbohydrate precursors are ____

A

fats

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104
Q

What are the two types of Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Type one: born without, or have no, beta cells. Rely on insulin injections
Type two: Insulin receptors on the cell’s membrane are desensitized causing the glucose to stay in the blood
-Caused by bad appetite and habits

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105
Q

What 3 hormones are made by the kidneys?

A

Calcitriol, Erythopoietin & Renin

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106
Q

What is calcitriol?

A

A steroid that is secreted in response to the presence of PTH

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107
Q

What does calcitriol do?

A
  • Stimulates absorption of calcium & phosphate ions in the GI tract
  • Forms osteoclasts
  • Helps reabsorb calcium ions in kidneys
  • Supresses PTH production
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108
Q

What is Erythropoietin?

A

A peptide hormone that is released when there is low oxygen levels in the kidney tissue

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109
Q

What does Erythropoietin do?

A

Stimulates production of red blood cells in bone marrow

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110
Q

When is Renin released?

A

When there is a decrease of blood flow through the kidneys

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111
Q

What does Renin do?

A

Converts hormone angiotensnogen to angiotensin one

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112
Q

What is the difference between Angiotensin One and Angiotensin Two?

A

Angiotensin One goes to the lungs where its converted to Angiotensin Two.

Angiotensin Two stimulate secretion of aldosterone from adrenal cortex to absorb sodium & water to help increase blood pressure.

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113
Q

What is a similarity of both Angiotensin One and Angiotensin Two?

A

They both restrict salt & water loss at kidneys increasing thirst, blood pressure and blood volume

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114
Q

What hormone does the heart make, and how?

A

Natriuretic Peptide by stretching

115
Q

What hormone does the heart make, and how? What is the ultimate goal of doing this?

A

Natriuretic Peptide by stretching

Goal: lower blood pressure and volume

116
Q

Why is Natriuretic Peptide made?

A

To promote water and sodium ions loss at the kidneys and inhibit the secretion of aldosterone and ADH

117
Q

What hormone does the thymus secrete? Why?

A

Thymosin Hormone

To promote development and maturation of lymphocytes (or T-cells)

118
Q

What are lymphocytes (aka T-cells) responsible for?

A

Immune system

119
Q

Gonads are ____ in the _____ that produce the two hormones _____ & _______.

A

Cells/ testes / androgen & testosterone

120
Q

What do gonads do for men vs women?

A

Men:
Create nurse cells in testes that take car of sperm

Women:
Produce estrogen

121
Q

Nurse cells secrete ______.

A

Inhibin

122
Q

What is the main estrogen? What is it function?

A

Estradiol
Maintains post-pubescent sex characteristics including breast development, changes in body shape, affecting bones, and fat depositions

123
Q

Leptin is released when? What does this help with?

A

We eat/ supresses our appetite

124
Q

What are the three main functions of blood?

A

Transportation
Regulation
Protection

125
Q

Blood temperature is roughly ____

A

100.4 F

126
Q

Blood is ____ when saturated with water

A

Bright red

127
Q

Blood pH is between ____ and ____

A

7.35 - 7.45

128
Q

Blood is ____ % plasma and ____ % Formed elements

A

55% plasma

45% formed elements

129
Q

Plasma is ____ % proteins, ____ % other solutes and _____ % water

A

7% proteins

  1. 5% other solutes
  2. 5% water
130
Q

Formed elements have ___ number of platelets

A

400,000

131
Q

Formed elements have ___ number of WBCs

A

5,000 - 10,000

132
Q

Formed elements have ___ number of RBCs

A

4.9 -5.4 million

133
Q

Which two formed elements do not have a nucleus?

A

RBCs & Platelets

134
Q

____ are the name of formed element that is merely parts of cells

A

Platelets

135
Q

Which WBCs have 3-5 lobes to their nuclei and are granular?

A

Neutrophil

136
Q

Which (WBCs) leukocytes have a bilobed nucleus and contain deep red granules?

A

Eosinophils

137
Q

Which (WBCs) leukocytes have deep blue granules and a hidden nucleus by these granules?

A

Basophils

138
Q

Which (WBCs) leukocytes are very large and have a oval kidney bean shaped nucleus?

A

Monocytes

139
Q

Which (WBCs) leukocytes have a large round nucleus with a think halo of cytoplasm?

A

Lymphocytes

140
Q

How many cells are in the human body?

A

75 Trillion

141
Q

What does the cardiovascular system include?

A

The heart, blood vessels & blood

142
Q

What is the cardiovascular system’s main functions?

A

Delivers necessary materials (O2) to all cells in the body

143
Q

What is bloods primary function?

A

Transportation of gasses, nutrients, hormones and metabolic wastes

144
Q

What are the four functions of blood?

A
  1. Regulates bodies Ph
  2. Restricts fluid loss by clotting
  3. Immunity by caring antibodies and WBCs
  4. Stabilizes body temperature by absorbing excess heat and distributing it elsewhere ( When you get too cold and your fingers and toes go numb so your brain and organs stay warm)
145
Q

What is bloods normal ph range?

A

7.35 -7.45

146
Q

What is the name of the matrix in blood?

A

Plasma

147
Q

What 3 types of formed elements make up blood? What are each of their functions?

A

RBC: Transports O2 around the body
WBC: Bodies main defense and immunity
Platelets: Contains enzymes for blood clotting

148
Q

Hemopoiesis is?

A

The production of formed elements

149
Q

(T or F) Platelets are cells

A

False! They are only cell fragments

150
Q

What does whole blood consist of?

A

Plasma and elements ( what we see when we get cut)

151
Q

What is the average temperature of whole blood?

A

100.4 F

152
Q

Blood is ____ times more viscous than water

A

5 times

153
Q

Venipuncture is a procedure where ______

A

Blood is collected for analysis from a superficial vein (drawing blood)

154
Q

(T or F) Veins have thicker walls than arteries

A

False! Its the other way around, arteries have thicker walls than veins

155
Q

What are the three major proteins found in blood plasma? What do they do?

A
  1. Albumins: Maintain water content in blood
  2. Globulins: has antibodies and transport globulins
  3. Fibrinogen: Converted to Fibrin to clot wounds
156
Q

Erythropoiesis is….

A

The formation of RBCs in bone marrow

157
Q

What makes RBC deep red in color? Why

A

O2, because RBC have Hemoglobin in them which are naturally sticky to oxygen and help the RBC carry it

158
Q

A rouleau is a ______ of RBCs

A

Stack

159
Q

RBCs have a life span of _____ days

A

120

160
Q

RBC & Platelets have no ____ but WBCs do

A

Nucleus

161
Q

Hemoglobin is made up of two _____ and two _____ of ______

A

2 Alpha chains & 2 beta chains of polypeptides

162
Q

Heme is responsible for ______.

A

binding to O2

163
Q

What can carry 1 billion O2 molecules at once?

A

Hemoglobin

164
Q

_____ is the condition where Hb (hemoglobin) levels are low and decrease delivery of O2 to peripheral tissues

A

Anemia

165
Q

What are the symptoms of Anemia?

A

Weakness, fatigue and confusion

166
Q

How many miles does a RBC travel in the 120 days of its life?

A

700 miles

167
Q

How long does it take for a single RBC to travel from the heart to tissue and back

A

Less than a min, roughly 30 seconds

168
Q

What ways do RBCs die? (Use the technical term) Which way is better?

A

(Sudden) 1. Hemolysis: The rupture of RBCs plasma membrane in blood stream
(Overtime & Recycled) 2. Autolysis: Broken down in liver, spleen & bone marrow

169
Q

_____ is a condition due to Hemolysis where hemoglobin is released into the ruin causing it to turn red or brown. The symptoms of this are renal cancer, infection, burns or malaria

A

Hemoglobinuria

170
Q

____ is the presence of RBCs in urine due to kidney or vessel damage along urinary tract

A

Hematuria

171
Q

____ breaks down RBCs when they’re old

A

WBCs

172
Q

____ & _____ polypeptide chains are broken down from RBCs into _____. This is then reused by different cells.

A

Alpha & Beta / Amino- Acids

173
Q

During the breakdown process of RBCs what is stripped from Heme? What is it then converted to?

A

Iron / biliverdin

174
Q

_____ is an organic compound with a yellow- orange pigment ( bruises)

A

Bilirubin

175
Q

What does bile do?

A

Breaks down fat we eat into smaller pieces

176
Q

What causes Jaundice? What is a distinct color of this?

A

Blockage of bile ducts, or liver damage, causing bilirubin (aka bile) to not be absorbed and therefore released into the bloodstream. Yellow pigment

177
Q

____ binds to iron removed from Heme in the breakdown of RBCs. Its job is to transform iron.

A

Transferrin

178
Q

What in blood is toxic to the cells?

A

Iron

179
Q

If someone has low ____ levels, you know they’re iron defiant

A

Ferritin

180
Q

What is essential to create RBCs?

A

Amino acids, vitamins, iron, B12

181
Q

How is B12 obtained?

A

Dairy & red meat

182
Q

What causes Pernicious anemia?

A

B12 Deficiency

183
Q

EPO Erythropoietin is important to the production of _____

A

RBCs

184
Q

What is the main difference between Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies vs Anti-Rh?

A

Anti-RH can cross the placenta where Anti A & Anti B cant

185
Q

Whit blood cells are aka ______

A

Leukocytes

186
Q

What are the functions of WBCs?

A

Immunity of the body

Remove toxins, wastes & abnormal/ damaged cells

187
Q

What are the two classes of WBC and there types?

A

Granulocytes:
-Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils

Agranulocytes:
-Monocytes & Lymphocytes

188
Q

If RBCs are out of blood vessels this means what?

A

There was an injury

189
Q

The act of WBCs following chemicals that are released by pathogens is called _______.

A

Postive Chemotaxis

190
Q

List the five types of WBCs, what percentage of WBCs they make up, some distinct characteristics of them, and their main function

A

Neutrophil:

  • 50% of WBCs
  • Has a 3-5 lobe nucleus
  • Has granules
  • Function: Defense enzyme! Digests broken down bacteria

Lymphocyte:

  • 30% of WBCs
  • Has large nucleus, almost size of cell
  • Functions: Rely on these to stay healthy

Monocyte:

  • 8% of WBCs
  • Kidney shaped nucleus

Eosinophil:

  • 2% of WBCs
  • Has granules
  • Bi-lobed nucleus
  • Function: Attacks pathogens

Basophils:

  • > 1 % of WBCs
  • Many granules, cant see nucleus
  • Prevents blood clotting
191
Q

Phagocytosis is a means of how ____ engulf bacteria

A

Neutrophils

192
Q

Which WBC is highly mobile & “first responder” at site of injury

A

Neutrophils

193
Q

Basophil’s granules contain ______ & _____. What do they help with?

A

Histamine: causes vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels increasing blood pressure)

Heparin: Prevents blood clotting

194
Q

What are the three types of lymphocytes? What do they each help with?

A

T cells: Helps cell immunity
B cells: Helps hormonal immunity
Natural Killer Cells: Helps immune surveillance

195
Q

What are Leukopenia and Leukocytosis? What medical conditions do they cause?

A

Leukopenia: not enough WBCs in body -Anemic (sick all the time)
Leukocytosis: Too many WBCs in the body - cancers ( Leukemia/ infections )

196
Q

____ is the production of WBCs

A

Leukopoiesis

197
Q

Hemocytoblasts produce ____ & _____ stem cells

A

Myeloid & lymphoid stem cells

198
Q

Platelets are ______, that help in the ____ process. They have a life span of ____ days.

A

Cell fragments / clotting process/ 9-12 days

199
Q

Where are large amounts of platelets stored? Why there?

A

Spleen, for a circulatory crisis

200
Q

Thrombocytopoiesis is the production of _____

A

Platelets

201
Q

Megakaryocytes fragment into tiny pieces creating ____ # of _____.

A

4000/ platelets

202
Q

How do platelets initiate the clotting process?

A

Platelets release chemicals and enzymes

203
Q

A platelet plus is a _____

A

Temporary patch in walls of damaged area

204
Q

Platelets contain ____ & _____

A

Actin & Myosin

205
Q

What is the sensation of bleeding called?

A

Hemostasis

206
Q

What are the 3 phases of bleeding? Briefly describe what occurs during each phase.

A
  1. Vascular Phase: Vascular spasm occurs, cut vessel will constrict for 30 min to lesson blood loss
  2. Platelets Phase: Platelets attach to injured area and form a platelet plug, occurs 15 sec after injury
  3. Coagulation Phase: Fibrin (a mesh) is made to cover platelet plug creating blood clot
207
Q

What cell secretes chemicals and hormones to promote vascular spasm after a cut?

A

Endothelial cells

208
Q

_____ transforms into fibrin to cover platelet plug

A

Fibrinogen

209
Q

Thrombus is a technical term for a _____-

A

blood clot

210
Q

Clotting depends on ___ & ____

A

Clotting factors and proenzymes

211
Q

What are the three pathways needed in the formation of Fibrin?

A
  1. Extrinsic Pathway
  2. Intrinsic Pathway
  3. Common Pathway
212
Q

Vitamin K is produced by bacteria in _____. It helps with ____. And is gained from eating ____ & _____

A

large intestine/ clotting/ veggies & meat

213
Q

Anticoagulants are aka as _____

A

Blood thinners

214
Q

The heart is apart of the ___ system

A

Cardiovascular

215
Q

Blood is carried away from the heart by ___ and returns via ____

A

Arteries/ Veins

216
Q

___ are microscopic vessels that interconnect the smallest arteries to the smaller veins

A

Capillaries

217
Q

The _____ is a closed circuit system where blood is contained within vessels at all times during circulation

A

Heart

218
Q

The heart beats ____ times a day and pumps ___ gallons of blood each day.

A

100,000 times / 2000 gallons

219
Q

List the 4 muscular chambers of the heart

A
  1. Right Atrium: Receives deoxygenated blood from the lungs and sends it to the Right Ventricle
  2. Right Ventricle: pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs
  3. Left Atrium: Receives oxygenated blood from lungs and sent to tp the Left Ventricle

Left Ventricle: Pumps oxygenated blood to the body and brain

220
Q

Which sides of the heart carry deoxygenated vs oxygenated blood?

A

Right: deoxygenated
Left: oxygenated

221
Q

What is the most important part of the heart, why?

A

The left ventricle, bc it pumps oxygenated blood to the brain and body

222
Q

*The heart is protected by a tough protective layer called the

A

Pericardium

223
Q

The pericardium is made up of two layers the ____ and _____. What do they each line?

A

Serous membrane: lines outside of heart

Parietal pericardium: lines inner surface

224
Q

Between the two layers of the pericardium is the ____ cavity which contains ___ fluid.

A

Pericardial cavity/ pericardial fluid

225
Q

The all of the heart is made up of which 3 layers?

A
  1. Epicardium - outer most layer
  2. Myocardium- middle layer
  3. Endocardium- inner surface
226
Q

The ___ layer of the heart contains ____ muscle which helps with contractions or “beating”

A

Myocardium ( middle layer) / cardiac muscle

227
Q

The endocardium layer of the heart lines ____ & ____

A

Chambers and valves

228
Q

The ____ of the heart receives blood from the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, anterior cardiac veins and coronary sinus.

A

Right Atrium

229
Q

What is the job of the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava and coronary sinus? Which one is a vein?

A

Superior vena cava: Drains blood from head, neck and upper limbs
Inferior vena cava: Drains blood from rest of body
Coronary sinus: Vein that receives blood from cardia veins

230
Q

Where does the right ventricle of the heart receive blood from?

A

Tricuspid valvue

231
Q

What are the 4 blood types? What antigens must each of them have?

A

Type A: Has surface antigen A
Type B: Has surface antigen B
Type AB: Has both A & B surface antigens
Type O: Has no antigens

232
Q

The presence of ___ determines if a blood type is + or _

A

Rh

233
Q

What sulcus separates atria from ventricles?

A

Coronary sulcus

234
Q

What valve separates right atria from right ventricle and is the thinner valve?

A

Tricuspid valve

235
Q

What structure separates right and left ventricle?

A

Interventicular septum

236
Q

What is the name of the outer layer of the heart?

A

Epicardium

237
Q

What vessel is seen only on the posterior side of the heart?

A

Inferior vena cava

238
Q

What is the most obvious difference between the right and left ventricle?

A

The right is thin where the left is thick

239
Q

Valvular disease is when the ____ of the heart become defective. This can lead to inadequate circulatory flow

A

Valvular Disease

240
Q

Carditis is…

A

Inflammation of the heart

241
Q

_____ is the inflammation of the endocardium & may lead to vascular heart disease

A

Endocarditis

242
Q

___ & ____ can cause endocarditis

A

Gum infections and tooth decay

243
Q

People who have ___ have to take antibiotics before dental appointment

A

Endocarditis

244
Q

____ is an inflammatory autoimmune response to a streptococcal bacterial infection often seen in children

A

Rheumatic fever

245
Q

The ___ _____ supplies the myocardium with O2 and nutrients

A

Coronary circulation

246
Q

What is the name of the disease where the coronary blood supply is compromised due to fatty plaque in coronary artery

A

Coronary Artery Disease ( CAD)

247
Q

Angina pectorals is another word for a _____

A

Heart attack

248
Q

What are some symptoms of angina pectorals?

A

Chest pressure, sweating, arm, back, jaw, neck and chest pain

249
Q

How does one protect themselves from experiencing angina pectorals?

A

Destress, quit smoking, avoid fatty foods, exercise

250
Q

What is audtorhythmicity?

A

The hearts ability to contract and relax on its own

251
Q

The heart can contract and relax on its own is due to the ___ which is basically the pacemaker of the heart

A

SA node

252
Q

The SA node generates ___ ____ for the heart to beat

A

Action potential (electrical impulses)

253
Q

The sinoatrial (SA) node is located in _____ wall of the ____ ______

A

Posterior wall of the right atrium

254
Q

The Atrioventrical (AV) node is located in the ____ of the ____ _____

A

Floor of the right atrium

255
Q

_____ cells interconnect both the SA and AV nodes

A

Conducting cells

256
Q

The natural pacemaker of the heart is the ____

A

Sinoatrial (SA) node

257
Q

If the SA node is damaged, the ____ is able to take over, but at a slower rate

A

AV node

258
Q

Heartbeats are recorded by _____

A

Electrocardiograms (EKGs)

259
Q

The peaks on a EKG scan measure the _____, where as the intervals measure the _____

A

Contracts / Action potential (electrical impulses)

260
Q

What is the pattern sequence of an EKG scan?

A

P wave, QRS complex, T wave

261
Q

What does each part of an EKG scan signify?

A

P wave: measures contraction of atria
QRS complex: Signifies contraction of ventricle
T wave: indicates ventricle repolarization

262
Q

When seeing a larger, than normal, QRS complex on an EKG scan you can assume this indicates what?

A

Ab enlarged heart

263
Q

When seeing a smaller than normal QRS complex on an EKG scan you can assume this indicates what?

A

Congestive heart failure

264
Q

When seeing smaller than normal T waves on an EKG scan you can assume this indicates what?

A

Low levels of potassium and starvation

265
Q

An EKG interval is

A

The time between the end of one wave to the end of the next

266
Q

Cardiac Arrhythmias is another word for what?

A

irregular heartbeat

267
Q

What do we rely on for muscle contractions?

A

Potassium (K)

268
Q

What are the three steps to action potential in cardiac cells? What happens in each/

A
  1. Rapid depolarization: sodium channels open up allowing influx of Na+ in fibers
  2. Plateau: At 30mv, Na+ channels close. And Ca2+ (calcium channels) open and stay open a little. Allows for stronger
  3. Repolarization: Slow calcium channels close. K channels open allowing K=+ to float out of cell, restoring cell to resting potential
269
Q

Where does the hearts cardiac muscle gain energy?

A

Fats and glucose

270
Q

The period between the start of one heart beat and beginning go the next is called the ___ cycle

A

Cardiac cycle

271
Q

Each heartbeat followed by a brief resting phase is called the ___ ___

A

Cardiac cycle

272
Q

The cardiac cycle can be divided into which 2 phases. Describe them

A
  1. Systol: Contraction - Chambers empty blood

2. Diastole: Relaxation - Chambers fill with blood

273
Q

What is the difference between Tachycardia & Brandycardia

A

Tachycardia: Fast heart beat
Brandycardia: Slow heart beat

274
Q

What are the two main sounds of the heart, what are we hearting when they occur?

A

S1: “lubb”- closing of the AV valve
S2: “dubb: - closing of the semilunar valve

275
Q

If you listen to a athletes chest and their heart sounds is: “lubb, dubbings, bubb”. Is there a problem?

A

No, this is common

276
Q

____ ___are rushing, gurgling sounds due to swirling of blood in the AV or semilunar valves

A

Heart Murmurs

277
Q

___ the name of the hearts action of pumping blood

A

Cardiodynamics

278
Q

Explain what are:
End-diastolic Volume (EDV)
End-systolic Volume (ESV)
Stroke Volume (SV):

A

End-diastolic Volume (EDV): Amount of blood left in ventricle at end of ventricular diastole (
End-systolic Volume (ESV): Amount of blood left in ventricle at end of ventricular systole
Stroke Volume (SV): Amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle during a single beat

279
Q

What are some ways to improve ejection fraction?

A

Lessen salt intake & workout

280
Q

Cardiac output is….

A

The amount of blood pumped out by the left ventricle in 1 min

281
Q

Normal heart rate is between ___ -___

A

60 -100bpm

282
Q

Abnormal conditions that affect cardiac output include what?

A

Temperature, caffeine, nicotine, abnormal ion concentration

283
Q

What is Preload vs. Afterload?

A

Preload: Ventricle muscle cells stretching during diastole (good)
Afterload: Increase of pressure while left ventricle pushes blood out (bad)

284
Q

List 3 heart meds, how they help and what they help with

A

1) Digitalis
- Elevates calcium ions in the heart = improves contractions
- Treats: congestive heart failure

2) Beta Blockers
- Decreases heart rate and contraction
- Treats hypertension (anxiety)

3) Calcium Channel Blockers
- Reduces Ca2+ into the heart = reduces contractions
- Treats: hypertension

Anatomy & Physiology II (7 decks)

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