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Private Pilot > everything together second set of quizzes > Flashcards

everything together second set of quizzes Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

Use Figure 21, area 3 to determine your bearing FROM the Minot VORTAC if you are flying directly over the Mercer County Regional Airport.

A

179

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2
Q

What course should a pilot select in order for the CDI to take you directly TO the Minot VORTAC if flying directly over Mercer County Regional Airport ? (Use Figure 21, area 3)

A

359

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3
Q

What course should a pilot select in order for the CDI to take you directly TO the Savannah VORTAC if flying directly over Hampton Varnville Airport? (Use Figure 23, area 1)

A

196

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4
Q

Refer to figure 20 to determine your position. What would be your approximate location if you are on the 336 radial FROM the Elizabeth City VOR and you are also on the 226 radial FROM the Norfolk VORTAC?

A

over lake Drummond

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5
Q

Refer to figure 28. What is your bearing FROM the station if your VOR receiver is giving you the indication in illustration 8?

A

210

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6
Q

Use Figure 28 and 20 for the following question. Which VOR indication would you expect to see in Figure 28 if you are tuned to the Norfolk VORTAC and are directly over the town of Shawboro (area 3)?

A

5 or 9

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7
Q

Use Figure 28 and 20 for the following question. Which VOR indication would you expect to see in Figure 28 if you are are tuned to the Norfolk VORTAC and are directly over the Craft private airstrip (area 4)?

A

8

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8
Q

Let’s say your VOR receiver is tuned to the 113.1 (see figure 25 area 5). Where are you if the OBS is set to 250 and the CDI is deflected right with a TO indication?

A

East North East of the Maverick VOR

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9
Q

If your VOR receiver is receiving the indication in figure 28 illustration 7, what would be the aircraft’s position in relation to the station?

A

south east of the VOR

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10
Q

What heading of your aircraft if your CDI shows the reading in figure 28, illustration 5?

A

it is impossible to know

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11
Q

What should be the proper indication when your CDI is centered on the OBS of your VOR indicator?

A

360° FROM or 180° TO regardless of your position from the VOT

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12
Q

If working properly, where does a VOT always show your airplane in relation to the station?

A

north of the station

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13
Q

At any position on earth, what is the least amount of satellites that should be available for use by your GPS system?

A

5

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14
Q

How many GPS satellites are needed in order to provide your aircraft with an accurate position above the earth’s surface?

A

4

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15
Q

If RAIM is lost or not available during a flight, what is important to remember?

A

There is no was of knowing the accuracy of your GPS position

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16
Q

What type of clouds would you typically see form in front of a warm front?

A

stratus

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17
Q

In which part of the atmosphere does most weather occur?

A

troposphere

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18
Q

What is considered the standard Atmospheric Pressure?

A

29.92

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19
Q

What is an atmosphere’s ability to resist vertical motion?

A

atmospheric stability

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20
Q

What is the temperature at which the air can hold no more moisture?

A

dew point

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21
Q

True/False. Warm Fronts travel much faster than Cold Fronts.

A

false

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22
Q

Which front occurs when a cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front?

A

occluded front

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23
Q

In which stage of a thunderstorm begins with a lifting action in the air because of instability?

A

cumulous stage

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24
Q

What clouds are you likely to see when the air is very stable and the air is full of moisture?

A

low clouds

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25
Q

What type of clouds are common when the air is not stable but is full of moisture?

A

cumulonimbus clouds

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26
Q

What is the approximate height of the clouds if the Temperature is 25 C and the Dewpoint is 14 C?

A

4,400 feet ago

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27
Q

What is the current windspeed and wind direction reported at KLAX on the METAR in figure 12?

A

250° True at 4 knots

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28
Q

What is the height of the lowest ceiling at KLAX according to figure 12?

A

there is no ceiling at klax

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29
Q

According to Figure 15, when is the TAF for KOKC valid?

A

On the 5th from 1200 Zulu to the 6th at 1800 Zulu

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30
Q

Besides the ceilings, when would a TAF report specific clouds in the area?

A

When there are cumulonimbus clouds in the area

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31
Q

See figure 15. What would the letters “SHRA” indicate in the TAF line for KMEM?

A

rain showers

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32
Q

According to figure 15, what visibility would you expect at 0500 Zulu at KOKC on the 6th?

A

2 sm

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33
Q

According to figure 15, what wind would you expect at 2300 Zulu on the 5th at KOKC?

A

200° at 13 knots gusting to 20

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34
Q

See figure 15. What time are they expecting the airfield at KOKC to go from clear skies to overcast at 2,000 feet?

A

2200-2400 zulu

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35
Q

Which briefing would you request if you want to supplement a weather briefing or product that has already been reviewed or to update an older weather briefing?

A

An abbreviated weather briefing

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36
Q

What type of weather briefing can be requested from an FSS if the proposed departure time is 6 or more hours in the future?

A

an outlook briefing

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37
Q

What could a flight service station give you if you called them on the radio in flight?

A

Weather information for specific requested areas that can help you make decisions about your route

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38
Q

In what weather condition could you expect to see frost on the surface of the wing during a preflight inspection?

A

The temperature of the wings is below the dew point of the air around them, and the dew point is also below freezing

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39
Q

What kind of weather would you expect if there are ice pellets on the surface?

A

There is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at higher altitudes

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40
Q

What is one thing that must be present in order for icing to occur on the structure of an aircraft?

A

visibile moisture

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41
Q

What is the most common cause of a temperature inversion?

A

Warm air from the ground being picked up and raised during a calm and clear night

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42
Q

What kind of weather would you expect if you fly beneath a low level temperature inversion during high humidity conditions?

A

Smooth air, fog, haze, or low clouds and/or poor visibility

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43
Q

What kind of air is associated with a temperature inversion?

A

stable air

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44
Q

If there is a temperature inversion, what could indicate the presence of wind shear in that area?

A

Winds are 25 knots or greater at 2,000 to 4,000 ft above the surface

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45
Q

What condition could cause radiation fog to form?

A

Warm moist air moving over cooler ground on a clear calm night

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46
Q

What condition could cause advection fog to form?

A

Warmer costal air moving inward to colder areas during the winter

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47
Q

What two types of fog need wind in order to exist?

A

Advection and Upslope Fog

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48
Q

Which type of fog could cause low level turbulence and various icing conditions?

A

steam fog

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49
Q

Which of these conditions would you expect near a thunderstorm in the cumulus stage?

A

continuous updrafts

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50
Q

Which of these conditions would you see at the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A

Precipitation begins to fall

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51
Q

What three things must be present in order for a thunderstorm to form?

A

High humidity, a lifting force, and unstable conditions

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52
Q

What things could be indicated by a convective SIGMET?

A

Embedded thunderstorms, tornadoes, and hail greater than 3/4” in diameter

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53
Q

Convective SIGMET apply to which aircraft?

A

all AC

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54
Q

Which of these would be issued if severe icing was forecasted in a a particular area?

A

signet

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55
Q

What advisory would be issued for a significant weather event that could affect all pilots but is less intense than a SIGMET?

A

airmet

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56
Q

Which of these clouds is shaped like a lens or almond and may indicate very strong winds in the area?

A

lenticular clouds

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57
Q

When would a pilot most likely experience mountain wave turbulence?

A

Winds moving perpendicular to a mountain ridge at 40 knots

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58
Q

What can you calculate by using the wind side of a flight computer?

A

Ground Speed and Wind Correction Angle

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59
Q

Determine your Estimated Time Enroute if you are flying 231 miles and your true airspeed is 110 knots with a headwind component of 5 knots.

A

2 hr & 12 min

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60
Q

What indicated airspeed would you need to fly in order to fly 100 NM in 60 minutes under the following conditions?

A

99 Kias

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61
Q

Where is the time scale on the calculator side of a manual E6B flight computer?

A

the inner most ring and the far inner ring

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62
Q

How fast am I flying if I travel 120 nautical miles in 60 minutes?

A

120 knots

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63
Q

How fast am I flying I travel 5 nautical miles in 3 minutes?

A

100 knots

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64
Q

How far will I have flown in 3 minutes and 30 seconds at a ground speed of 102 knots?

A

5.95NM

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65
Q

How far will I have flown in 2 hours and 15 minutes if I fly at 105 knots?

A

236 nm

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66
Q

How far will I have flown in 6 minutes and 30 seconds at a ground speed of 117 knots?

A

12.6 nm

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67
Q

How far will you have flown if you fly at 115 knots for 12 minutes?

A

23 nm

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68
Q

True/False: A 10 on the E6B always indicates 10 miles or 10 knots.

A

false

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69
Q

What is the last thing you should do if you use a manual E6B for calculations?

A

“does this make sense”

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70
Q

You’re flying on a long cross county flight and you just passed your second waypoint. It took 10 minutes to fly from your first waypoint to the second waypoint with a distance of 15 nautical miles. If there are 45 nautical miles left in the trip, how long would it take you to make it to your destination?

A

30 min

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71
Q

You’re flying on a long cross county flight and you just passed your second waypoint. It took 12 minutes to fly from your first waypoint to the second waypoint with a distance of 18 nautical miles. If there are 30 nautical miles left in the trip, and the current time is 10:30 Zulu, what time should you arrive at your destination?
0/1

A

10:50z

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72
Q

How fast am I flying if I travel 130 nautical miles in 70 minutes?

A

111 knots

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73
Q

How fast am I flying I travel 6 nautical miles in 3 minutes?

A

120 knots

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74
Q

How far will I have flown in 3 minutes and 30 seconds at a ground speed of 105 knots?

A

6.1 nm

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75
Q

How far will I have flown in 5 minutes and 30 seconds at a ground speed of 117 knots?

A

10.7 nm

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76
Q

How fast are you moving if you fly 20 miles in 10 minutes?

A

120 knots

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77
Q

How far will you have flown if you fly at 118 knots for 10 minutes?

A

19.7

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78
Q

See figure 61: The weight of Box X is 50 lbs and the weight of Box Y is 300 lbs. How much would Box Z need to weight in order for the plank to be balanced?

A

100 lbs

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79
Q

See figure 60: How would the 250 lb box need to move in order to balance the plank?

A

It needs to move left 2.014 inches

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80
Q

What formula can be used to find an airplanes center of gravity?

A

moment/weight

81
Q

If an airplane’s takeoff weight is 120 lbs over its max takeoff weight, how much fuel could be removed to get the airplane back within limits (assuming the CG is still within limits)

A

20 gallons

82
Q

Use Figures 32 and 33 to calculate the weight and balance on your aircraft and to determine if the Center of Gravity is within limits.

Front seat pilot and passenger…..420 lb
Rear seat passenger………………170 lb
Baggage…………………………….35 lb
Fuel…………………………………..35 gallons

A

cg is 81.4 (within limits)

83
Q

Use Figures 32 and 33 to calculate the weight and balance on your aircraft and to determine if the Center of Gravity is within limits.

Front seat pilot and passenger…..420 lb
Rear seat passengers……………230 lb
Baggage…………………………….70 lb
Fuel…………………………………..35 gallons

A

CG is 82.9 (within limits, but 1lb overweight)

84
Q

Use Figures 32 and 33 to answer the following question: What would happen to the CG of this airplane if you dropped off a 220 lb passenger from the front seat and the rear passenger (170 lb) moved to the front seat for the remainder of the flight. Assume you refilled the fuel tanks to 35 gallons.

Front seat pilot and passenger…..420 lb
Rear seat passenger………………170 lb
Baggage…………………………….35 lb
Fuel…………………………………..35 gallons

A

The CG moves forward about 2.6 inches

85
Q

What is the definition of a “true course”?

A

The path your airplane is flying relative to true north

86
Q

What is the definition of a “magnetic heading”?

A

The direction that the nose of your aircraft is pointed relative to magnetic north

87
Q

What is true airspeed?

A

The speed of an aircraft in relation to the air around it

88
Q

See figure 26 to determine the magnetic course that should be flow in order to fly from Cooperstown Airport in area 2 (S32) to Jamestown Airport in area 4 (KJMS)

A

215

89
Q

What would be your magnetic course if your true course was 192° and the magnetic variation in that area was 5° West?

A

197

90
Q
A
91
Q

What would be your Magnetic Heading if your true course was 090°, the magnetic variation is 5° East and you had a left wind correction angle of 3°?

A

82

92
Q

Calculate your Estimated Time Enroute Using the following information (E6B used for answer):

Distance: 151 NM
True Course: 131°
Variation 3° East
Winds 090° at 10
True Airspeed: 115 Kn

A

84 min

93
Q

When would Pressure Altitude be equal to True Altitude?

A

During standard atmospheric conditions

94
Q

What happens to density altitude if the outside air temperature increases?

A

density altitude increases

95
Q

Which conditions together would cause a reduction in aircraft takeoff and climb performance?

A

High Altitude, High Temperature, Humid Conditions

96
Q

What will happen to density altitude if the relative humidity increases?

A

it will increase

97
Q

What will happen to density altitude if the OAT (outside air temperature) increases?

A

it will increase

98
Q

How would density altitude change if the temperature was 15° C and the pressure altitude at a field was 2,000 ft but the temperature rose to 27° C and the pressure altitude increased to 3,000 ft? (use figure 8)

A

density altitude would increase 2,600 ft

99
Q

How would density altitude change if the temperature was 38° C and the pressure altitude at a field was 2,000 ft but the temperature dropped to 21° C and the pressure altitude decreased to 1,000 ft?(use figure 8)

A

Density altitude would decrease 4,100 ft

100
Q

Use figure 38 to determine the approximate landing distance (total) under the following conditions:

OAT: 50°F
Pressure Altitude: 6,250 ft
Takeoff weight: 1,600 lbs
Headwind Component: 8 knots
Obstacle: 50’

A

980 ft

101
Q

Use figure 35 to determine the fuel burn rate that a pilot should expect at 9,000 ft at 15° C at 65% MCP:

A

11.5 gph

102
Q

Use figure 35 to determine the manifold pressure a pilot should use to achieve 2,450 RPM at 15° C at 11,000 feet.

A

19.4 in hg

103
Q

Using the crosswind chart in figure 36, determine the maximum wind velocity if the maximum crosswind limit of your aircraft is 20 knots and the crosswind component is 40° off of the runway heading.

A

32 knots

104
Q

Use the crosswind chart in figure 36, determine the crosswind component on runway 36 if the winds are 045 at 20 knots

A

14 knots

105
Q

Use the clock method to determine the crosswind component on runway 36 if the winds are 030° at 12 knots:

A

6 knots

106
Q

When discussing certificates that you could earn as an airman, which of these would we classify as categories of aircraft?

A

Rotorcraft, Airplane, Lighter than Air, Glider

107
Q

When discussing certificates that you could earn as an airman, which of these would we consider a class of aircraft?

A

Single Engine Land, Multi Engine Land, Single Engine Sea, Multi Engine Sea

108
Q

When discussing the certification of an aircraft, which of these would be considered a class of aircraft?

A

Rotorcraft, Airplane, Lighter than Air, Glider

109
Q

If you purchase a new airplane from an aircraft dealer, and the aircraft is registered by their Dealership Certificate of Registration, how long can you wait before registering the aircraft?

A

the AC must be registered immediately

110
Q

Operating limitations are an extremely important part of aircraft documentation. Where could you find the operating limitations for your aircraft?

A

In an up to date copy of the Airplane Flight Manual, Pilots Operating Handbook, Aircraft Markings, Placards, the TCDS or any combination of these locations

111
Q

How often does an Airworthiness Certificate need to be renewed?

A

It does not need to be renewed as long as it is maintained and operated under the proper FAR requirements

112
Q

Where could you potentially find the operating limitations for an experimental or light sport aircraft?

A

on the airworthiness
certificate

113
Q

When does the registration expire for most aircraft?

A

7 years after the original registration certificate was issued

114
Q

Under which condition could a pilot operate under BasicMed?

A

in a multi engine AC

115
Q

Which of these could a pilot do if operating under BasicMed?

A

fly in the furtherance of a business

116
Q

A pilot wishes to operate under BasicMed and completed the required BasicMed educational course on September 12th of this year. When would be the last day the pilot could operate under basic med before needing to retake the training?

A

sept 30th 2 yrs later

117
Q

A pilot wishes to operate under BasicMed has just received his Comprehensive Medical Exam (CME) on November 14th. When would he be required to receive another examination to legally be able to operate under Basic Med?

A

nov 14th 4 years later

118
Q

What is one requirement that must be accomplished prior to operating under BasicMed?

A

A pilot must have first held an FAA medical certificate of any kind

119
Q

Which of these can a pilot NOT do if operating under BasicMed?

A

operating an aircraft above 250 KIAS

120
Q
A
121
Q

What must a pilot do within the last 12 months in order to legally operate as the Pilot in Command of an aircraft towing a glider?

A

They must have at least 3 actual or simulated glider tows while being accompanied by a qualified pilot

122
Q

If a Private Pilot takes three of his friends on a flight which costs a total of $400, what is the least amount he would need to pay for the trip?

A

$100

123
Q

When would a private or recreational pilot be required to take another flight review if they just accomplished their flight review on May 11th of this year?

A

May 31st 2 years later

124
Q

Which of these would be a proper cruising altitude if flying a magnetic course of 095° (terrain permitting)?

A

5500 ft msl

125
Q

Which cruising altitudes would be appropriate if you were to fly a magnetic course of 180° on a VFR cross country?

A

even thousands plus 500 ft

126
Q

Which of these would be an appropriate VFR cruising altitude, on a magnetic course of 275°, if the terrain was at 1,300 feet MSL and the ceilings were at 2,500 ft AGL?

A

3000 ft msl

127
Q

Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating an aircraft above 3,000 ft AGL must maintain a VFR cruising altitude of an odd thousand plus 500 feet while on a:

A

Magnetic course of 0° through 179°

128
Q

How should a pilot set the altimeter if no altimeter setting is available prior to departure?

A

Set the elevation of the departure field in the altimeter

129
Q

How should the altimeter be set prior to takeoff?

A

Set using the local altimeter setting. If that’s not available, then use the elevation of the departure airport

130
Q

When would a pilot set the altimeter to 29.92 if the current pressure is not standard?

A

When cruising at flight levels of 18,000 feet and above

131
Q

Ground has instructed you to taxi to runway 04L at your discretion. You must cross runway 18 during the taxi. What are you cleared to do?

A

Taxi at your discretion up to runway 18 and await clearance to cross before proceeding to runway 04L

132
Q

When would you be required to has ADSB-Out in your aircraft?

A

Any time you operate in Class E airspace at and above 10,000 ft MSL (not including airspace below 2,500 feet AGL)

133
Q

If a pilot deviates from an ATC clearance and the controller gives him a number to call. How long does the pilot have to submit a report if the controller requests him to do so?

A

48 hrs

134
Q

Which of these light signals would indicate that a pilot is cleared to taxi?

A

flashing green

135
Q

What would be the proper procedure if your aircraft’s radio fails in flight and you have not yet been cleared to land by the tower controller?

A

Observe the traffic flow, squawk 7600, and enter the pattern while looking for light gun signals from tower

136
Q

Which aircraft has the right of way if two aircraft converge (not head on)

A

Which aircraft has the right of way if two aircraft converge (not head on)

137
Q

Which aircraft in the list below has the right of way over all others in the list?

A

glider

138
Q

During which times are you required to operate with lighted position lights when operating an aircraft?

A

from sunrise to sunset except Alaska

139
Q

A boat and a sea plane are converging while on the water (not head on). The sea plane is to the right of the boat. Who has the right of way?

A

the seaplane

140
Q

No person may operate a civil aircraft registered in the U.S., unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of…

A

15,000 ft msl

141
Q

When would it be legal for a pilot to carry a passenger aboard their aircraft that is under the influence of drugs?

A

In an emergency or when that person is a patient under proper medical care

142
Q

If a pilot has been convicted for driving a vehicle while intoxicated by drugs or alcohol, how long before they are required by law to report it to the FAA?

A

No later than 60 days after the actual incident

143
Q

How long can one alcoholic drink be detected in the blood after consumption? (Assume one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer, or four ounces of wine)

A

3 hrs after consumption

144
Q

If a pilot is convicted of a misdemeanor in a motor vehicle involving drugs or alcohol, when would they be required to submit a written report?

A

It must be reported within 60 days of the incident to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division

145
Q

Which frequencies does an ELT use to transmit an emergency signal when activated?

A

121.5 and 243.0 mhz

146
Q

How often is the ELT required to be inspected?

A

every 12 calendar months

147
Q

Which of these incidents would require the pilot to notify the nearest NTSB field office immediately?

A

a flight control system malfunction or failure

148
Q

How long does a pilot have to file an NTSB accident report after they have been involved in an accident?

A

10 days

149
Q

How long does a pilot have to file an NTSB written report after they have been involved in an incident?

A

only when requested

150
Q

If operating an aircraft with an electronic flight display, which of these would require the pilot to report the incident to the NTSB?

A

Loss of 50% or more of the digital information on the flight displays

151
Q

When would a pilot be required to notify the NTSB if they have a TCAS system on board their aircraft?

A

If they complied with a Resolution Advisory while on an IFR flight plan

152
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the appropriate entries are made in the aircraft logbooks and that the aircraft has been approved for return to service after a mechanic has serviced the aircraft?

A

the owner or operator

153
Q

If a pilot does a proper preflight inspection, what else still needs to be checked in order to be certain of the airworthiness of an aircraft?

A

The maintenance records or aircraft logbooks

154
Q

What is the correct way to document that an aircraft has had its annual inspection and has been approved for return to service?

A

An appropriate logbook entry in the aircraft maintenance records

155
Q

If an aircraft had its annual inspection on March 4th this year, when would the next annual inspection be due?

A

march 31st next year

156
Q

Where is an owner or operator required to keep the documentation to show that all the airworthiness directives have been accomplished?

A

Inside the aircraft maintenance records / aircraft logbooks

157
Q

What is an important thing that every pilot should know about airworthiness directives (AD)?

A

Airworthiness directives are mandatory

158
Q

An aircraft has been altered or repaired in a way that substantially affects the way it operates. Because of that, a pilot with the appropriate ratings must now test fly that aircraft before…

A

It can be operated with passengers on board

159
Q

Which regulation outlines some of the preventive maintenance items that a private pilot can perform?

A

FAR 43.7

160
Q

Which of these pilots can legally perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft?

A

private pilots and commercial pilots

161
Q

Which airspace would you be required to have an operable 4096 transponder with altitude reporting capability?

A

Class A, Within 30 NM of the primary airport in Class B, and Class C

162
Q

The aircraft logbooks indicated that the transponder was last inspected on 4 August 2023. When will the next inspection be due?

A

august 31 2025

163
Q

If an aircraft instrument is broken and the pilot determines that it is not legally needed for flight, what must be done to the instrument prior to flight?

A

It must be placarded with the word “INOP” and disabled if possible

164
Q

You’re planning a cross country flight to Majors Airport (figure 24, area 1). Where could you find additional information about the parachute jumping area over that airfield?

A

the chart supplement

165
Q

According to the chart supplement in figure 52, Who should the pilot contact first if they desire to land and they are approaching Lincoln Memorial Airport from the east?

A

Lincoln approach on 124.8

166
Q

Which of these services are provided to VFR pilots flying in Class C airspace?

A

Sequencing of aircraft to the primary airport within the Class C, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts

167
Q

According to the chart supplement in figure 52, where is Lincoln Municipal Airport in relation to the town?

A

4 NM north west

168
Q

According to the chart supplement in figure 52, which 2 runways are right hand traffic patterns?

A

runway 18 & 35

169
Q

Where could a pilot obtain a copy of the FAA advisory circulars that are available to all pilots?

A

By ordering them from the government printing office

170
Q

Prior to the first flight of the day, how should a pilot properly perform a preflight inspection of their aircraft?

A

A thorough inspection in a manner as prescribed by the manufacturer

171
Q

Which of these is one of the purposes of a dual ignition system on your aircraft?

A

better engine performance

172
Q

What could happen if the ground wire between the ignition switch and the magneto becomes disconnected?

A

The engine will not be able to be shut down by placing the Mags into the OFF position

173
Q

if operating an aircraft with a constant speed propeller, which of these is an engine condition that should be avoided?

A

High manifold pressure and low RPM

174
Q

As a general rule, why do we adjust the fuel / air mixture with the mixture knob when flying at higher altitudes?

A

To decease the fuel in the fuel/air mixture to compensate for reduced air at higher altitudes

175
Q

When adjusting the fuel/air mixture by use of the mixture control knob, what ratio are you changing?

A

You are adjusting the weight of the fuel to the weight of the air

176
Q

As a general rule, if carburetor heat is turned on, what does that do to engine performance?

A

It reduces performance because it richens the mixture

177
Q

A pilot suspects that ice is building up in the carburetor and turns on the carb heat in his fixed-pitch propeller driven aircraft. How would he know for sure that carburetor icing was the problem in this situation.

A

The engine would initially have a decrease in RPM followed by a gradual increase in RPM

178
Q

if you’re flying an airplane and you notice that the oil temperature and engine temperature gauges are hotter than normal, what could possibly be the cause?

A

You have been operating with too much power and/or the mixture too lean

179
Q

Which of these could help reduce engine temperature if you suspect that your engine is getting too hot.

A

richen the fuel/air mixture

180
Q

If detonation has occurred in an aircraft with a reciprocating engine, what has happened?

A

The fuel air mixture in the cylinders explodes instead of burning smoothly and evenly

181
Q

Which of these could be a result of a worn engine with hot spots that have developed in the cylinder which have been caused by excessive engine wear?

A

pre-ignition

182
Q

Why is it important for a pilot to maintain a constant glide speed during an emergency descent?

A

Why is it important for a pilot to maintain a constant glide speed during an emergency descent?

183
Q

If approaching an airfield to land at night, how should a pilot accomplish the descent?

A

the same way they would during the day

184
Q

An airfield has pilot controlled lighting and a pilot wishes to set them on a medium intensity. The pilot should click the microphone 7 times to turn the lights on and then…

A

click the mic 5 times within 5 seconds

185
Q

See figure 65 sign A. Where would your aircraft be if you taxied past this sign and turned right?

A

on runway 4, at a taxiway intersection

186
Q

After landing at your local towered airport, the tower has just advised you to contact ground control on 121.9 after you have cleared the runway. Which marking in figure 65 would indicate that you have completely cleared the runway?

A

after you have past the 2 solid lines of marking g

187
Q

See figure 48. Which of these is a true statement regarding the airport diagram?
0/1

A

A pilot may use position A for taxi or takeoff, but may not land until position B

188
Q

If a runway is labeled as runway 18 and 36, this would indicate that the runway is oriented on a heading…

A

approximately 180 and 360 mag

189
Q

What is the best way to avoid a collision while entering the traffic pattern at an airport?

A

Enter at the proper altitude and constantly scan for other traffic

190
Q

Which runway should be used and what is the correct pattern direction if the runways and conditions from figure 49 are used?

A

runway 18 right traffic

191
Q

Where is the proper place for a pilot to enter the traffic pattern, and how would he accomplish this?

A

Enter at a 45° angle in the middle of the downwind leg at the appropriate traffic pattern altitude

192
Q

If an airport frequently uses LAHSO operation and has “Available Landing Distance” (ALD) data published, where could you find that information?

A

the chart supplement

193
Q
A
194
Q

When flying at night, what is the most effective way of using your eyes to scan for traffic?

A

Moving your eyes slowly to permit off center viewing

195
Q

What is the best scanning technique for spotting traffic at night?

A

Look to the side of the object you’re trying to view and scan slowly

196
Q

Which of these types of vision is best used at night for spotting other traffic?

A

peripheral vision

197
Q

When is pilot most likely to experience an increased risk or the somatogravic illusion?

A

during takeoff

198
Q

What do we call a state of confusion which is caused by misleading information that is sent to the brain by our sensory organs?

A

spacial disorientation

199
Q
A

Private Pilot (10 decks)

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