Everything Put Together First Quizzes

Question 1

What happens to the stall speed of an airplane when flaps are lowered? stall speed increases, stall speed remains the same, stall speed decreases, stall speed becomes unimportant

Answer 1

Stall speed decrease

Question 2

What happens to an airplane decent angle when flaps are lowered? The decent angle increases, the decent angle reverses, decent angle decreases, the decent angle stays the same.

Answer 2

Descent angle increases

Question 3

What is the most common reason to use flaps during an approach and landing? It increases the descent angle without increasing air speed, it decreases the drag allowing for a smoother touchdown, it allows the aircraft to touchdown at a higher air speed which allows a smoother touchdown, it decreases the air speed which allows a smoother touchdown

Answer 3

It increases the descent angle without increasing air speed

Question 4

What happens to an airplane vertical lift when an airplane banks into a turn? Vertical lift remains the same no matter what control inputs are made, vertical lift is increased because of inertia, vertical lift is not a real force, vertical lift is reduced if no other control inputs are used with the bank

Answer 4

Vertical lift is reduced if no other control input are used with the bank

Question 5

Which of these is most likely to increase the load factor on your airplane while flying? Turning the aircraft, climbing, stalling the aircraft, descending.

Answer 5

Turning the aircraft

Question 6

If an airplane weigh 1700 pounds banks up to 60°, how much weight would the wings of the airplane be supporting due to old factor? 2403.8 pounds, 2720 pounds, 3400 pounds, This is impossible to calculate with the current information.

Answer 6

3400 pounds

Question 7

Which V – speed indicate your aircraft maneuvering speed? VM, VSM, VMA, VA.

Answer 7

Va

Question 8

Which of the following air speeds are not typically indicated by color or marking on the airspeed indicator? Stall speed in the landing, configurations, stall speed in the takeoff configuration, never exceeded speed, maneuvering speed

Answer 8

Maneuvering speed

Question 9

How should you position the aircraft if your encounters of your turbulence? Fly in the yellow R and maintain a known hitting, follow your altitude, indicator carefully incorrect any altitude changes as quickly as possible, maintain a constant air speed and push down slow slowly, maintain a level flight attitude, and avoid chasing the instruments

Answer 9

Maintain a love of fly attitude and avoid chasing instruments

Question 10

If we need to clear an obstacle at the end of the runway, which air speed is typically the best choice for accomplishing that? VA, VY, VS one, VX.

Answer 10

VX

Question 11

When would torque affect have the most significant impact on a single engine airplane? During low speed, high power, and high angle of attack. During high air speed, low power, and high angle of attack. During high air speed, low power, and low angle attack. During low airspeed, low power, and low angle of attack.

Answer 11

During low airspeed, high power and high angle attack

Question 12

What causes the left turn in tenancy, which is a result of P factor? When the propeller rotates clockwise, the equal and opposite reaction towards the aircraft counterclockwise. Gyroscopic forces from the propeller rotating clockwise, acting 90° in front of the floor supplied. The descending propeller blade on the right produces more thrust than the ascending propeller blade on the left. Went from the propeller core around the aircraft fuselage

Answer 12

The descending propeller blade on the right produces more thrust than ascending propeller blade on the left

Question 13

What weather would require you to take extra precautions for weight turbulence during a landing behind a heavy aircraft? A heavy quartering headwind. A strong headwind straight down the run way. A strong tailwind straight down the runway. A light quartering tailwind

Answer 13

A light quarter tail wind

Question 14

When would an airplane have the strongest wing tip vortices? When it’s light and fast with flaps up. When it’s heavy and fast with flats up. When it’s heavy and slow with flaps down. When it’s heavy and slow with flaps up

Answer 14

When it’s heavy and slow with flaps up.

Question 15

What is a direct byproduct of the lift that an airplanes wings produce? Wing vortices, relative wind, spiraling slipstream

Answer 15

Wingtip vortices

Question 16

His class E airspace controller on controlled? Uncontrolled, controlled.

Answer 16

Controlled

Question 17

At what altitude does class a airspace start? 17,999 feet MSL. 17,999 feet AGL. 18,000 feet MSL. 18,000 feet AGL.

Answer 17

18,000 feet MSL

Question 18

Which airspace does not allow VFR operations? Class a. Class B. Class C. Restricted airspace.

Answer 18

Class a 18,000 feet

Question 19

According to the VFR sectional, at what altitude does the base of the class B airspace start directly above Fort Worth alliance Airport? 3000 feet MSL. 3100 feet MSL. 4000 feet agl. 4000 feet MSL

Answer 19

3000 feet MSL

Question 20

Why is the minimum equipment required to operate in class B airspace under VFR? A two-way radio and a transponder responding to 4096 integrations. A two way radio, a transponder respond into 4096 integrations, and automatic altitude, reporting equipment. A two-way radio, a transponder responding into 4096 integrations, automatic, altitude, reporting equipment, and a DSB out equipment. A two way radio, and transponder responding to 4096 integrations, automatic, altitude, reporting equipment, a DSV out equipment, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.

Answer 20

A two way radio, a transponder responding to 4096 integrations, automatic, altitude, reporting equipment, and adsb out equipment

Question 21

If a pilot achieve proper two-way communications with the ATC facility who owns the class B airspace, is this enough to enter into the class B airspace? Yes, two way cons is all you need. No, you must be cleared into the class B airspace. No, the FR pilots are not allowed into the airspace. Yes, as long as you have all the required equipment and you have proper two-way communication.

Answer 21

No, you must be cleared into the class B airspace 4000 feet MSL 3000 MSL

Question 22

According to the VFR sectional, at what altitude is the top of the class C airspace above Savannah International Airport? 4200 feet MSL. 4100 feet AGL. 4200 feet AGL. 4100 feet MSL

Answer 22

4100 feet MSL

Question 23

How far away from a class C airport should you plan on contacting ATC? 10 NM, 20 NM, 30 NM, 40 NM.

Answer 23

20 NM

Question 24

How tall is the class C airspace typically above the primary airport within that airspace

Answer 24

4000 feet agl

Question 25

What is the minimum equipment required to take off from Savannah international Airport under VFR? A two way radio and a transponder responding to 4096 integrations. A two way radio, a transponder responding to 4096 integrations, and automatic altitude reporting equipment. A two way radio a transponder responding to 4096 integrations, automatic, altitude, reporting equipment, and ADSB out equipment. None of these are required.

Answer 25

A two-way radio, a transponder respond into 4096 integrations, automatic, altitude, reporting equipment, and Adsb out equipment

Question 26

Who should a pilot contact in order to enter class C airspace? The sun controller responsible for the ARTCC area over line that airspace, the tower controller, responsible to the primary airport inside the class C airspace, the appropriate clearance delivery frequency for the primary airport within the classy airspace, the approach facility who owns the classy airspace above the airport.

Answer 26

The approach facility who owns a classy airspace above the airport

Question 27

What weather is required to operate under VFR in class C airspace? Five SM visibility, 1000 feet below clouts, 1000 feet above clouds one SM away from clouds. ThreeSM visibility, 1000 feet below clouds, 1000 feet above clouds one SM away from clouds. Three SM visibility, 500 feet below clouds, 1000 feet above clouds 2000 feet away from clouds. Five SM visibility, 500 feet, 1000 feet above clouds 2000 feet away from clouds.

Answer 27

3SM visibility, 500 feet below clouds, 1000 feet above clouds 2000 feet away from cloud

Question 28

According to figure 20 area two, which altitude does the class E airspace begin above fentress NALF? Class E doesn’t exist in this airspace. Class E begins at the surface. Class starts at 700 feet AGL. Class starts at 1200 feet AGL.

Answer 28

Class E airspace begins at the surface

Question 29

Why are the cloud clearances reduced for VFR pilots operating in class G airspace? Clouds and reduce visibility isn’t normally a problem below 1200 feet AGL. IFR pilots are not allowed to sign into class G airspace. IFR operations are not typically conducted in class G airspace. Clouds and reduce visibility makes separation easier between AFR and VFR traffic.

Answer 29

IFR operations are not typically conducted in class G airspace

Question 30

What is the minimum weather required to operate in class G airspace during the day at 1200 feet AGL and below? One SM visibility and maintain clear of clouds. Three SM visibility, 1000 people of clouds, 1000 feet above clouds one SM away from clouds. Three SM visibility, 500 feet of clouds, 1000 feet above clouds 2000 feet away from clouds. Five SM visibility, 500 feet of clouds, 1000 feet above clouds 2000 feet away from the clouds.

Answer 30

1sm visibility, maintain clear of clouds

Question 31

What is the minimum weather required to operate in class G airspace at night at 1200 feet AGL below? One SM visibility, maintain clear clouds. Three SM visibility, 1000 feet below clouds, 1000 feet above clouds one SM away from clouds. Three SM visibility, 500 people of clouds, 1000 feet above clouds 2000 feet away from clouds. Five SM visibility, 500 people of clouds, 1000 feet above clouds 2000 feet away from cloud

Answer 31

Three SM visibility, 500 feet below clouds, 1000 feet above clouds 2000 feet away from cloud

Question 32

Where is the best place to find information on regular schedule parachute jump operations? The charges up, the airplane flying handbook, the IFR supplement. Legend, he must monitor ATC because there is no place that these are published.

Answer 32

The chart supplement

Question 33

When would a pilot be allowed to fly within 60 nautical miles of the Washington DC VOR under visual flight rules? Never, only after completing the special awareness training and must open a flight plan prior to flight, the pilot must complete the special awareness training and must remain clear of the SFRA,the pilot must receive approval from the secretary of defense

Answer 33

The pilot must complete the special awareness training in a must remain clear of the SFRA

Question 34

What should a pilot remember when flying over a NOAA marine area? Pilots are required to fly no lower than 2000 feet AGL. Pilots are requested to fly no lower than 2000 feet AGL. Pilots are required to fly no lower than 1000 feet AGL. Pilots are requested to fly no lower than 1000 feet AGL

Answer 34

Pilots are required to fly no lower than 2000 feet agl

Question 35

What should a pilot remember when flying over a national wildlife refuge? Pilots are required to fly no lower than 2000 feet AGL. Pilots are requested to fly no lower than 2000 feet AGL. Pilots are required to fly no lower than 1000 feet AGL. Pilots are requested to fly no lower than 1000 feet AGL.

Answer 35

Pilots are requested to fly no lower than 2000 feet Agl

Question 36

What are the dangers associated with flying in the devil’s Lake East Moa in area two? High volume of military flight training or a large amount of unusual aerial operations. Unusual and sometimes invisible, hazard activities. These could include guided missile operations, artillery, firing operations, and aerial gunnery. Operations within these areas is top-secret so the dangers are unknown. Military training operations, including extensive aerobatic, maneuvers and high G maneuvering

Answer 36

Military training operations, including extensive aerobatic, maneuvers and high G maneuvering

Question 37

Yes, or no, it is legal to operate under VFR without permission in a MOA

Answer 37

Yes

Question 38

There is a segment of airspace labeled R – 5302B. What kind of hazards or activities could you see if you operate in one of these restricted areas when it was in use? Operations within these areas of top secret. Unusual and sometimes visible hazardous activities, these could include guided missile operations, artillery, fire operations, and Ariel gunnery. High volume of military flight training or a large amount of unusual aerial operations. Military training operations include extensive aerobatic, maneuvers, and high g maneuvering

Answer 38

Military training operations include extensive aerobatic, maneuvers, and high g maneuvering

Question 39

What does a small round on a runway symbol represent the approximate location of a VOR or other NAVAID. The approximate location of the center of the airfield. The approximate location of the tower. The Hella helicopters.

Answer 39

The approximate location of a VOR or other NAVAID

Question 40

What is the purpose of the magenta flag over fisherman Island on the VFR sectional and figure 20? It is a mandatory reporting point if you are flying in that area. This is a VFR checkpoint to help Norfolk approach find aircraft on radar more easily. There is an obstacle with an unknown height in that area. It is a point that you should not fly over because of high populations on the ground.

Answer 40

This is a VIR checkpoint to help Norfolk approach find aircraft on radar more easily

Question 41

What would be safe to assume of the yellow area on the VFR sectional to the south east of Savannah International Airport? The terrain is very high in this area. This is a populated area. There is no rate coverage in this area. This area is not safe for flight.

Answer 41

This is a populated area

Question 42

What frequency should we use if you want to use the VOR near Allendale County Airport? 116.7, 122.1, 118.950, 122.8.

Answer 42

116.7

Question 43

What turns the Gyro to keep the heading indicator accurate and most training aircraft with an analog heading indicator? The vacuum system, the oil, pressure system, an electric motor, air pressure from the pitot tube

Answer 43

The vacuum system

Question 44

Is the hat indicator required for VFR flight yes or no

Answer 44

No

Question 45

Is the attitude indicator required for VFR flight yes or no

Answer 45

No

Question 46

Which part of the attitude indicator gives the best indication for which direction the plane is burned? You must use the turning coordinator for this. You can know by looking at the direction of deflection on the banking scale (A). You can know by looking at at the deflection of the horizon bar (B). You can know by looking at how the mini airplane (c) is oriented in relation to the horizon bar (b)

Answer 46

You can know by looking at how the miniature airplane is oriented in relation to the rising bar

Question 47

What turns the guy wrote to keep the attitude indicator accurate and most training aircraft with an analog attitude indicator? The vacuum system. The oil pressure system. Electric motor. Air pressure from the pitot tube.

Answer 47

The vacuum system

Question 48

What are the purpose of turn and slip indicators and turn coordinators? They are only used for instrument flight. They give the pilot an indication of aircraft movement about the role and yaw axis. They give the pilot a secondary attitude indication in case the attitude indicator fails. They allow the pilot to see when the air aircraft is exactly 30°.

Answer 48

They give the pilot indication of aircraft movement about the role in your axis

Question 49

What typically turns the Gyro to keep the turn coordinator actor at most training aircraft with analog gauges? The vacuum system. The oil pressure system. Electric motor. Air pressure from the PITOT tube.

Answer 49

An electric motor

Question 50

Is a turning slip indicator or turn coordinator required for VFR flight? Yes or no

Answer 50

No

Question 51

How long would it take me to make a 360° turn if the turn was made with the miniature airplane wing place on the lower hashmark? One minute. Two minutes. Three minutes. Four minutes.

Answer 51

Two minutes

Question 52

Which instruments receive RAM air from the PITOT tube? The attitude indicator. The airspeed indicator. The vertical speed indicator. They altimeter

Answer 52

The air speed indicator

Question 53

If both the static port and the PITOT tube become clogged which instruments will be affected? They speed indicator only. The airspeed indicator and the altimeter only. The airspeed indicator, the altimeter, and the attitude indicator. The speed indicator, the vertical speed indicator, and the altimeter

Answer 53

Tire, speed indicator, the vertical speed indicator, and the altimeter

Question 54

What could you do if you suspected that the static port was clogged and he didn’t have an alternate static system? Open the windows. Turn on the heat. Break the glass on the VSI. Break the glass on the attitude indicator.

Answer 54

Break the glass on the VSI

Question 55

If the PITOT tube becomes clogged, but the static port is clear, and you begin a climb, what will happen to your indicated air speed decrease. Increase. Remain on change. Remain accurate.

Answer 55

Increase

Question 56

If only the static part becomes clogged, which instruments will be affected? Their speed indicator only their speed indicator, and the vertical speed indicator, the altimeter. The speed indicator, the altimeter only. The altimeter only.

Answer 56

The airspeed indicator, and the vertical speed indicator, the altimeter

Question 57

What would an altimeter give you if you set the kollsman window to match the current pressure setting at an airfield? True altitude at the field elevation. Pressure altitude at the field elevation. I’ll absolute altitude at the field elevation. Density altitude at the field elevation

Answer 57

True altitude at the field elevation

Question 58

What is standard temperature? 24°C 75°F. 75°C 24°F. 59°C, 50°F. 15°C, 59°F.

Answer 58

15°C, 59°F

Question 59

What would the magnetic compass indicate if the airplane accelerated on the north or southbound heading? The compass would indicate a turn to the south. The compass would indicate correctly. The compass would move ahead of the actual heading. The compass would lag behind the actual head.

Answer 59

The compass would indicate correctly

Question 60

What would happen to the magnetic compass of the left turn is made from a north heading in the northern hemisphere? The compass indication would freeze initially then indicate accurately the compass would indicate in the correct direction but I heard of the actual movement. The compass head would indicate correctly. The compass head would initially indicate turn the opposite direction.

Answer 60

The compass would initially indicate a turn in the opposite direction

Question 61

What causes the magnetic compass to have deviations? Pressure differences in the outside air pressure and the fluid inside the compass itself. The difference in location between true north and magnetic north. Movement of the compass rose along the vertical access. Magnetic fields that are created by the aircraft avionics and other aircraft parts.

Answer 61

Magnetic fields that are created by the aircraft avionics and other aircraft parts

Question 62

What does it mean if an airplane is set to have a glass cockpit? The airplane primarily has digital instruments with some analog instruments. The airplane has an advanced GPS with a movie map display. The airplane only has digital instruments. The canopy of the aircraft is clear not to see the entire horizon.

Answer 62

The airplane primarily has digital instruments with some analog instruments

Question 63

What is one of the biggest advantages with the digital attitude indicator or ADI? It is more accurate than a digital system. The horizon line extends to the edges of the PFD. It can continue to run if the aircraft loses electrical power. There are no advantages

Answer 63

The horizon line extends to the edges of the PFD

Question 64

What device is used by digital flight instrument to collect data from the PITOT static and temperature sensors and give the information to the pilot and digital display? Pitot tube. The flight computer. The flight management system. The air data computer.

Answer 64

The air data computer

Question 65

How often should a digital heading indicator be slave to match the magnetic compass? Before flight and approximately every 15 minutes. When it is more than 5° on the head of the night compass. When it is more than 10° from the heading on the magnetic compass. It doesn’t need to be adjusted.

Answer 65

It doesn’t need to be adjusted

Question 66

My transponder coach should we use when flying under VFR? 1200 or an assigned code from ATC. 7700 or an assigned code from ATC. 7600 or assign code from ATC. 7500 or assign code from ATC.

Answer 66

1200 or assigned code from ATC

Question 67

Why do you need to tell ATC your location and altitude when you initially call them? Because they need to ensure that you’re not lost. Because it was mandatory. Because they are trying to find you on radar. Because they are making sure you know where you are before they let you in airspace.

Answer 67

Because they are trying to find you on radar

Question 68

When should a pilot Hotel to their exact location when they are holding short and ready for takeoff? When they will be taking off from a runway intersection. When they are parallel runways at the airfield. When the visibility is less than 3SM. When the tower is blocked by an obstruction.

Answer 68

When they will be taking off from a runway intersection

Question 69

What is the proper way to initiate a radio call if you’re flying into Chesapeake regional airport from the south? Contact Norfolk approach on 118.9 within 20 NM of KCPK. Transmit position, altitude, and intention over the CTAF frequency on 123.075 once within 10 miles of the airfield. You should not make a radio call at an unpowered airfield. Transmit position, altitude, and attention over the CTAF frequency on 123.675 ones within 10 miles of the air.

Answer 69

Transmit position, altitude, and intentions over the CTA frequency on 123.075 once with 10 miles of the airfield

Question 70

What is broadcasted on an automated terminal information service when the service is an operation? Current weather, another non-control information and the selected high activity terminal area. The menu at the local FBO. Nonessential information which would otherwise clog the radios. Traffic advisories and information concerning the local area.

Answer 70

Current weather and other non-control information in the selected high activity terminal area