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Everything Flashcards

1
Q

Erythrocytes function

A

Pick up inhaled O2 and transport to body’s tissues, pick up some CO2 at tissues and transport to lungs for exhalation.

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2
Q

Leukocyte function

A

Protect the body against invading microorganisms and body cells. Leave bloodstream

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3
Q

Types of leukocytes

A

Monocyte, lymphocyte, neutrophils

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4
Q

Neutrophil’s appearance and function

A

Appearance: many forms of nuclei. Contain granules
Function: phagocytosis - ingests bacteria

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5
Q

What are the two types of lymphocytes and their functions

A

B-lymphocyte: when stimulated by viruses and bacteria, they are transformed to plasma cells. Antibodies created from plasma cells
T-lymphocyte: each type has specific function e.g. natural killer cell’s which recognise + destroy foreign material

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6
Q

Macrophages

A

Monocytes that have transverse the wall of capillaries and enter connective tissue: becoming phagocytise macrophages.
Surrounds and kills microorganisms
Removes dead cells
Stimulate action of other leukocytes to site of infection

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7
Q

Function of platelets

A

Homeostasis (1/3 to spleen)
Secrete growth factors for tissue repair and growth

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8
Q

Flow of blood

A

Deoxygenated blood returns through superior and inferior vena cava into right atrium, which is then pumped into right ventricle through tricuspid valve. RV pumps deoxygenated blood into pulmonary trunk through pulmonary semilunar valve, branch into left and right pulmonary arteries which branch into pulmonary capillaries leading to gas exchange (O2 enter; CO2 exits).
Pulmonary veins (usually 4) carries blood back into left atrium, which pumps into left ventricle through bicuspid valve and then up the aortic semilunar valve through aorta

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9
Q

Where does superior vena cava drain from

A

Superior to thoracic diaphragm: head, neck, upper limbs and thoracic region

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10
Q

Where does the inferior vena cava drain from

A

Inferior to thoracic diaphragm: lower limbs and abdominopelvic region

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11
Q

Membrane of heart is called ________

A

Pericardium/pericardial sac

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12
Q

Strands of connective tissue in heart (valves)

A

Trabeculae carneaea -> papillary muscle -> chordate tendineae

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13
Q

What artery supplied blood to heart

A

Coronary arteries

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14
Q

Brachiocephalic trunk located only on the ______ side branches into______

A

Right
Right subclavian artery, right common carotid artery

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15
Q

Subclavian artery supplies blood to _______

A

Upper limb, thorax, shoulders, back and CNS

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16
Q

Vertebral artery is a branch of ________ and supplies blood to ___________

A

The subclavian artery
Brain and spinal cord, passing through vertebral for amen in cervical vertebrae and for amen magnum

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17
Q

The external carotid artery supplies blood to _________

A

Structures in the face, lower jaw, neck, oesophagus and larynx

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18
Q

The internal carotid artery forms and expansion called the _______ which has ________ for cardiovascular homeostasis

A

Carotid sinus
Bioreceptors and chemoreceptors

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19
Q

Abdominal aorta gives rise to a single _______

A

A coeliac trunk, superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery

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20
Q

The coeliac trunk divides into ________, each of these supply to __________

A

Left gastric artery; stomach and oesophagus
Splenic artery; spleen
Common hepatic artery; liver

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21
Q

Superior mesenteric artery branches and supplies blood to ________

A

The small intestine, pancreas and majority of large intestine

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22
Q

Inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to ________

A

Distal segment of large intestine

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23
Q

Abdominal aorta gives rise to paired _______ (2) and supply to ________

A

Renal arteries; kidney
Gonadal artery; ovarian (ovary, uterine tube and uterus) / testicular (testes)

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24
Q

Each common iliac artery provide blood to _______ and split into_________

A

Pelvic region/lower limbs
External and internal iliac arteries

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25
Q

Internal iliac artery sends branches into_________

A

Urinary bladder, walls of pelvis, external genitalia and medial portion of femoral region

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26
Q

External iliac artery supplies blood to_________

A

Each lower limb

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27
Q

The superior vena cava drains ________

A

Most of body superior to thoracic diaphragm: thoracic wall, head, neck and upper limbs

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28
Q

_________ forms a confluence with ________to form the brachiocephalic vein

A

Subclavian and internal jugular vein

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29
Q

Right and left brachiocephalic veins confluence to form _________

A

Superior vena cava

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30
Q

Remaining blood from thorax drains into _________

A

Azygous vein

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31
Q

The superior sagittal sinus carries venous blood though jugular foramen into the _________

A

Internal jugular vein

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32
Q

Most common site for drawing venous blood

A

Median cubical vein

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33
Q

What are vena comitantes

A

Organisation of veins in distal parts of limbs where paired veins lie on either side of an artery

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34
Q

Hepatic portal vein receives blood from________ veins and drains into _________

A

Superior and inferior mesenteric vein, splenic vein
Liver

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35
Q

Hepatic portal vein is usually formed from the confluence of ________ and _________

A

Splenic and superior mesenteric veins

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36
Q

Example of simple squamous epithelium

A

Air sacs of lungs
Lining of heart, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels

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37
Q

Example of simple cuboidal epithelium

A

Lining of kidney tubules + ducts of glands

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38
Q

Example of simple columnar epithelium (ciliated + smooth)

A

Ciliated: bronchi, uterine tubes, uterus
Smooth: digestive tract, bladder

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39
Q

Example of simple ciliated columnar epithelium

A

Lining of Fallopian tubes, uterine tubes, uterus
Parts of respiratory system

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40
Q

Example of simple non-ciliated columnar epithelium

A

Digestive tract + bladder

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41
Q

Example of pseudo-stratified ciliated columnar epithelium

A

Trachea and upper respiratory tract

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42
Q

Example of stratified squamous epithelium

A

Oesophagus, mouth, vagina

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43
Q

Example of stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

Sweat glands, salivary glands, mammary glands

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44
Q

Example of stratified columnar epithelium

A

Male urethra + ducts of some glands

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45
Q

Example of transitional epithelium

A

Bladder, urethra, ureters

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46
Q

Secretions of endocrine glands are called ________

A

Hormones

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47
Q

Exocrine gland secretions examples

A

Sweat, mucous, saliva, breast milk

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48
Q

Function of dense connective tissue

A

Tensile strength, elasticity and protection

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49
Q

Function of supportive connective tissue

A

Structure and strength and protects soft tissues

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50
Q

Fibroblast function

A

Secretes protein fibres into matrix (extra cellular space)

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51
Q

Function of adipocyte

A

Lipid storage cells

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52
Q

Resident connective tissue cell examples

A

Adipocytes, fibroblasts

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53
Q

Migratory connective tissue cell example

A

Macrophage, leukocyte

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54
Q

The 3 types of connective tissue fibres

A

Collagenous fibres, reticular fibres, elastic fibres

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55
Q

Collagenous fibres function

A

Strong, flexible, resistant to stretching

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56
Q

Reticular fibres definition and examples

A

Branch to form a net-like supporting framework. Fine network around small blood vessels, muscle fibres, nerve fibres and adipocytes.

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57
Q

Areolar connective tissue location

A

Superficial fascia, around nerves and blood vessels + connects other primary tissues, organ components and organs together

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58
Q

Two types of dense connective tissue

A

Dense regular connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue

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59
Q

Where is dense regular connective tissue located and they enhance________

A

Tendons and aponeuroses
Tensile strength and resistance to stretching by having fibres parallel to each other

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60
Q

Location and function of dense irregular connective tissue

A

Dermis of skin, fibrous capsules of some organs, periosteum, endosteum
Greater strength in all directions and less strength in one particular direction

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61
Q

Types of cartilaginous tissues (3)

A

Hyaline cartilaginous tissue, elastic cartilaginous tissue, fibrocartilage

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62
Q

Hyaline cartilage function

A

Provides flexible support in respiratory tract and resiliency in articular surfaces of synovial joints.
Longitudinal growth of bones.

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63
Q

Elastic cartilaginous tissue function

A

Provide flexible support

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64
Q

Fibrocartilage function and location

A

Located in intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, intra-articular discs, articular surfaces of some synovial joints
Some tendons and ligaments at point of attachment to bone.

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65
Q

Bone tissue function

A

Rigidity and slight flexibility of bones, maintenance of calcium stores in the body
Primary location of blood cell production (haemopoiesis)

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66
Q

Types of bone tissue and their differences

A

Cortical: dense, low-porosity, less metabolically active tissue
Trabecular: honey-comb like network, higher turnover rate

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67
Q

Bone cell types and their functions

A

Osteoblast: deposit bone
Osteocyte: maintain bone
Osteoclast: break down bone

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68
Q

Central canal of cortical bone tissue function

A

Passageway through centre of osteopathic carrying blood vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels

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69
Q

Perforating canal of cortical bone tissue function

A

Passageway connecting adjacent central canals, allows blood vessels, nerve, lymphatic vessels to travel deeper

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70
Q

Lacunae of cortical bone tissue function

A

Spaces that house the cell processes of osteocytes, allowing communication

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71
Q

Canaliculi of cortical bone tissue function

A

Small canals housing osteocytes, allowing communication

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72
Q

What connective tissue is the periosteum and endosteum of cortical bone tissue made from

A

Irregular connective tissue

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73
Q

Examples of hyaline cartilage

A

Articular cartilage, tracheal cartilaginous rings, most laryngeal cartilages, epiphyseal growth plate, costal cartilage

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74
Q

Examples of elastic cartilage

A

Auricle of ear, auditory tube, epiglottis of larynx

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75
Q

Bone marrow location

A

Spaces in spongy bone tissue

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76
Q

Lymphoid nodules function

A

Filtration and immune defence

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77
Q

What trunks drain into right lymphatic duct

A

Right jugular trunk, right subclavian trunk (duct may be absent, then lymph drains into venous system directly)

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78
Q

What trunks drain into thoracic duct

A

Left jugular trunk, left subclavian trunk

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79
Q

What trunk drains into cisterna chyli

A

Lumbar trunks

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80
Q

Where does cisterna chyli drain into

A

Thoracic duct

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81
Q

Where does lymph from right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct drain into

A

Junction of Internal jugular and subclavian veins (paired veins for each side). Which then drains into superior vena cava

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82
Q

Afferent vs efferent lymph nodes

A

Afferent: brings unfiltered fluids from body into lymph node where it is filtered
Efferent: carries clean fluid away and back to venous system

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83
Q

Paranasal sinus function

A

Lined w epithelium to help humidify and warm air
Makes skull lighter and provides voice resonance

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84
Q

3 parts of pharynx:

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

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85
Q

Largyngeal cartilages (3)

A

Thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, epiglottic cartilage

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86
Q

Purpose of motile cilia in mucosa of trachea and primary bronchi

A

Pseudo stratified ciliated columnar epithelium containing goblet cells, moves mucous-trapped particles out of respiratory tract

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87
Q

Primary lymphoid organs (2)

A

Bone marrow and thymus

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88
Q

Secondary lymphoid organs

A

Lymph nodes, lymphoid nodules and spleen

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89
Q

All red bone marrow is produced in the _________, B-lymphocytes mature in __________, T-lymphocytes mature in ____________

A

Red bone marrow
Bone marrow
Thymus

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90
Q

Appearance of lumbar vertebrae

A

large and thick vertebrae body
short transverse process
short, rectangular spinous process projects posteriorly
articular process are large w superior process facing medially + inferior laterally

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91
Q

Appearance of cervical vertebrae

A

small body, bifid spinous process
transverse process sharply curved (opening - transverse foramen)
atlas: anterior/posterior arch
axis: dens

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92
Q

Appearance of thoracic vertebrae

A

bodies larger, long and pronounced inferiorly sloped angle; overlaps with next inferior vertebrae
superior articular process faces anteriorly, inf. articular process faces posteriorly in coronal plane
costal facet where rib attaches

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93
Q

How is the pectoral girdle formed

A

a clavicle and its adjoining scapula (only connection between appendicular and axial skeleton

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94
Q

function of long bone and examples

A

leverage; tibia, fibula, femur

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95
Q

function of short bone and examples

A

stability support, allows some motion
scaphoid, lunate, pisiform, capitate

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96
Q

function of flat bones and examples

A

points for attachment for muscles, protects internal organs
occipital, parietal, frontal, sternum

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97
Q

function of irregular bones and examples

A

protects internal organs
vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx, sphenoid

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98
Q

function of sesamoid bones and examples

A

protects tendons from wear and tear, increase lever of muscle action
patella

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99
Q

what cartilage is the epiphyseal plate made of and its function

A

hyaline cartilage in a long bone where bone undergoes longitudinal growth

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100
Q

auditory ossicles (3)

A

malleus, incus, stapes

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101
Q

what does the condylar process of the mandible articulate with to form the temporomandibular joint

A

temporal bone

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102
Q

joints/sutures of the skull

A

coronal suture and sagittal suture

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103
Q

function of hyoid bone

A

stabilisation of the tongue during swallowing and speech production
site for muscle attachment in neck

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104
Q

vertebral column (regions and no. of vertebrae)

A

7 cervical vertebrae
12 thoracic vertebrae
5 lumbar vertebrae

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105
Q

describe true ribs, false ribs, and floating ribs

A

true ribs: superior 7 ribs articulate by their costal cartilage directly with sternum
false ribs: inferior 5 pairs
floating ribs: pairs 11 and 12 which don’t connect with sternum at all

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106
Q

primary curvature of vertebral column

A

concave ant., present at birth: thoracic and sacrococcygeal curvature

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107
Q

secondary curvature of vertebral column

A

convex anteriorly, develops postnatally: cervical and lumbar curvature

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108
Q

what feature is unique to the cervical vertebrae

A

transverse foramina: transmits the right and left vertebral arteries in C1 to C6

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109
Q

unique features of the atlas (C1)

A

absence of spinous process and body. Contains anterior arch and post. arch

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110
Q

unique features of the axis (C2)

A

body presents 2 larger sup. articular facets for the atlas
dens extends sup. from body
post. directed pedicles
short transverse process
bifid spinous process

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111
Q

the adult sacrum is fused with __________. It articulates with ______________

A

five fused sacral vertebrae
fifth lumbar vertebrae, the coccyx and two hip bones.

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112
Q

the sacrum’s auricular surface articulates with the ilium of the os coxa to form ___________

A

sacroiliac joint

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113
Q

how many pairs of ventral sacral foramina and what passes through

A

four pairs, spinal nerve roots

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114
Q

how is the coccyx formed

A

4 coccygeal vertebrae often fused together

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115
Q

the sternal end of the clavicle articulates with _____________

A

the sternum

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116
Q

the acromial end of the clavicle articulate with _______________

A

the acromion process of the scapula

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117
Q

glenoid fossa articulates with _______________

A

the head of the humerus

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118
Q

what type of cartilage is the proximal head of the humerus made from

A

hyaline articular cartilage

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119
Q

function of the intertubercular sulcus/bicipital groove of proximal humerus

A

elongated groove between the greater and lesser tubercles; passageway for the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii muscle

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120
Q

function of deltoid tuberosity

A

insertion site for the deltoid muscle

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121
Q

what does the capitulum of the humerus articulate with

A

the head of radius

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122
Q

what does the trochlea of the humerus articulate with

A

trochlea notch of the ulna

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123
Q

function of radial tuberosity

A

biceps brachii muscle insertion

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124
Q

function of ischial tuberosity

A

hamstrings muscle attachment

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125
Q

ischial ramus fuses with the inferior ramus of the pubis to form the _______________

A

ischiopubic ramus

126
Q

the symphyseal surface of the pubis of hip bone is the site of articulation of _________________

A

contralateral hip bone to form the pubic symphysis

127
Q

the inferior pubic ramus unites with ___________

A

the ramus of the ischium

128
Q

what does the acetabulum articulate with to form what joint

A

head of femur
hip joint

129
Q

the head of femur is covered by what type of cartilage

A

articular hyaline cartilage

130
Q

what do the medial and lateral condyles of the femur articulate with

A

the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia

131
Q

what does the patella articulate with

A

the patellar surface of the femur

132
Q

site of attachments for the cruciate ligaments

A

anterior and post. intercondylar fossae, and intercondylar notch

133
Q

the tibial tuberosity is the site of insertion of the __________

A

quadriceps femoris tendon

134
Q

the sup. and med. surfaces of the talus articulates with _________. The lateral surface articulates with ____________

A

the tibia
the fibula

135
Q

Fibrous joints contain what type of tissue between ends of adjoining bones

A

dense connective tissue

136
Q

cartilaginous joints contain what type of tissue

A

hyaline cartilaginous tissue/fibrocartilage

137
Q

synovial joints are the ends of adjoining bones that are covered by __________ cartilage and ___________ fluid fills the intervening cavity

A

articular
synovial

138
Q

functional classification of joints: (3)

A

synarthrosis: immobile
amphiarthroses: limited mobility
diarthroses: freely mobile joint

139
Q

types of fibrous joints (3) and their functional classification

A

sutures (synarthrosis)
syndesmoses (amphiarthroses)
gomphoses (synarthroses)

140
Q

types of cartilaginous joints (2) and their functional classification

A

synchondrosis (growing epiphyseal plate, costochondral joints) - synarthrosis
symphysis (pubic symphysis, anterior intervertebral joints) - amphiarthrosis

141
Q

the bursa is a thin connective tissue sac filled with ____________

A

synovial fluid

142
Q

example of intracapsular ligament

A

ant. and post. cruciate ligament

143
Q

example of extracapsular ligament

A

patellar ligament

144
Q

types of synovial joints (6), examples and mobility degree

A

plane: posterior intervertebral joints, intercarpal joints (uniaxial)
hinge: elbow joint, interphalangeal joints of fingers and toes (uniaxial)
pivot: median atlantoaxial joint, proximal radioulnar joint (uniaxial)
condyloid: metacarpophalangeal joints, radiocarpal joint (biaxial)
saddle: carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, sternoclavicular joint (biaxial)
ball and socket: glenohumeral joint, hip joint (multiaxial)

145
Q

how is the sternoclavicular joint formed

A

medial end of the clavicle, the manubrium of the sternum and costal cartilage of the first rib

146
Q

how is the acromioclavicular joint formed

A

lateral end of the clavicle and the acromion of the scapula

147
Q

how is the glenohumeral joint formed

A

glenoid fossa of the scapula and head of humerus (supported by many extracapsular ligaments and glenoid labrum)

148
Q

how is the elbow joint formed

A

articulation between the distal humerus and proximal ends of the radius and the ulna

149
Q

how is the proximal radioulnar joint formed

A

between head of radius and radial notch of ulna

150
Q

how is the middle radioulnar joint formed

A

interosseous membrane bridging the gap between the midshafts of the ulna and radius

151
Q

how is the radiocarpal joint formed

A

distal end of radius, an articular disc and proximal row of carpal bones

152
Q

how is the intercarpal joint formed

A

multiple articulations between adjacent carpal bones

153
Q

how is the first carpometacarpal (of thumb) joint formed

A

articular surface of the trapezium and articular surface of the base of the first metacarpal bone

154
Q

how is the second to fifth carpometacarpal joint formed

A

distal row of carpal bones and bases of metacarpal bones 2-5

155
Q

how is the metacarpophalangeal (knuckles) joint formed

A

between heads of metacarpals and bases of the proximal phalanges

156
Q

how is the interphalangeal joint formed

A

between proximal and distal phalanges of the pollux/hallux, between the proximal and middle phalanges of fingers/toes 2-5, and between the middle and distal phalanges of fingers/toes 2-5

157
Q

how is the pubic symphysis joint formed

A

between the pubic parts of the two os coxa

158
Q

how is the hip joint formed

A

head of femur and acetabulum of the os coxa. Supported by fibrocartilage acetabulum labrum and extracapsular ligaments (iliofemoral, ischiofemoral, pubofemoral)

159
Q

how is the knee joint formed

A

articulation of the patella, femur and tibia.

160
Q

how is the talocrural (ankle) joint formed

A

between talus and distal ends of tibia and fibula

161
Q

the intracapsular structures and extracapsular ligaments that support the knee joint

A

intracapsular structures: medial and lateral menisci, ant. and post. cruciate ligaments
extracapsular ligaments: med. tibial and lateral fibular collateral ligaments, patellar ligament

162
Q

how is the costocondral joint formed

A

between each costal cartilage and its adjacent rib

163
Q

how is the manubriosternal joint formed

A

between manubrium and body of sternum

164
Q

how is the anterior intervertebral joint formed

A

intervertebral discs and opposing surfaces of the vertebral bodies

165
Q

how is the post. intervertebral joint formed

A

ipsilateral sup. and inf. articular facets of adjacent vertebrae

166
Q

how is the median atlantoaxial joint formed

A

dens of the axis and anterior arch of the atlas

167
Q

What is an intervertebral disc and its two parts (+ description)

A

Fibrocartilaginous pad that fills the gap between adjacent vertebral bodies. Helps is weight bearing. Two parts:
Annulus fibrosus: tough, fibrous external layer of disc
Nucleus pulposus: gel-like substance

168
Q

How is the proximal tibiofibular joint formed

A

Head of fibula articulates with inferior aspect of the lateral tibial condyle

169
Q

How is the femeropatellar joint formed

A

Between patella and distal femur

170
Q

How is the medial tibiofemoral joint and lateral tibiofemoral joint formed

A

Between medial and lateral condyles of femur and the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia

171
Q

What are the 3 articulations of the knee joint

A

Femeropatellar joint
Medial tibiofemoral joint
Lateral tibiofemoral joint

172
Q

Joints and their actions (6)

A

Pivot: rotational
Hinge: flexion/extension
Condyloid: circumduction
Saddle: flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, circumduction
Plane: inversion/eversion, flexion/extension, lateral flexion (vertebral column)
Ball-and-socket: flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, circumduction, medial/lateral rotation

173
Q

Skeletal muscle tissue function and location

A

Voluntary movement, produces heat, protects organs
Attached to bones and around entrance points to body (mouth, anus)

174
Q

Cardiac muscle tissue function and location

A

Involuntary movement - contracts to pump blood
Heart

175
Q

Smooth muscle tissue function and location

A

Involuntary movement, moves food, control of respirations, blood flow in arteries
Walls of major organs and passageways

176
Q

Origin and insertion for facial expression muscles

A

Origin: surface of skull
Insertion: dermis of skin

177
Q

Insertion site of latissimus dorsi

A

Thick connective tissue sheath (aponeurosis)

178
Q

Action of erector spinae

A

Primary extensor of vertebral column: flexion, lateral flexion, rotation of vertebral column

179
Q

3 openings in thoracic diaphragm

A

Caval foramen: passageway for inf. vena cava
Oesophageal hiatus: passageway for oesophagus and vagus nerves
Aortic hiatus: passageway for descending aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein

180
Q

Origin of subscapularis

A

Ant. scapula

181
Q

Origin of biceps brachii

A

Long head attaches to glenoid fossa of scapula
Short head attaches to coracoid process of scapula

182
Q

Attachment sites of the triceps brachii

A

Long head attaches to the inferior glenoid fossa of the scapula
Medial and lateral heads attach to shaft of humerus

183
Q

Biceps brachii and brachioradialis attaches to the _________ of the humerus

A

Medial epicondyle

184
Q

Where does the pronator teres insert to and what action does it contribute to

A

Radius
Pronation of radioulnar joints

185
Q

Where does the flexor carpi ulnaris insert to

A

Medially on carpus

186
Q

Where does the flexor digitorum superficialis attach to and what action does it contribute to

A

Forms 4 slips that attach to the phalanges of digits 2-5
Flexes radiocarpal + digits at metacarpal + interphalangeal joints (rapid finger movements)

187
Q

Where does the flexor digitorum profundus attach to

A

Forms 4 slips that attach to the phalanges digits 2-5

188
Q

What muscles contribute to the rotator cuff

A

Subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor

189
Q

Where does the flexor pollicis longus attach to

A

Phalanges of the pollocis (thumb)

190
Q

Where is the origin of the extensor digitorum and extensor digiti minimi

A

Lateral epicondyle of humerus

191
Q

Flexors of the elbow and radiocarpal joints

A

Pronator teres, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum longus

192
Q

Extensors of the elbow and radiocarpal joints

A

Extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi, brachioradialis

193
Q

Muscles of quadriceps femoris (extensors of the knee and flexors of the hip)

A

Rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius

194
Q

Hamstring muscles and their attachment sites and insertion (flexors of knee and extensors of the hip)

A

All attach proximally to the ischial tuberosity of os coxa
Biceps femoris: long head attaches to ^, short head attaches to femur, both insert onto proximal fibula
Semitendinosus: attaches to medial surface of proximal tibia
Semimembranosus: attaches to medial surface of proximal tibia

195
Q

Largest adductors of the hip

A

Adductor magnus and adductor longus

196
Q

The sartorius extends from the _________ to medial side of the ____________

A

Anterior superior iliac spine
Proximal tibia

197
Q

Example of muscle in the anterior compartment of the crus and its action

A

Tibialis anterior
Dorsiflexor of talocrural joint and invertor of subtalar joint

198
Q

Muscles of the posterior compartment of the crus (insertion site)

A

Triceps surae: medial and lateral gastrocnemius and soleus. Inserts posterior surface of the calcaneus

199
Q

Muscle of lateral compartment of the crus and its action

A

Fibularis longus: plantar flexion and eversion of the subtalar joint

200
Q

Intrinsic muscle of the foot, located in the medial side of the foot, attaches to the hallux

A

Abductor hallucis

201
Q

Origin, insertion and action of sternocleidomastoid

A

Origin: manubrium of sternum + medial end of clavicle
Insertion: mastoid process of temporal bone
Action: flexion neck, rotation median atlanto-axial joint

202
Q

Action of trapezius

A

Extension of neck and back

203
Q

Action of latissmus dorsi

A

Extension, adduction, medial rotation of glenohumeral joint

204
Q

Action of thoracic diaphragm

A

Increase size of pleural cavities when inhaling

205
Q

Action of pectoralis major

A

Flexion, adduction, medial rotation of glenohumeral joint

206
Q

Action of rectus abdominis

A

Flexion of vertebral column

207
Q

Action of internal and external obliquus abdominis

A

Flexion (bilateral), rotation + lateral flexion (uni) of vertebral column

208
Q

Action of transverse abdominis

A

Flexion (bilateral), lateral flexion (uni) of vertebral column

209
Q

Origin and insertion site and action of biceps brachii

A

Origin: short head coracoid process of scapula. Long head superior of glenoid fossa of scapula
Insertion: radial tuberosity
action: flexion of elbow joint and supination of proximal radioulnar joint

210
Q

Insertion site and action of deltoid

A

Insertion: deltoid tuberosity
Action: flexion, medial and lateral rotation and abduction of glenohumeral joint

211
Q

Insertion site and action of triceps brachii

A

Insertion: olecranon of ulna
Action: extension of elbow

212
Q

Action of brachialis

A

Flexion of elbow

213
Q

Origin site and action of pronator teres

A

Origin: medial epicondyle of humerus
Action: pronation of radioulnar joint

214
Q

Origin site and action of flexor carpi ulnaris

A

Origin: medial epicondyle of humerus
Action: flexion, adduction of radiocarpal joint

215
Q

Origin site and action of flexor digitorum superficialis/profundus

A

Origin: superficialis only - medial epicondyle of humerus
Action: flexion of radiocarpal, metacarpopalphalangeal and interphalangeal joints of manus

216
Q

Action of flexor pollicis longus

A

Flexion of metacarpopalphalangeal and interphalangeal joints of Pollux

217
Q

Origin site and action of extensor digitorum

A

Origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
Action: extension of radiocarpal, metacarpopalphalangeal and interphalangeal joints of manus

218
Q

Origin and action of extensor digiti minimi

A

Origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
Action: Extension of metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints of little finger (5th digit)

219
Q

Origin, insertion and action of rectus femoris

A

Origin: on os coxa
Insertion: tibial tuberosity
Action: hip flexion and knee extension

220
Q

Insertion and action of vastus lateralis/medialis

A

Insertion: tibial tuberosity
Action: knee extension

221
Q

Origin, insertion and action of biceps femoris

A

Origin: ischial tuberosity
Insertion: on fibula
Action: hip extension and knee flexion

222
Q

Origin, insertion and action of semitendinosus/semimembranosus

A

Origin: ischial tuberosity
Insertion: on tibia
Action: hip extension and knee flexion

223
Q

Action of adductor longus/Magnus

A

Adduction of hip

224
Q

Origin of sartorius

A

Anterior superior iliac spine of os coxa

225
Q

Insertion site and action of tibialis anterior

A

Insertion: medial side of tarsals
Action: dorsiflexion of talocrural joint and inversion of the subtalar joint

226
Q

Insertion site and action of soleus/gastrocnemius

A

Insertion: calcaneal tuberosity
Action: plantarflexion of talocrural joint

227
Q

Insertion site and action of fibularis longus

A

Insertion: on lateral side of tarsals
Action: eversion of subtalar joint

228
Q

Action of abductor hallucis

A

abduction of metatarophalangeal joint of hallux

229
Q

3 main layers of the skin

A

epidermis, dermis, superficial fasica

230
Q

what type of cells is the epidermis made up of

A

keratinised stratified squamous epithelium, keratinocytes, melanincytes

231
Q

what type of cells and structures is the dermis made up of

A

dense irregular connective tissue, arrector pili muscles, blood vessels, nerves/nerve endings, sudoriferous glands, sebaceous gland, hair follicles

232
Q

what type of cells and structures is the hypodermis made up of

A

adipose tissue interspersed with collagenous fibres (aerolar connective tissue)

233
Q

layers of the epidermis (from most superficial)

A

stratum corneum
stratum lucidum (thick skin only)
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
stratum basale

234
Q

which epidermis layer consists of mostly keratinocytes and melanocytes and is composed of a single later of cuboidal/columnar cells undergoing mitotic division

A

stratum basale

235
Q

what is the stratum corneum made up of and what is its purpose

A

clear, dead, anuclear, scale-like keratinised skin
mechanical protection against abrasion

236
Q

what is the dermis subdivided into

A

papillary layer (->dermal pipillae) and reticular layer

237
Q

purpose of the dermal papillae

A

supplies blood to epidermis, thermoregulation

238
Q

what does the papillary layer of the dermis consist of

A

capillary loops, loose aereolar connective tissue, fibroblasts, adipocytes

239
Q

how to differentiate between thick and thin skin

A

thick skin has an extra layer - stratum lucidum - and has a thicker stratum spinosum

240
Q

types of functional neurons (3) and relation to CNS and PNS

A

sensory neuron - carries sensory info from PNS to CNS
somatic motor neuron - carries instructions from brain to skeletal muscles, results in body movement. voluntary
autonomic motor neuron - part of parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system, carries instructions to involuntary muscles (cardiac/smooth muscle tissue)

240
Q

types of structural neurons (3) and where they can be found

A

unipolar (skin)
bipolar (eyes, nose)
multipolar (99% of neurons)

241
Q

what is a synaptic cleft

A

space between presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes where neurotransmitters diffuse across this gap towards the postsynaptic membrane

242
Q

define grey matter and what it is referred to in CNS and PNS

A

a group of neuronal cells
CNS - nucleus
PNS - ganglion

243
Q

define white matter and what it is referred to in CNS and PNS

A

bundle of axons
CNS - tract
PNS - nerve

244
Q

subdivisions of the nervous system

A

CNS and PNS

245
Q

subdivisions of CNS

A

brain and spinal cord

246
Q

subdivisions of PNS

A

cranial nerves, spinal nerves, receptors
autonomic system - conscious perception + voluntary motor response
autonomic nervous system (= parasympathetic + sympathetic nervous system) - involuntary response

247
Q

meninges of the brain (3)

A

dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater

248
Q

what feature partially separates the cerebral hemispheres

A

longitudinal fissure of the dura mater

249
Q

purpose of the arachnoid granulations of the arachnoid mater

A

small pockets of arachnoid protrude through the dura mater to enter the dural sinuses

250
Q

what structure is responsible for production of cerebrospinal fluid and where is it located

A

choroid plexus located in the lateral ventricles, interventricular foramina, third and fourth ventricles

251
Q

flow of cerebrospinal fluid in ventricles

A

produced by choroid plexus, flows from fourth ventricle inferiorly into central canal of spinal chord + posteriorlaterally through apertures that open to subarachnoid space

252
Q

name the 4 cerebral lobes and their functions

A

frontal: motor functions, language, cognitive functions, personality, STM
parietal: somatosensation, proprioception, kinesthesia
temporal: auditory sensation, memory and smell
occipital: visual

253
Q

what consists of the diencephalon

A

thalamus, hypothalamus and pineal gland surrounding the 3rd ventricle

254
Q

function of the hypothalamus

A

homeostasis (ANS), endocrine system, memory and emotion
regulates pituitary gland

255
Q

function of pineal gland

A

produces melatonin for circadian cycle

256
Q

function of the diencephalon

A

majority of brain, spinal cord, PNS send info to cerebrum through here

257
Q

how is the brainstem formed

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

258
Q

function of the three parts of the brainstem

A

medulla oblongata and pons controls cardiovascular and respiratory rates
midbrain: coordinates sensory representations of visual, auditory, somatosensory perceptual spaces

259
Q

function of the cerebellum

A

compares information from the cerebrum w sensory feedback from periphery through spinal cord

260
Q

where do spinal nerves pass through in the spine

A

intervertebral foramina

261
Q

what does the cervical enlargement innervate to and through which plexus

A

upper limb
brachial plexus

262
Q

what does the lumbar enlargement innervate to and through which plexus

A

lower limb
sacral plexuses

263
Q

do horns in the spinal cord contain grey or white matter, and what are the differences between each horn type (dorsal, ventral, lateral)

A

grey matter
dorsal: site where sensory neurons are synpasing
ventral: site where cell bodies of motor neurons are located (sends to skeletal muscle)
lateral (only in thoracic and upper limb): site where cell bodies of sympathetic neurons are located

264
Q

differentiate between ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord and give example

A

ascending: white matter which carries sensory info through spinal cord to reach brain. E.g. spinothalamic tract: carries pain and temp sensations
descending: white matter which carries motor info through spinal cord to target organs. E.g. corticospinal tract: carries info. (axons) in gyrus of frontal lobe to contralateral side of spinal cord to synapse with a second neuron that travels to skeletal muscle

265
Q

what is the cauda equina

A

collection of nerve roots located in vertebral canal in adult

266
Q

what do nerves consist of

A

nervous tissue, connective tissue, blood vessels

267
Q

what is the olfactory nerve responsible for and is it sensory, motor, or mix

A

carrying smell info from nasal epithelium. sensory

268
Q

what is the optic nerve responsible for and is it sensory, motor, or mix

A

vision. sensory

269
Q

what is the oculomotor nerve responsible for and is it sensory, motor, or mix

A

eye movements and pupillary reflex. motor

270
Q

what is the trigeminal nerve responsible for and is it sensory, motor, or mix

A

cutaneous sensations of face and controls muscle of mastication

271
Q

what is the facial nerve responsible for and is it sensory, motor, or mix

A

muscles of facial expression, sensation of taste and production of saliva, orbicularis oculi. mixed

272
Q

what is the vestibulocochlear nerve responsible for and is it sensory, motor, or mix

A

hearing and balance. mixed

273
Q

what is the vagus nerve responsible for and is it sensory, motor, or mix

A

parasympathetic supply to body: homeostatic control of organs of thoracic and superior abdominal cavities. mixed

274
Q

what do the posterior/dorsal root of each spinal cord contain

A

dorsal root ganglion, axons of sensory neurons

275
Q

what do the dorsal root/spinal ganglion contain

A

neuronal cell bodies of sensory neurons

276
Q

what do the anterior/ventral root of each spinal nerve

A

axons of somatic motor and autonomic neurons

277
Q

what’s the difference between where the dorsal and ventral ramus of each spinal nerve supply to

A

dorsal: organs in the back
ventral: organs anterior to vertebral column

278
Q

how many spinal nerves in the following: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

A

8, 12, 5, 5, 1 respectively

279
Q

where does the cervical plexus innervate to

A

posterior neck and head, thoracic diaphragm

280
Q

where does the brachial plexus innervate to

A

upper limb

281
Q

where does the lumbar plexus innervate to

A

anterior and medial compartments of thigh

282
Q

where does the sacral plexus innervate to

A

posterior compartment of thigh, and all muscles of leg and foot

283
Q

what plexus is the phrenic nerve related to and where does it innervate to

A

cervical plexus
thoracic diaphragm

284
Q

what plexus is the median nerve related to

A

brachial plexus

285
Q

what plexus is the femoral nerve related to

A

lumbar plexus

286
Q

what plexus is the phrenic nerve related to and where does it innervate to

A

sacral plexus

287
Q

what is the ANS and its subdivisions

A

ANS: involuntarily regulates activity of cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands
sympathetic (fight or flight): increases cardiac muscle
parasympathetic (rest and digest): decreases cardiac muscle

288
Q

where are the cell bodies of the parasympathetic and sympathetic located

A

para: brainstem
sympth: thoracic and upper lumbar parts of spinal cord

289
Q

What hormones does the pituitary gland secrete?

A

anterior: growth hormone, luteinising hormone, follicle stimulating hormone
posterior: anti-diuretic hormone

290
Q

What hormones does the hypothalamus secrete?

A

growth hormone

291
Q

What hormones does the pineal gland secrete?

292
Q

What hormones does the thyroid gland secrete?

A

thyroid hormones, calcitonin

293
Q

What hormones does the parathyroid glands secrete?

A

parathyroid hormone

294
Q

what hormones do the adrenal/suprarenal glands secrete?

A

adrenaline (epinephrine), noradrenaline (norepinephrine), cortisol, aldosterone

295
Q

what hormones does the pancreas secrete?

A

insulin, glucagon

296
Q

what hormones do the ovaries secrete?

A

oestrogen, progesterone

297
Q

what hormones do the testes secrete?

A

testosterone

298
Q

endocrine stuctures in the brain

A

hypothalamus, pituitary gland, pineal gland

299
Q

key structural differnece between anterior and posterior portions of hypothalamus

A

anterior: glandular/epithelial tissue
posterior: neural tissue

300
Q

deciduous dentition vs permanent dentition

A

deciduous: 8 incisors, 4 canines, 8 molars
permanent: + 8 premolars + 4 molars

301
Q

intraperitoneal organs

A

liver, stomach, spleen, small intestine (except duodenum), transverse and sigmoid colon

302
Q

retroperitoneal organs

A

kidneys, suprarenal glands, pancreas, ascending and descending colon, aorta, IVC, numerous lymph nodes

303
Q

function of pyloric sphincter

A

muscular ring that controls entry of chyme into small intestine

304
Q

function of main pancreatic duct

A

drains bile and pancreatic digestive enzymes into the duodenum via the hepatopancreatic ampulla

305
Q

function of gallbladder

A

stores and concentrates bile

306
Q

function of muscularis mucosae

A

pulls mucosa of stomach and small intestine into folds, increases surface area for digestive absorption

307
Q

function of muscularis externa

A

mechanical digestion; moves chyme along canal

308
Q

function of lacteals

A

absorbs lipid breakdown production and transports to bloodstream

187 (2 decks)

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