Evals 1

Question 1

A geneticist isolates a gene for a specific trait under
study. She also isolated the corresponding mRNA.
Upon comparison, the mRNA is found to contain
1,000 fewer bases than the DNA sequence. Did the
geneticist isolate the wrong DNA?

A. Yes, mRNA is made from a DNA template and
should be the same length as the gene sequence.
B. No, the final mRNA contains only exons, the
introns were removed.
C. Yes, the mRNA contains more bases than the DNA
sequence because bases flanking the gene are also
transcribed.
D. No, the mRNA was partially degraded after it was
transcribed.

Answer 1

B. No, the final mRNA contains only exons, the
introns were removed

The pre-RNA includes two different types of
segments, called introns, which are removed by a
process called splicing, and exons, which are
retained in the final mRNA.

Question 2

Which of the following components is involved in the
initiation of transcription?

A. Origin
B. Promoter
C. Start codon (AUG)
D. Primer

Answer 2

B. Promoter

A Promoter will bind to RNA polymerase to enhance
the process of transcription.

Question 3

3. Some events that take place during the synthesis of a
   specific protein are listed below. The correct order of
   these events is A. mRNA attaches to ribosome B. DNA
   serves as a template for RNA production. C. tRNA bonds toa specific codon D. Amino acids are bonded together E. RNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm

A. C B A E D
B. B C E D A
C. D A E C B
D. B E A C D

Answer 3

D. B E A C D

DNA serves as a template for RNA production > RNA
moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm > mRNA
attaches to ribosome > tRNA bonds to a specific
codon > Amino acids are bonded together

Question 4

One similarity between DNA and mRNA molecules is
that they both contain

A. The same sugar
B. Double-stranded polymers
C. Genetic codes based on sequences of bases
D. A nitrogenous base known as uracil

Answer 4

C. Genetic codes based on sequences of bases

Sugar:
DNA - deoxyribose
RNA - ribose
Strand of polymers:
DNA - double
RNA - single
Nitrogenous base:
DNA - thymine
RNA - uracil

Question 5

Identify which is incorrect about the function of the
5-cap and 3-poly-A-tail of a mature eukaryotic mRNA
molecule?

A. To aid export of the mature transcript to the
cytoplasm
B. To aid ribosome binding to the transcript
C. To prevent mRNA degradation
D. To facilitate splicing

Answer 5

B. To aid ribosome binding to the transcript

tRNA aids ribosome in binding to the transcript.
Poly-A-Tail aids export of the mature transcript to
the cytoplasm.
miRNA; 5-cap and 3-poly-A-tail prevent mRNA
degradation.
snRNA; spliceosome facilitates splicing.

Question 6

Which of the following is correct about DNA?

A. It provides the instructions for the synthesis of
mRNA.
B. All of the choices are correct
C. It remains constant despite changes in
environmental conditions.
D. It is read by ribosomes during the process of
translation.

Answer 6

A. It provides the instructions for the synthesis of
mRNA.

Question 7

Which of the following statements describes how the
RNA sequence specifies the production of an amino acid chain?
A. Each group of three bases codes for an enzyme
that binds amino acids together.
B. Each base produces electrical signals sent to the
cytoplasm to initiate protein assembly.
C. Each set of three bases codes for a single amino
acid (codon)
D. Each base codes for one amino acid.

Answer 7

C. Each set of three bases codes for a single amino
acid (codon)

Question 8

According to the central dogma, which of the following
represents the flow of genetic information.

A. DNA to protein to RNA
B. DNA to RNA to protein
C. RNA to DNA to protein
D. Protein to DNA to RNA

Answer 8

B. DNA to RNA to protein

Question 9

Mature mRNA from a eukaryote would contain each of
these features except which of the following?

A. 5- cap
B. 3-poly-A-tail
C. Intron-encoded RNA
D. Exon-encoded RNA

Answer 9

C. Intron-encoded RNA

The pre-RNA includes two different types of
segments, called introns, which are removed by a
process called splicing, and exons, which are
retained in the final mRNA.

Question 10

Which is correct about promoter?

A. It is the location where DNA replication begins.
B. It is an initiation factor in the process of
translation.
C. It is a DNA sequence to which RNA polymerase
binds.
D. It is a protein that binds to RNA polymerase to enhance the process of transcription

Answer 10

D. It is a protein that binds to RNA polymerase to enhance the process of transcription

DNA replication initiates at specific points, called
origins, where the DNA double helix is unwound.
At the initiation stage–regulatory proteins bind
the 5’ end of mRNA with the cap.
Transcription Factors bind to RNA Polymerase near
the start of transcription of a gene. May either
inhibit or assist RNA polymerase in initiation and maintenance of transcription

Question 11

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the process
of transcription?

A. The stages of transcription are initiation,
elimination, reduction
B. Transcription occurs for individual genes.
C. Transcription uses both strands of DNA to make
mRNA.
D. DNA polymerases control transcription.

Answer 11

B. Transcription occurs for individual genes.

The stages of transcription are initiation,
elongation, and termination.
The template strand is the strand from which the
RNA is actually transcribed.
RNA polymerases and transcription factors control
transcription.

Question 12

Which of the following is the amino acid that appears
at the N-terminus of all newly translated eukaryotic
polypeptides?

A. Tryptophan
B. Glycine
C. Cysteine
D. Methionine

Answer 12

D. Methionine

Question 13

Which of the following is arranged in correct order
from the most complex to the simplest?

A. organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system
B. molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system,
organism
C. tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism
D. cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism
E. organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular

Answer 13

B. molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system,
organism

Question 14

Which statement about feedback control systems is
incorrect?

A. Positive feedback usually promotes stability in a
system.
B. Adaptive control is in a sense, a delayed negative
feedback mechanism.
C. Generation of nerve actions potentials involves
positive feedback.
D. Most control systems of the body act by negative
feedback.
E. Feed-forward control is important in regulating
muscle activity.

Answer 14

A. Positive feedback usually promotes stability in a
system.

Question 15

In general, the nervous system does each of the
following, EXCEPT

A. direct very specific responses
B. direct long-term responses to change
C. respond rapidly to change
D. interpret sensory information
E. help to maintain homeostasis

Answer 15

B. direct long-term responses to change

Question 16

The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions is called

A. equilibrious
B. homeostasis
C. hemopoiesis
D. self-regulation
E. amplification

Answer 16

B. homeostasis

Question 17

If the feedback gain of a control system is -3.0, this
means that the system is

A. A negative feedback system capable of correcting
⅓ of the initial disturbance to the system.
B. A negative feedback system capable of correcting
⅔ of the initial disturbance to the system.
C. A positive feedback system capable of correcting
⅓ of the initial disturbance to the system.
D. A negative feedback system capable of correcting
¾ of the initial disturbance to the system.

Answer 17

D. A negative feedback system capable of correcting
¾ of the initial disturbance to the system.

Question 18

Compared with the intracellular fluid, the extracellular fluid has ____ sodium ion concentration, _____ potassium
ion concentration, ______ chloride ion concentration, and _____ phosphate ion concentration.

A. Lower, lower, lower, lower
B. Lower, higher, lower, lower
C. Lower,higher, higher, lower
D. higher,higher, lower, higher
E. higher, lower, higher, lower

Answer 18

E. higher, lower, higher, lower

Sodium = high
Chloride = high
Potassium = low
Phosphate = low

Question 19

Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) ________
that detects a particular stimulus and a(n)____ that
responds to the stimulus by communicating with
a(n)_____ whose activity has an effect on the same
stimulus.

A. receptor, control center, effector
B. control center, receiver, effector
C. control center, effector, receptor
D. receiver, communicator, effector
E. effector, receiver, communicator

Answer 19

A. receptor, control center, effector

Question 20

Which statement is incorrect?

A. The body’s compensatory mechanism often leads
to deviations from the normal range in some of the
body’s function.
B. Disease is generally considered to be a state of
disrupted homeostasis.
C. In most diseases, homeostatic mechanisms are no
longer operating in the body.
D. The term homeostasis describes the maintenance
of nearly constant conditions in the body

Answer 20

C. In most diseases, homeostatic mechanisms are no
longer operating in the body.

Disease is often considered to be a state of
disrupted homeostasis. However, even in the
presence of disease, homeostatic mechanisms
continue to operate and maintain vital functions
through multiple compensations.

Question 21

The second stage of circulation is characterized by
which of the following EXCEPT

A. Large amounts of fluid and its dissolved
constituents diffuse back and forth between the
blood and the tissue spaces.
B. The process of diffusion is caused by kinetic
motion of the molecules in the plasma and the
interstitial fluid.
C. Few cells are located not more than 50
micrometers from a capillary ensuring diffusion in
seconds.
D. The ECF everywhere in the body is continually
being mixed, thereby maintaining homogeneity of
extracellular fluid.
E. The fluid and dissolved molecules are continually
moving and bouncing in all directions in the
plasma and fluid in the intercellular spaces, as
well as through capillary pores.

Answer 21

D. The ECF everywhere in the body is continually
being mixed, thereby maintaining homogeneity of
extracellular fluid.

Question 22

A chemical imbalance in the body can cause the heart
to stop pumping blood, which in turn will cause other
tissues and organs to cease functioning. This observation supports the view that

A. All organisms are composed of cells.
B. Blood has magic properties.
C. Chemical molecules make up cells.
D. All levels of organization within an organism are
interdependent.
E. Congenital defects can be life-threatening.

Answer 22

D. All levels of organization within an organism are
interdependent.

Question 23

Which of the following body control systems examples
is true and correct?

A. Control of high arterial blood pressure is through
the baroreceptors system.
B. Release of oxygen in the tissues is dependent on
the respiratory center
C. control of low arterial blood pressure is through
the vasomotor system in the medulla
D. control of arterial blood pressure is through the
vasomotor system and the baroreceptor system
E. Control of carbon dioxide in the ECF is dictated by
the ability of hemoglobin to pick-up C02.

Answer 23

D. control of arterial blood pressure is through the
vasomotor system and the baroreceptor system

A higher than normal carbon dioxide concentration
in the blood excites the respiratory center, causing
a person to breathe rapidly and deeply.

Question 24

An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop
controlling body temperature would be

A. temperature sensors on the skin that detect a
stimulus.
B. regulatory centers that send commands to an
effector.
C. sweat glands that increase secretion.
D. sweat glands that act like effectors
E. effectors that cause blood vessels to dilate

Answer 24

A. temperature sensors on the skin that detect a
stimulus.

Question 25

Which of the following is responsible for the synthesis
of lipids?

A. Golgi apparatus
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. All of the choices provided

Answer 25

C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Golgi apparatus form lysosomes, secretory vesicles,
and other cytoplasmic components.
RER functions to synthesize new protein molecules
in the cell.

Question 26

Which of the following describes peroxisomes rather than lysozymes?

A. They are used for digestion of ingested macro and
micromolecules
B. They have a cell membrane
C. They contain oxidases
D. They contain hydrolases

Answer 26

C. They contain oxidases

Peroxisomes contain oxidases rather than
hydrolases. Several of the oxidases are capable of
combining oxygen with hydrogen ions derived from
different intracellular chemicals to form hydrogen
peroxide (H2O2).

Question 27

The physical properties of the bilipid layer is dependent on its chemical makeup. The nature of the head groups of the lipid molecule determine

A. Width of the bilayer
B. Density of the membrane
C. Fluidity of the membrane
D. Strength of the bilayer

Answer 27

B. Density of the membrane

Width of the bilayer: determine length of fatty acid
side chains.
Fluidity of the membrane: presence of more
carbohydrates, proteins, and fatty acids. Saturated
fats = decrease fluidity. Unsaturated fats = increase.

Question 28

This makes up your protoplasm

A. Ectoplasm, Endoplasm
B. Nucleus and cytoplasm
C. Cell membrane and cytoplasm

Answer 28

B. Nucleus and cytoplasm

Question 29

Which of the following transport proteins are always
open, with minimal resistance but still allows regulation of substances going in and out of cells

A. Pores
B. Ion channels
C. ATP carriers
D. Solute carriers

Answer 29

A. Pores

Question 30

To maintain cell integrity and shape the elastic support
that is mainly responsible for this is

A. All of the choices provided
B. Intermediate filaments
C. Microtubules
D. Microfilaments

Answer 30

D. Microfilaments

large numbers of actin microfilaments frequently
occur in the outer zone of the cytoplasm, called the
ectoplasm, to form an elastic support for the cell
membrane.

Question 31

Which of the following plasma membrane functions
serves as the cells frontline system for responding and
adjusting to chemical changes in the extracellular
environment?

A. Cell membrane proteins as enzymes
B. Cell membrane proteins as receptors
C. Cell membrane proteins participating in
intracellular signaling
D. Cell membrane proteins as adhesion proteins
E. Cell membrane proteins as recognition proteins

Answer 31

B. Cell membrane proteins as receptors

Question 32

The differences in the length and saturation of the
fatty acid tails of the cell membrane will primarily have
the following effect?

A. All of the choices provided
B. Influence the structure affecting resilience and
stability of the cell
C. Alter the selective permeability of the membrane
D. Influences how phospholipid pack against each
other and affect fluidity

Answer 32

D. Influences how phospholipid pack against each
other and affect fluidity

Saturated fatty acids
- long chains; fluidity decreases
Unsaturated fatty acids
- shorter chain; fluidity increases

Question 33

The energy currency used by the cells in the body for
its metabolic functions come from

A. Lysosomes
B. Sources of energy that we take in (fats,
carbohydrates, lipid)
C. Mitochondria
D. Nucleus

Answer 33

C. Mitochondria

Question 34

Which is considered the packaging house of the cells?

A. Golgi apparatus
B. Nucleus
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Mitochondria

Answer 34

A. Golgi apparatus

Question 35

The phospholipid compositions of the two leaflets of
the plasma membrane of a single cell are identical

A. False
B. True

Answer 35

A. False

Question 36

A patient presenting with a disease process that is due
to an inactive or non functioning protein produced most
likely has a problem involving which of the following
organelle?

A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Lysosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Nucleus

Answer 36

A. Endoplasmic reticulum

Endoplasmic Reticulum - synthesize lipids, proteins;
provide enzymes for control of glycogen breakdown,
and provide enzymes for detoxification.
Lysosomes - play a key role in the process of autophagy; hydrolases
Golgi Apparatus - form lysosomes, secretory
vesicles, and other cytoplasmic components.