Ethics, Professional, and Legal Responsibility Flashcards

1
Q

List the types of covered opinions outlined in Circular 230.

A

Tax avoidance transactions
Transactions with principal purpose of avoiding tax
Four categories of transactions with significant purpose of avoiding tax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List the general requirements of Internal Revenue Service (IRS) practitioners as highlighted in Circular 230.

A

Furnishing requested information promptly
Exercising due diligence
Not unreasonably delaying IRS matters.
Not providing assistance in practicing to persons disbarred or suspended by IRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Circular 230?

A

The Department of Treasury’s rules of practice that cover CPAs and others who practice before the Internal Revenue Service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List the components of the Internal Revenue Service best practices as outlined in Circular 230.

A

Communicate clearly with client
Establish facts
Relate applicable law
Advise client regarding consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Identify the elements of an impermissible fee as described in Circular 230.

A

Unconscionable

(With some exceptions) Contingent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In what situations is it impractical for a tax payer to obtain exact data for the preparation of their tax returns?

A

Examples:
Numerous transactions involving very small amounts;
Records are missing/precise information unavailable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the tax preparer’s responsibility to inform the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) of an error in a prepared tax return?

A

Member need not, and may not, do so without client’s permission, except where required by law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants’ Statements on Standards for Tax Services No. 2 state?

A

A member should make a reasonable effort to obtain from the taxpayer the information necessary to provide appropriate answers to all questions on a tax return before signing as preparer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the rationale for the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants’ Statements on Standards for Tax Services No. 2?

A

Omission tends to detract from the quality of the return; and
Member must sign the preparer’s declaration stating that the return is true, correct, and complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Realistic possibility =

A

> 33% chance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When are written communications with the client preferable?

A

Preferable for complicated or important matters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What format should a tax preparer’s advice to a client be given in?

A

No standard format required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Under what circumstances can a CPA recommend a tax position to a tax client?

A

There’s a realistic possibility it will be sustained, or

A reasonable basis and it is disclosed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Reasonable basis =

A

> 20% chance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a preparer’s obligation regarding verifying information provided by the tax payer?

A

A preparer should not ignore the implications of information furnished and should make reasonable inquiries if the information furnished appears to be incorrect, incomplete, or inconsistent either on its face or on the basis of other facts known to the tax preparer. Further, a member should refer to the taxpayer’s returns for one or more prior years whenever feasible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants’ Statements on Standards for Tax Services No. 3 state?

A

A member may in good faith rely without verification upon information furnished by client or third parties provided members’ obligations are met.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List the grounds on which a CPA can omit an answer on a tax return.

A

Information not readily available and answer is not significant in terms of liability;
Genuine uncertainty as to meaning of the question in relation to particular return;
Answer is voluminous and return states that data will be supplied upon examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In what situation are inquiries by the tax preparer appropriate?

A

Inquiries should be made if there is a need to determine that a specifically required condition by the Internal Revenue Code or other legislation, such as maintaining books and records or substantiating documentation, has been satisfied and to obtain information when the material furnished appears to be incorrect, incomplete, or inconsistent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List the circumstances in which use of estimates on a tax return must be disclosed.

A

Taxpayer has died/is ill at time of filing;
Taxpayer has not received a K-1 for a flow-through entity at time of filing;
Litigation bearing on return is pending;
Relevant records have been destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What things should a CPA never tell a tax client?

A

This isn’t right, but the IRS never checks.

This isn’t right, but we’ll use it to bargain the IRS down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When are use of estimates permitted on a tax return?

A

Obtaining exact figures would be excessively expensive or impractical;
The estimate is reasonable given known facts;
The estimates do not imply greater accuracy than exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the responsibility of a CPA regarding errors contained in a previously filed tax return?

A

Advise a client of errors contained in a previously filed tax return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or false: A tax return preparer (TRP) can prepare tax forms as a fiduciary.

A

False. An individual who furnishes typing or other mechanical assistance, prepares forms for his or her employer, or prepares a form as a fiduciary is not classified as a tax preparer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List “unreasonable positions.”

A

No “substantial authority” (40% chance) for position
No “reasonable basis” (20% chance) for disclosed position
Not “more likely than not” (50% chance) for tax shelter position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define “tax return preparer (TRP).”

A

A person who is paid to prepare or retain employees to prepare a substantial portion of any federal tax return or refund claim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List the items that can cause an automatic expulsion from the AICPA.

A
Adverse judgment for:
Felony
Failure to file tax return
Filing fraudulent tax return
Aiding fraudulent tax return.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the requirements for obtaining a CPA license in most states?

A

Education (Bachelors + 30 hours of college credit) and CPE
Pass CPA Exam
Experience (2,000 hours).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who grants CPA licenses?

A

State boards of accountancy.

29
Q

List the activities for which a CPA license is needed

A

Audit or other SAS engagement.
SSARS review of F/S.
SSAE examination of prospective F/S.
Any engagement meeting PCAOB standards

30
Q

What does the acronym JEEP stand for?

A

The AICPA’s Joint Ethics Enforcement Program.

31
Q

List the two types of agreements.

A

Express or Implied.

32
Q

What must be proven by a contracting party to establish the defense of fraud?

A
Misrepresentation or omission of fact
Materiality
Scienter
Reasonable reliance
Damages.
33
Q

Define “breach of contract”.

A

Failure to perform substantially as agreed under contract.

34
Q

Define “negligence”.

A

The performance of a contract in a careless manner. Negligence does not lead to punitive damages.

35
Q

Describe the Privity Approach of Ultra mares v. Touche to accountant liability.

A

The Accountant is liable only to those with whom s/he is in privity of contract.

36
Q

Describe the Reasonable Foreseeability Approach to accountant liability

A

The Accountant is liable to whomever s/he can reasonably foresee may use the financial statements s/he certifies or prepares.

37
Q

Define “constructive fraud”.

A

Reckless disregard or gross negligence.

38
Q

Describe the Restatement “Limited Class” Approach to accountant liability.

A

The Accountant has third party liability to a limited class of known or intended users of financial statements whose specific identity need not be known by the CPA.

39
Q

List the three primary approaches to accountant liability

A

The Privity Approach of Ultramares v. Touche.
The Restatement “Limited Class” Approach.
The Reasonable Foreseeability Approach

40
Q

What types of damages can a tax client recover?

A

Compensatory damages, but not punitive.

41
Q

Define “standard”.

A

That degree of judgment and skill possessed by a reasonable accountant under all the circumstances

42
Q

What occurs when the breach of a contract is minor?

A

In common law, if a breach is only minor, the non-breaching party is not discharged from the terms and conditions of the contract, but is entitled to damages

43
Q

List the sources for which standards should be followed by a tax professional

A

State and Federal statutes, Court decisions, Contract with client, Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) and Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS), Customs of the Profession

44
Q

Define “actual fraud.”

A

Fraud is an intentional tort that is made with scienter or a knowledge to deceive

45
Q

List the elements of recovery.

A

Duty, Breach, Damages, Proximate Cause

46
Q

Define implied agreement.

A

To perform in a non-negligent manner, consistent with the standards of the profession

47
Q

What is the focus of Internal Financial Controls?

A

These controls focus on the integrity of information flowing into the financial statements

48
Q

What is the focus of Internal Accounting Controls?

A

These controls focus on Asset Accountability

49
Q

Describe the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act

A

A United States federal law known primarily for two of its main provisions, one that addresses accounting transparency requirements under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and another concerning bribery of foreign officials

50
Q

What actions are considered a crime under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act with regard to the destruction of evidence?

A

Destruction of records; Willful failure to retain audit review work papers; Corrupt tampering with documents to be used in an official proceeding.

51
Q

List the four elements of a violation of the Racketeer Influenced Corrupt Organizations Act as outlined in Section 1962(c) of the Act

A

A violation of Section 1962(c), requires (1) conduct (2) of an enterprise (3) through a pattern (4) of racketeering activity

52
Q

Describe the Sarbanes-Oxley federal securities crime provision

A

Whoever knowingly executes, or attempts to execute, a scheme or artifice–(1) to defraud any person in connection with any security [of a public company]; or (2) to obtain, by means of false or fraudulent pretenses, representations, or promises, any money or property in connection with the purchase or sale of any security of an issuer [of a public company]…shall be fined under this title, or imprisoned not more than 25 years, or both

53
Q

Describe the Racketeer Influenced Corrupt Organizations Act

A

Commonly referred to as the RICO Act, the Act is a United States federal law that provides for extended criminal penalties and a civil cause of action for acts performed as part of an ongoing criminal organization. The RICO Act focuses specifically on racketeering, and it allows for the leaders of a syndicate to be tried for the crimes which they ordered others to do or assisted them, closing a perceived loophole that allowed someone who told a man to, for example, murder, to be exempt from the trial because they did not actually do it.

54
Q

Describe the condition that must exist for the attachment of mail or wire fraud liability

A

Use of mail or wires must be an essential part of the fraudulent scheme for liability to attach

55
Q

True or False: The Racketeer Influenced Corrupt Organizations Act provides for only criminal penalties

A

False. The Act provides for extended criminal penalties and a civil cause of action for organized crime

56
Q

True or false: Sarbanes-Oxley Section 404: Assessment of internal control supplements the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act’s internal accounting controls with internal financial controls

A

True - it supplements FCPA’s Internal Accounting Controls with Internal Financial Controls

57
Q

What brought about the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act?

A

Post-Watergate response to illegal foreign bribes paid by U.S. companies

58
Q

List the two federal fraud provisions under which accountants can be held criminally liable

A

Mail fraud and wire fraud

59
Q

List the activities that are punishable under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act

A

Failure to retain audit records for seven years.
Destruction of records in federal matter.
Corrupt tampering with documents

60
Q

Describe the whistleblower protection under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act

A

The act punishes those who retaliate against whistleblowers that lawfully provided information to their supervisors or the federal government regarding conduct believed to be in violation of the securities law

61
Q

What is the purpose of the Racketeer Influenced Corrupt Organizations Act?

A

To prevent organized crime’s infiltration into legitimate business

62
Q

To what items do accountant-client privilege apply?

A

An accountant is prohibited from sharing work papers with anyone without the client’s permission (except in certain situations) and may not disclose information obtained during work performed in testimonials unless subpoenaed and relevant to a court case

63
Q

List the exceptions to a practitioner’s privilege as outlined in the Internal Revenue Code §7525

A

Criminal matters;
U.S. matters not before IRS or federal courts;
State or local tax matters;
Written tax shelter advice

64
Q

What does the acronym GAPP stand for?

A

Generally Accepted Privacy Principles

65
Q

List the two actions that are punishable conditions under §7216 of the Internal Revenue Code

A

Disclosing any information obtained in preparation of a tax return.
Using information for any purpose other than to prepare a return

66
Q

List the six conditions under which disclosure of client information is acceptable

A
Client consents;
GAAP calls for disclosure;
Enforceable summons;
Ethical examination;
Peer review;
To others in firm on "need to know" basis
67
Q

List some examples of when evidentiary privilege is not recognized

A

State common law;
Federal common law;
Most states’ statutes

68
Q

What does the Bank Secrecy Act require of taxpayers?

A

This Act requires taxpayers to report foreign bank accounts